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Lead4Pass 200-901 dumps with PDF and VCE latest update

September 7, 2022 | admin | 200-901 DEVASC exam, 200-901 Developing Applications and Automating Workflows using Cisco Platforms, Cisco, Cisco 200-901 Dumps, Cisco 200-901 Dumps exam questions and answers, Cisco 200-901 dumps PDF, Cisco 200-901 Exam Dumps, Cisco Certified DevNet Associate | Tags: , , , , ,

The latest updated Lead4Pass 200-901 dumps with PDF files and VCE exam engine, containing 294 exam questions and answers, serve all 200-901 DEVASC exam candidates to help them successfully pass the exam.

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Free sharing of 15 Cisco 200-901 Dumps exam questions and answers:

New Question 1:

How does requesting a synchronous API operation differ from requesting an asynchronous API operation?

A. clients receive responses with a task id for further processing

B. clients subscribe to a webhook for operation results

C. clients poll for the status of the execution of operations

D. clients can access the results immediately

Correct Answer: C

New Question 2:

What are two advantages of YANG-based approaches for infrastructure automation? (Choose two.)

A. multi-platform vendor abstraction

B. compiles to executables that run on network devices

C. designed to reflect networking concepts

D. directly maps to JavaScript

E. command line is driven interface

Correct Answer: AC

New Question 3:

Which device is used to transport traffic from one broadcast domain to another broadcast domain?

A. layer 2 switch

B. proxy server

C. router

D. load balancer

Correct Answer: C

New Question 4:

Which service provides a directory lookup for IP addresses and host names?

A. DNS

B. NAT

C. SNMP

D. DHCP

Correct Answer: A

New Question 5:

Users cannot access a webserver and after the traffic is captured, the capture tool shows an ICMP packet that reports “time exceeded in-transit”. What is the cause of this webserver access issue?

A. A router along the path has the wrong time.

B. A router along the path is misrouting the packets in a wrong direction.

C. The server is too loaded and the connection could not be handled in time.

D. The server is too far away and the packets require too much time to reach it.

Correct Answer: B

New Question 6:

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the value of the node defined by this YANG structure?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: D

New Question 7:

What is used in Layer 2 switches to direct packet transmission to the intended recipient?

A. MAC address

B. IPv6 address

C. spanning tree

D. IPv4 address

Correct Answer: A

New Question 8:

Users cannot access a webserver and after the traffic is captured, the capture tool shows an ICMP packet that reports “communication administratively prohibited”.

What is the cause of this webserver access issue?

A. An access list along the path is blocking the traffic.

B. Users must authenticate on the webserver to access it.

C. A router along the path is overloaded and thus dropping traffic.

D. The traffic is not allowed to be translated with NAT and dropped.

Correct Answer: A

New Question 9:

What is an advantage of a version control system?

A. facilitates resolving conflicts when merging code

B. ensures that unit tests are written

C. prevents over-writing code or configuration files

D. forces the practice of trunk-based development

Correct Answer: A

New Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the result of executing this Ansible playbook?

A. The playbook copies a new start-up configuration to CISCO_ROUTER_01

B. The playbook copies a new running configuration to CISCO_ROUTER_01

C. The playbook backs up the running configuration of CISCO_ROUTER_01

D. The playbook backs up the start-up configuration of CISCO_ROUTER_01

Correct Answer: D

New Question 11:

A 401 HTTP response code is returned when calling a REST API. What is the error state identified by this response code?

A. The server cannot process the request as it has detected an issue in the request syntax or body.

B. The request has not been accepted because it requires authentication.

C. The sever accepted the request but the client is not authorized for this content.

D. The server cannot find the requested resource because the path specified is incorrect.

Correct Answer: B

New Question 12:

What is the first development task in test-driven development?

A. Write code that implements a desired function.

B. Write a failing test case for a desired function.

C. Reverse engineer the code for a desired function.

D. Write a passing test case for existing code.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://technologyconversations.com/2013/12/20/test-driven-development-tdd-example- walkthrough/

New Question 13:

What is the purpose of a firewall in application deployment?

A. adds TLS support to an application that does not support it natively

B. limits traffic to only ports required by the application

C. provides translation for an application\’s hostname to its IP address

D. forwards traffic to a pool of instances of the application

Correct Answer: B

New Question 14:

A small company has 5 servers and 50 clients. What are two reasons an engineer should split this network into separate client and server subnets? (Choose two.)

A. Subnets will split domains to limit failures.

B. A router will limit the traffic types between the clients and servers.

C. Subnets provide more IP address space for clients and servers.

D. A router will bridge the traffic between clients and servers.

E. Internet access to the servers will be denied on the router.

Correct Answer: AB

New Question 15:

How does a developer create and switch to a new branch called “my-bug-fix” to develop a product fix?

A. git checkout -b my-bug-fix

B. git branch -b my-bug-fix

C. git branch my-bug-fix

D. git checkout my-bug-fix

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.dnnsoftware.com/community-blog/cid/155105

…

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Cisco 200-201 dumps: serves all 200-201 CBROPS exam candidates

August 27, 2022 | admin | 200-201 CBROPS exam, Cisco, Cisco 200-201 dumps, Cisco 200-201 dumps exam questions and answers, CyberOps Associate | Tags: , , , ,

The newly updated Cisco 200-201 dumps contain 264 exam questions and answers that candidates can study using the 200-201 dumps PDF and 200-201 dumps VCE to help you successfully pass the 200-201 CBROPS exam.

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Share the latest Cisco 200-201 dumps exam questions and answers for free

New Question 1:

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the potential threat identified in this Stealthwatch dashboard?

A. Host 10.201.3.149 is sending data to 152.46.6.91 using TCP/443.

B. Host 152.46.6.91 is being identified as a watchlist country for data transfer.

C. Traffic to 152.46.6.149 is being denied by an Advanced Network Control policy.

D. Host 10.201.3.149 is receiving almost 19 times more data than is being sent to host 152.46.6.91.

Correct Answer: D

New Question 2:

What does cyber attribution identify in an investigation?

A. cause of an attack

B. exploit of an attack

C. vulnerabilities exploited

D. threat actors of an attack

Correct Answer: D

New Question 3:

Refer to the exhibit.

An analyst received this alert from the Cisco ASA device, and numerous activity logs were produced. How should this type of evidence be categorized?

A. indirect

B. circumstantial

C. corroborative

D. best

Correct Answer: C

Indirect=circumstantail so there is no possibility to match A or B (only one answer is needed in this question). For sure it\’s not the BEST evidence – this FW data inform only of DROPPED traffic. If smth happened inside the network, presented evidence could be used to support other evidence or make our narration stronger but alone it\’s means nothing.

New Question 4:

What is a sandbox interprocess communication service?

A. A collection of rules within the sandbox that prevent communication between sandboxes.

B. A collection of network services that are activated on an interface, allowing for inter-port communication.

C. A collection of interfaces that allow for coordination of activities among processes.

D. A collection of host services that allow for communication between sandboxes.

Correct Answer: C

Inter-process communication (IPC) allows communication between different processes. A process is one or more threads running inside its own, isolated address space.

New Question 5:

A security specialist notices 100 HTTP GET and POST requests for multiple pages on the web servers. The agent in the requests contains PHP code that, if executed, creates and writes to a new PHP file on the web server. Which event category is described?

A. reconnaissance

B. action on objectives

C. installation

D. exploitation

Correct Answer: C

New Question 6:

What is the practice of giving an employee access to only the resources needed to accomplish their job?

A. principle of least privilege

B. organizational separation

C. separation of duties

D. need to know the principle

Correct Answer: A

New Question 7:

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the potential threat identified in this Stealthwatch dashboard?

A. A policy violation is active for host 10.10.101.24.

B. A host on the network is sending a DDoS attack to another inside host.

C. There are two active data exfiltration alerts.

D. A policy violation is active for host 10.201.3.149.

Correct Answer: C

New Question 8:

Which incidence response step includes identifying all hosts affected by an attack?

A. detection and analysis

B. post-incident activity

C. preparation

D. containment, eradication, and recovery

Correct Answer: D

3.3.3 Identifying the Attacking Hosts During incident handling, system owners and others sometimes want to or need to identify the attacking host or hosts. Although this information can be important, incident handlers should generally stay focused on containment, eradication, and recovery. https://nvlpubs.nist.gov/nistpubs/SpecialPublications/NIST.SP.800-61r2.pdf

The response phase, or containment, of incident response, is the point at which the incident response team begins interacting with affected systems and attempts to keep further damage from occurring as a result of the incident.

New Question 9:

Which metric in CVSS indicates an attack that takes a destination bank account number and replaces it with a different bank account number?

A. availability

B. confidentiality

C. scope

D. integrity

Correct Answer: D

New Question 10:

What is the difference between mandatory access control (MAC) and discretionary access control (DAC)?

A. MAC is controlled by the discretion of the owner and DAC is controlled by an administrator

B. MAC is the strictest of all levels of control and DAC is object-based access

C. DAC is controlled by the operating system and MAC is controlled by an administrator

D. DAC is the strictest of all levels of control and MAC is object-based access

Correct Answer: B

New Question 10:

What is vulnerability management?

A. A security practice focused on clarifying and narrowing intrusion points.

B. A security practice of performing actions rather than acknowledging the threats.

C. A process to identify and remediate existing weaknesses.

D. A process to recover from service interruptions and restore business-critical applications

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.brinqa.com/vulnerability-management-primer-part-2-challenges/ Vulnerability management is the “cyclical practice of identifying, classifying, prioritizing, remediating and mitigating” software vulnerabilities.[1] Vulnerability management is integral to computer security and network security, and must not be confused with Vulnerability assessment” source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vulnerability_management

New Question 12:

Which type of evidence supports a theory or an assumption that results from initial evidence?

A. probabilistic

B. indirect

C. best

D. corroborative

Correct Answer: D

Corroborating evidence (or corroboration) is evidence that tends to support a theory or an assumption deduced by some initial evidence. This corroborating evidence confirms the proposition. Cisco CyberOps Associate CBROPS 200-201 Official Cert Guide

New Question 13:

What is the difference between deep packet inspection and stateful inspection?

A. Deep packet inspection gives insights up to Layer 7, and stateful inspection gives insights only up to Layer 4.

B. Deep packet inspection is more secure due to its complex signatures, and stateful inspection requires less human intervention.

C. Stateful inspection is more secure due to its complex signatures, and deep packet inspection requires less human intervention.

D. Stateful inspection verifies data at the transport layer and deep packet inspection verifies data at the application layer

Correct Answer: B

New Question 14:

A company encountered a breach on its web servers using IIS 7 5 Dunng the investigation, an engineer discovered that an attacker read and altered the data on a secure communication using TLS 1 2 and intercepted sensitive information by downgrading a connection to export-grade cryptography. The engineer must mitigate similar incidents in the future and ensure that clients and servers always negotiate with the most secure protocol versions and cryptographic parameters. Which action does the engineer recommend?

A. Upgrade to TLS v1 3.

B. Install the latest IIS version.

C. Downgrade to TLS 1.1.

D. Deploy an intrusion detection system

Correct Answer: B

New Question 15:

During which phase of the forensic process is data that is related to a specific event labeled and recorded to preserve its integrity?

A. examination

B. investigation

C. collection

D. reporting

Correct Answer: C

…

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Cisco CCIE Collaboration 350-801 dumps with PDF and VCE have been updated

August 18, 2022 | admin | CCIE Collaboration, Cisco, Cisco CCIE Collaboration 350-801 Braindumps, Cisco CCIE Collaboration 350-801 dumps, Cisco CCIE Collaboration 350-801 exam dumps, Cisco CCIE Collaboration 350-801 exam topics, Cisco CCIE Collaboration 350-801 free dumps, Cisco CCIE Collaboration 350-801 PDF dumps, Cisco CCIE Collaboration 350-801 Practice Test, Cisco CCIE Collaboration 350-801 Study Guide, Cisco CCIE Collaboration 350-801 VCE dumps | Tags: , , , ,

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Cisco CCIE Collaboration 350-801 dumps exam questions and answers:

New Question 1:

An administrator executes the debug ISDN q931 command while debugging a failed call. After a test call is placed, the logs return a disconnect cause code of 1. What is the cause of this problem?

A. The dialed number is not assigned to an endpoint.
B. The destination number rejects the call.
C. The destination number is busy.
D. The media resource is unavailable.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/dial-access/integrated-services-digital-networks-isdn-channel-associated-signaling-cas/8607-isdn-disc-code.html

New Question 2:

An engineer configures a SIP trunk for MWI between a Cisco UCM cluster and Cisco Unity Connection. The Cisco UCM cluster fails to receive the SIP notification messages. Which two SIP trunk settings resolve this issue? (Choose two.)

A. transmit security status
B. accept unsolicited notification
C. allow charging header
D. accept out-of-band notification
E. accept out-of-dialog refer

Correct Answer: BE

New Question 3:

Which action enables Cisco MRA?

A. Cisco UCC Express clients can obtain VPN connectivity to Cisco UCC Enterprise.
B. VPN connectivity can be established to Cisco UCM.
C. Clients such as Cisco Jabber can use call control on Cisco UCM.
D. Internal SIP clients registered to Cisco UCM can call external companies

Correct Answer: C

New Question 4:

How can an administrator stop Cisco Unified Communications Manager from advertising the OPUS codec for recording-enabled devices?

A. Route recorded calls through Cisco Unified Border Element because it does not support OPUS.
B. Go to the phone\’s configuration page and set “Advertise OPUS Codec” to be “false”.
C. Integrate the Cisco Unified CM with 3 recording solution that does not support OPUS.
D. In CUCM Service Parameters set “Opus Codec Enabled” to “Enabled for all Devices Except Recording-Enabled Devices.”

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/unified-communications/unified-communications-manager-callmanager/211297-Configure-Opus-Support-on-Cisco-Unified.pdf

New Question 5:

A remote office has a less-than-optimal WAN connection and experiences packet loss, delay, and jitter.

Which VoIP codec should be used in this situation?

A. G.711ulaw
B. iLBC
C. G.722.1
D. G.729A

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/collaboration-voice-and-video/summary-of-cucm-supported-codecs/ta-p/3162905

New Question 6:

Refer to the exhibit.

The translation rule is configured on the voice gateway to translate DNIS.

What is the outcome if the gateway receives 0255-343-1234 as DNIS?

A. The translation is not matched because DNIS contains “-“.
B. The translation is not matched because DNIS does not end with a “$”.
C. The translation is matched and the translated number is 02553431234.
D. The translation is matched and the translated number is 025553431234.

Correct Answer: C

New Question 7:

Which type of greeting in the Call Handler configuration in Cisco Unity Connection overtimes all other greetings?

A. holidays
B. supervisory
C. alternate
D. priority

Correct Answer: C

New Question 8:

Which program is required to deploy the Cisco Jabber client on an on-premises Cisco collaboration solution?

A. Cisco Unity Connection
B. Cisco Expressway-C
C. Cisco UCM
D. Cisco UCM IM and Presence

Correct Answer: C

New Question 9:

What does average rate limiting allow?

A. transmits traffic bursts up to the Bc size
B. more traffic than the CIR to be sent when there is available bandwidth
C. bandwidth up to the Be size
D. traffic to burst to the Be size when there is available bandwidth

Correct Answer: D

New Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit. What is the registration state of the analog port in this debug output?

A. The MGCP Gateway is not communicating with the Cisco UCM.
B. The analog port failed to register to Cisco UCM with an error code 200.
C. The analog port is currently shut down.
D. The analog port is registered to Cisco UCM.

Correct Answer: D

New Question 11:

An engineer encounters third-party devices that do not support Cisco Discovery Protocol. What must be configured on the network to allow device discovery?

A. LACP
B. TFTP
C. LLDP
D. SNMP

Correct Answer: C

New Question 12:

Which two elements of a dial plan define the domains that are accessible and are assigned to an endpoint? (Choose two.)

A. Call Admissions Control
B. Route patterns
C. Calling Search Spaces
D. Translation patterns
E. partitions

Correct Answer: CE

New Question 13:

What is a characteristic of video traffic that governs QoS requirements for video?

A. Video is typically variable bit rate.
B. Voice and video traffic are different, but they have the same QoS requirements.
C. Video is typically constant bit rate.
D. Voice and video traffic are the same, so they have the same QoS requirements.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/collab11/collab11/cac.html

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Use the latest 350-401 dumps to help you pass the Cisco ENCOR certification exam

July 18, 2022 | admin | 350-401 ENCOR, 350-401 exam dumps, 350-401 exam questions, 350-401 Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies, 350-401 practice test, Cisco, cisco ccnp | Tags: , , ,

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More detailed 350-401 ENCOR certification information:

Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 350-401
Exam Name: Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR)
Certification: CCNP Enterprise
Duration: 120 minutes
Languages: English
Price: $400 USD
Number of Questions: about 100±
350-401 dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/350-401.html (Total Questions: 853 Q&A)

Cisco 350-401 exam questions online practice test:

Tips: Verify the answer at the end of the article

Question 1:

How does Cisco Trustsec enable more access controls for dynamic networking environments and data centers?

A. uses flexible NetFlow

B. assigns a VLAN to the endpoint

C. classifies traffic based on the contextual identity of the endpoint rather than its IP address

D. classifies traffic based on advanced application recognition

Question 2:

Which technology provides a secure communication channel for all traffic at Layer 2 of the OSI model?

A. MACsec

B. IPsec

C. SSL

D. Cisco Trustsec

Question 3:

What does Cisco DNA southbound APIs provide?

A. Interface between the controller and the network devices

B. NETCONF API interface for orchestration communication

C. RESful API interface for orchestrator communication

D. Interface between the controller and the consumer

The Southbound API is used to communicate with network devices.

Question 4:

Which NGFW mode block flows crossing the firewall?

A. Passive

B. Tap

C. Inline tap

D. Inline

Question 5:

Which two pieces of information are necessary to compute SNR? (Choose two.)

A. EIRP

B. noise floor

C. antenna gain

D. RSSI

E. transmit power

Question 6:

Which requirement for an Ansible-managed node is true?

A. It must be a Linux server or a Cisco device.

B. It must have an SSH server running.

C. It must support ad hoc commands.

D. It must have an Ansible Tower installed.

Question 7:

What is the difference between the enable password and the enable secret password when password encryption is enabled on an IOS device?

A. The enable password is encrypted with a stronger encryption method.

B. There is no difference and both passwords are encrypted identically.

C. The enable password cannot be decrypted.

D. The enabled secret password is protected via stronger cryptography mechanisms.

Question 8:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration establishes EBGP neighborship between these two directly connected neighbors and exchanges the loopback network of the two routers through BGP?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Question 9:

In which part of the HTTP message is the content type specified?

A. HTTP method

B. URI

C. header

D. body

Question 10:

Which behavior can be expected when the HSRP versions are changed from 1 to 2?

A. Each HSRP group reinitializes because the virtual MAC address has changed.

B. No changes occur because versions 1 and 2 use the same virtual MAC OUI.

C. Each HSRP group reinitializes because the multicast address has changed.

D. No changes occur because the standby router is upgraded before the active router.

Question 11:

A response code of 404 is received while using the REST API on Cisco UNA Center to POST to this URI.

/dna/intent/api/v1 /template-programmer/project

What does the code mean?

A. The client made a request for a resource that does not exist.

B. The server has not implemented the functionality that is needed to fulfill the request.

C. The request was accepted for processing, but the processing was not completed.

D. The POST/PUT request was fulfilled and a new resource was created, Information about the resource is in the response body.

Question 12:

What is the structure of a JSON web token?

A. three parts separated by dots header payload, and signature

B. header and payload

C. three parts separated by dots version header and signature

D. payload and signature

Question 13:

Which OSPF network types are compatible and allow communication through the two peering devices?

A. broadcast to nonbroadcast

B. point-to-multipoint to nonbroadcast

C. broadcast to point-to-point

D. point-to-multipoint to broadcast

Question 14:

At which Layer does Cisco DNA Center support REST controls?

A. EEM applets or scripts

B. Session layer

C. YMAL output from responses to API calls

D. Northbound APIs

Question 15:

Which statement about agent-based versus agentless configuration management tools is true?

A. Agentless tools require no messaging systems between master and slaves.

B. Agentless tools use proxy nodes to interface with slave nodes.

C. Agent-based tools do not require a high-level language interpreter such as Python or Ruby on slave nodes.

D. Agent-based tools do not require the installation of additional software packages on the slave nodes.

……

Verify answer:

Numbers:Answers:Explain:
Q1C
Q2A
Q3A
Q4DFirepower Threat Defense (FTD) provides six interface modes which are: Routed, Switched, Inline Pair, Inline Pair with Tap, Passive, Passive (ERSPAN).

When Inline Pair Mode is in use, packets can be blocked since they are processed inline When you use Inline Pair mode, the packet goes mainly through the FTD Snort engine When Tap Mode is enabled, a copy of the packet is inspected and dropped internally while the actual traffic goes through FTD unmodified
Q5BDsignal-to-noise ratio (SNR) A measure of received signal quality, calculated as the difference between the signal\’s RSSI and the noise floor. A higher SNR is preferred.
Q6B
Q7D
Q8A
Q9C
Q10A
Q11AThe 404 (Not Found) error status code indicates that the REST API can\’t map the client\’s URI to a resource but may be available in the future. Subsequent requests by the client are permissible.
Q12A
Q13AThe following different OSPF types are compatible with each other:

+ Broadcast and Non-Broadcast (adjust hello/dead timers) + Point-to-Point and

Point-to-Multipoint (adjust hello/dead timers) Broadcast and Non-Broadcast networks elect DR/BDR so they are compatible. Point-topoint/ multipoint do not elect DR/BDR so they are compatible.
Q14D
Q15A

CCNP Enterprise certification includes: Core exam and Concentration exams, Cisco ENCOR certification exam belong to the Core exam (350-401 ENCOR) and is unique.

Select Lead4Pass 350-401 dumps https://www.lead4pass.com/350-401.html,
Helping you 100% pass the Cisco 350-401 ENCOR certification exam. All CCNP Enterprise certification programs are available in Lead4Pass and can ensure that you pass the exam with a high score.

CCNA 200-301 Dumps & Labs | Cisco Certified Network Associate exam material

June 30, 2022 | admin | 200-301 CCNA dumps, CCNA 200-301 Dumps, Cisco, Cisco Certified Network Associate | Tags: , , , , , , ,

CCNA 200-301 Dumps are Cisco Certified Network Associate exam material for entry-level candidates. Lead4Pass 200-301 dumps prepare candidates for Cisco Certified Network Associate exam questions and answers including the latest 2022 mock labs, https://www.lead4pass.com/200-301.html helping you earn your Cisco Certified Network Associate certification.

Cisco technology is spread all over the world. This means that CCNA certified professionals will continue to be sought after, as long as you ensure that you can successfully achieve the CCNA 200-301 certification. Use the CCNA 200-301 dumps to guarantee your success with the Cisco Certified Network Associate certification.

Ccna FAQs: About, Value, Exam Material & labs

About 200-301 CCNA: What You Need to Know

Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 200-301
Exam Name: Cisco Certified Network Associate
Certification: CCNA
Languages: English and Japanese
Price: $300 USD
Duration: 120 mins
Number of Questions: 100-120 questions
Passing score: 82%
200-301 dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/200-301.html (CCNA exam dump maps to Cisco 200-301 CCNA exam objectives) Include 2022 Newest Simulation Labs
200-301 dumps (Number of Questions): 824 Q&A
Last update time: Jun 26, 2022

Is CCNA worth it?

Yes, the CCNA is definitely worth it — it’s one of the best certifications a network administrator could earn at any point in their career.
The CCNA is worth it because Cisco technology provides service provider and enterprise router solutions to nearly 40% of the world.
Of course, there are plenty of non-Cisco networks, but there’s basically no other certification that can all at once prepare you for all the devices and jobs that the CCNA does.

–source:https://www.cbtnuggets.com/it-training/cisco/ccna

Free share of a portion of the Cisco Certified Network Associate 200-301 exam material (Including labs Q7):

QUESTION 1:

Refer to the exhibit.

exam1

Each router must be configured with the last usable IP address in the subnet. Which configuration fulfills this requirement?

exam1-1

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2:

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is asked to config router CB-R1 so that it forms an OSPF single-area neighbor relationship with CB-R2.

Which command sequence must be implemented to configure the router?

A. router ospf 10
network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
network 10.0.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

B. router ospf 10
network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
network 10.0.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

C. router ospf 10
network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
network 10.0.2.0 255.255.255.0 area 0

D. router ospf 10
network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.252 area 0
network 10.0.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3:

Refer to the exhibit.

How many JSON objects are represented?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4:

Refer to the exhibit.
Which two configurations would be used to create and apply a standard access list on R1, so that only the 10.0.70.0/25 network devices are allowed to access the internal database server? (Choose two)

A. R1(config)# interface GigabitEthernet0/0
R1(config-if)# ip access-group 5 out

B. R1(config)# access-list 5 permit 10.0.54.0 0.0.1.255

C. R1(config)# interface Serial0/0/0
R1(config-if)# ip access-group 5 in

D. R1(config)# access-list 5 permit 10.0.70.0 0.0.0.127

E. R1(config)# access-list 5 permit any

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 5:

Refer to the exhibit. What is the next hop for traffic entering R1 with a destination of 10.1.2.126?

A. 10.165 20.126
B. 10.165.20.146
C. 10.165.20.166
D. 10.165 20.226

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6:

Refer to the exhibit. The given Windows PC is requesting the IP address of the host at www.cisco.com. To which IP address is the request sent?

A. 192.168.1.226
B. 192.168.1.100
C. 192.168.1.254
D. 192.168.1.253

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7*:

CCNA Lab simulation 6

All physical cabling between the two switches is installed. Configure the network connectivity between the switches using the designated VLANs and interfaces.

  1. Configure VLAN 100 named Compute and VLAN 200 named Telephony where required for each task.
  2. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW2 to use the existing VLAN named Available.
  3. Configure the connection between the switches using access ports.
  4. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW1 using data and voice VLANs.
  5. Configure Ethemet0/1 on SW2 so that the Cisco proprietary neighbor discovery protocol is turned off for the designated interface only.

See the Explanation below.

A. Check the Explanation below
B. Place Holder
C. Place Holder
D. Place Holder

Correct Answer: A

Answer as below configuration:
on sw1
enable
conf t
vlan 100
name Compute
vlan 200
name Telephony
int e0/1
switchport voice vlan 200
switchport access vlan 100
int e0/0
switchport mode access
do wr

on sw2
Vlan 99
Name Available
Int e0/1
Switchport access vlan 99
do wr

QUESTION 8:

Drag and Drop
Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 9:

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 10:

Drag and Drop
Refer to Exhibit.

Rotor to the exhibit. The IP address configurations must be completed on the DC-1 and HQ-1 routers based on these requirements:

  1. DC-1 Gi1/0 must be the last usable address on a /30
  2. DC-1 Gi1/1 must be the first usable address on a /29
  3. DC-1 Gi1/2 must be the last usable address on a /28
  4. HQ-1 Gil/3 must be the last usable address on a /29

Drag and drop the commands from the left onto the destination interfaces on the right. Not all commands are used
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 11:

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the DNS lookup components from the left onto the functions on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 12:

Drag and Drop
An interface has been configured with the access list that is shown below.

On the basis of that access list, drag each information packet on the left to the appropriate category on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 13:

Drag and Drop
Drag and drop the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller security settings from the left onto the correct security mechanism categories on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Layer 2 Security Mechanism includes WPA+WPA2, 802.1X, Static WEP, CKIP while Layer 3 Security Mechanisms (for WLAN) includes IPSec, VPN Pass-Through, Web Passthrough …

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless/4400-series-wireless-lan-controllers/106082-wlc-compatibility-matrix.html

QUESTION 14:

Refer to the exhibit.
CertBus-R1# show ip route

What is the next hop for traffic entering CertBus-R1 with a destination of 10.1.2 126?

A. 10.165 20.126
B. 10.165.20.146
C. 10.165.20.166
D. 10.165 20.226

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15:

An engineer has configured the domain name, user name, and password on the local router. What is the next step to complete the configuration tor a Secure Shell access RSA key?

A. crypto key Import rsa pem
B. crypto key pubkey-chain rsa
C. crypto key generate rsa
D. crypto key zeroize rsa

Correct Answer: C

……

[Free Download]Cisco Certified Network Associate 200-301 exam material (Including labs):https://drive.google.com/file/d/1bEpMJLRNFn4w7PqhOXcF23dWnrUoLX35/

The above are free to share 15 200-301 CCNA exam material, click here to get more exam questions and answers.

300-420 dumps update | Cisco 300-420 ENSLD Exam Materials

May 24, 2022 | admin | Cisco, Cisco 300-420 Exam Dumps, Cisco 300-420 Exam Questions, cisco ccnp, Designing Cisco Enterprise Networks (ENSLD) | Tags: , , , ,

The 300-420 Dumps have been updated and are currently the most valid Cisco 300-420 ENSLD exam material.

Lead4Pass 300-420 dumps page https://www.lead4pass.com/300-420.html, you can find the Cisco 300-420 ENSLD exam information and download methods are provided on the website,
You can choose PDF or VCE study tools, and choose according to your habits, this is the most popular way to study, help you improve your study progress, and successfully pass the Cisco 300-410 ENSLD Exam.

The Cisco 300-420 ENSLD Exam is a very good option to help you advance your career path, use the Lead4Pass 300-420 dumps to help you achieve your dreams.

300-420 exam details you should know:

Next, I will share some Cisco 300-420 ENSLD Exam basics that you must know.

ENSLD is the abbreviation of the Designing Cisco Enterprise Networks exam name, and 300-420 is the exam code. For specific information, see:

Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 300-420
Exam Name: Designing Cisco Enterprise Networks (ENSLD)
Certification: CCNP
Duration: 90 minutes
Languages: English and Japanese
Price: $300 USD

The 300-420 ENSLD Exam is just one step:

You must also know that the 300-420 ENSLD Exam is one of the Concentration exams. But if you want to get the CCNP Enterprise certification, you need to do it in two steps:

Step 1: Choose one of the following exams

  • 300-410 ENARSI
  • 300-415 ENSDWI
  • 300-420 ENSLD
  • 300-425 ENWLSD
  • 300-430 ENWLSI
  • 300-435 ENAUTO

Step 2: Take the Core exam, this step also includes your ticket to participate in the CCIE lab, provided you must pass the exam, but don’t worry, you can find the answer on the VCEcert 350-401 page.

  • 350-401 ENCOR

Next, you can also get 300-420 free dumps of online exercises

QUESTION 1:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must design an automatic failover solution. The solution should allow HSRP to detect a WAN 1 failure and initiate an automatic failover, making router R2 the active HSRP router. Which two solutions should the engineer choose? (Choose two.)

A. Implement Enhanced Object Tracking on roster R1
B. use a floating static route
C. Implement IP SLA on router R1
D. Implement PBR on router R1
E. use IP source routing

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 2:

An engineer must design a VPN solution for a company that has multiple branches connecting to the main office. What are two advantages of using DMVPN instead of IPsec tunnels to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

A. support for AES 256-bit encryption
B. greater scalability
C. support for anycast gateway
D. lower-traffic overhead
E. dynamic spoke-to-spoke tunnels

Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 3:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is designing an OSPF network for a client. Requirements dictate that the routers in Area 1 should receive all routers belonging to the network, including EIGRP, except the ones originated in the RIP domain. Which action should the engineer take?

A. Make area 1 an NSSA.
B. Make area 1 a stub.
C. Make area 1 a standard OSPF area.
D. Make the area 1 router part of area 0.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4:

Which NETCONF operation creates filtering that is specific to the session notifications?

A.
B.
C.

D.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5:

A large chain of stores currently uses MPLS-based T1 lines to connect their stores to their data center. An architect must design a new solution to improve availability and reduce costs while keeping these considerations in mind:

1.
The company uses multicast to deliver training to the stores.
2.
The company uses dynamic routing protocols and has implemented QoS.
3.
To simplify deployments, tunnels should be created dynamically on the hub when additional stores open.
Which solution should be included in this design?

A. VPLS
B. GET VPN
C. DMVPN
D. IPsec

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6:

An organization is designing a detailed QoS plan that limits bandwidth to specific rates. Which two parameters are supported by the traffic policing feature? (Choose two.)

A. violating
B. marking
C. shaping
D. bursting
E. conforming

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 7:

An engineer is creating a design to enable IPv6 to run on an existing IPv4 IS-IS network. The IPv4 and IPv6 topologies will match exactly, and the engineer plans to use the same IS-IS router levels for each protocol per interface. Which IS-IS design is required?

A. multi-topology without enabling transition feature
B. multi-topology with transition feature enabled
C. single topology without enabling transition feature
D. single topology with transition feature enabled

Correct Answer: B

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/iproute_isis/configuration/15-mt/irs-15-mt-book/ip6-route-multi-isis.html

QUESTION 8:

Which nonproprietary mechanism can be used to automate rendezvous point distribution in a large PIM domain?

A. Embedded RP
B. BSR
C. Auto-RP
D. Static RP

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9:

Which method does Cisco SD-WAN use to avoid fragmentation issues?

A. PMTUD is used.
B. Access circuits are configured with 1600 byte MTU settings.
C. Jumbo frames are enabled.
D. Traffic is marked with the DF bit set.

Correct Answer: A

https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/solutions/collateral/enterprise-networks/sd-wan/nb-06-cisco-sd-wan-ebook-cte-en.pdf

QUESTION 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must improve the current IS-IS environment. The Catalyst switch is equipped with dual supervisors.

Each time a stateful switchover occurs, the network experiences unnecessary route recomputation. Which solution addresses this issue if the upstream router does not understand graceful restart messaging?

A. Enable IS-IS remote LFA FRR on both devices.
B. Enable NSR on the switch.
C. Enable NSF on the switch.
D. Configure ISIS aggressive timers on both devices.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11:

An engineer must design a multicast network for a financial application. Most of the multicast sources also receive multicast traffic (many-to-many deployment model). To better scale routing tables, the design must not use source trees.

Which multicast protocol satisfies these requirements?

A. PIM-SSM
B. PIM-SM
C. MSDP
D. BIDIR-PIM

Correct Answer: D

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipmulti_pim/configuration/xe-16/imc-pim-xe-16-book/imc-tech-oview.html

Bidir-PIM is designed to be used for many-to-many applications within individual PIM domains. Multicast groups in bidirectional PIM mode can scale to an arbitrary number of sources without incurring overhead due to the number of sources.

QUESTION 12:

An engineer is working with NETCONF and Cisco NX-OS-based devices. The engineer needs a YANG model that supports a specific feature relevant only to Cisco NX-OS. Which model must the engineer choose?

A. Native
B. IEEE
C. OpenConfig
D. IETF

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13:

How is the sub-second failure of a transport link detected in a Cisco SD-WAN network?

A. Hellos are sent between the WAN Edge routers and the vSmart controller.
B. BFD runs on the IPsec tunnels between WAN Edge routers.
C. BGP is used between WAN Edge routers and the vSmart controller.
D. Link state change messages are sent between vSmart controllers.

Correct Answer: B

……

300-420 Free Dumps Online Download: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1zK2YW9dnP5mc1JTCxF7kyfJFawBXZdVg/

View 184 300-420 ENSLD exam questions and answers: Click Here.

New Cisco Small Business Technical Overview Exam 700-755 Real Dumps

April 14, 2022 | admin | 700-755 Cisco Small Business Technical Overview, Cisco, Cisco 700-755 Exam Dumps, Cisco 700-755 Exam Questions, Cisco 700-755 Free Dumps, Cisco Express Specialization - SMB Track | Tags: , , , ,

New Cisco Small Business Technical Overview exam 700-755 has been published for all candidates.
We have 700-755 Cisco real dumps https://www.lead4pass.com/700-755.html, to help you prepare for Cisco Small Business Technical Overview exam online. We collected 50 practice exam questions and answers, you just need to read Cisco 700-755 VCE software and PDF to prepare for the exam well.

Read Cisco 700-755 Free Dumps First

Question 1:

Which Cisco Catalyst 9100 AP feature adds capacity by automatically changing the access points from 2.4 and 5GHz to Dual 5GHz?

A. FRA

B. SMU

C. CleanAir

D. wIPS

Correct Answer: A

Question 2:

When enabled which two features will help extend the retention capacity of the Meraki MV smart cameras? (Choose two)

A. Direct stream-based retention

B. Schedule-based retention

C. Hybrid archives

D. Cloud archives

E. Motion-based retention

Correct Answer: BE

Question 3:

In the event an entire site went down: which activity does Cisco\’s HyperFlex Stretched Cluster still enable a user to do?

A. continue VM replication synchronously

B. access the entire cluster

C. access only the remaining node or nodes in the cluster

D. recover lost data

Correct Answer: B

Question 4:

What separates Cisco Meraki from its competitors?

A. kit obtained via promotional seminars can be added and integrated into the POC kit to enhance the service offering

B. the cloud architecture and product experience itself

C. testing the gear live by attending marketing webinars

D. dedicated team and the Cisco Meraki sales specialist attend every whiteboarding session to better illustrate complex topics

Correct Answer: B

Question 5:

Which two features are included in every licensed MX security appliance as part of its unified threat management solution? (Choose two )

A. Stateless L3/L7 firewalls

B. OA (change of authorization)

C. SD-WAN

D. Umbrella integration (DNS firewall)

E. Auto VPN (site-to-site VPN)

Correct Answer: CE

Question 6:

Which two capabilities are included in the System Manager\’s robust enterprise mobility management (EMM) feature set? (Choose two )

A. Rapid provisioning (enrollment)

B. Emergency broadcast (alerts)

C. Remote troubleshooting

D. RFID tag tracking

E. OS version control

Correct Answer: AC

Question 7:

What is one of the mam functionalities of the Meraki Go mobile app?

A. used to manage and renew Meraki Go licenses

B. for opening support tickets with the Meraki Go support team

C. to assist with the fast onboarding of Meraki Go products

D. to help reduce the power consumption of network devices

Correct Answer: C

Question 8:

Using Cisco Security, what is the remediation time for a previously unknown threat?

A. under 10 minutes

B. under 15 minutes

C. under 5 minutes

D. under 8 minutes

E. under 30 minutes

Correct Answer: A

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/security/aag-why-cisco-security-for-sb.html#:~:text=With %20Cisco\’s%20threat%20intelligence%2C%20you,to%20remediation%20in%20the%20industry.

Question 9:

By how much can Cisco UCS reduce provisioning time?

A. 6 hours to 1 minute

B. 12 weeks to 10 minutes

C. 1 month to 1 hour

D. 6 months to 2 weeks

E. 2 weeks to 6 hours

Correct Answer: B

Question 10:

Which two products are considered a part of the Cisco Meraki full-stack? (Choose two.)

A. MX security appliances

B. MR wireless access points

C. Catalyst switches

D. UCS servers

E. Aironet wireless access points

Correct Answer: AB

Question 11:

Which layout can Cisco Webex flexible video conference support?

A. active speaker video view where the participant talking will have the most prominent view on the screen

B. active-active video view where two participants can engage on-screen at the same time

C. presenter video view where the meeting host shares their desktop on the screen

D. grid view where the active speaker is visible and other participants show on the bottom strip

Correct Answer: A

Question 12:

Which two Cisco Small Business series switches are smart-managed? (Choose two.)

A. 220

B. 250

C. 550X

D. 350X

E. 110

Correct Answer: AB

Question 13:

Which three product families comprise the Meraki Go network stack? (Choose three )

A. Access points

B. Security content filters

C. Network routers

D. Security gateway and firewall

E. Network switches

Correct Answer: ADE

Question 14:

What is the built-in technology on the MR platform that utilizes one-way beacon advertising to interact with applications?

A. Adaptive Radio Management

B. BLE (Bluetooth Low Energy)

C. BeamFlex

D. Radio Resource Management

Correct Answer: B

Question 15:

What are the two most frequent attack vectors used in cyber attacks against small businesses? (Choose two.)

A. malware

B. viruses

C. social engineering

D. phishing

E. pop-ups

Correct Answer: BC

……

New Cisco Small Business Technical Overview Exam 700-755 Real Dumps to help you prepare for everything.

Successfully pass the Securing Networks with Cisco Firepower (SNCF) exam using the updated Cisco 300-710 dumps

March 28, 2022 | admin | 300-710 Securing Networks with Cisco Firepower (SNCF), Cisco, Cisco 300-710 Exam Dumps, Cisco 300-710 Exam Questions, Cisco 300-710 Free Dumps, cisco ccnp | Tags: , ,

Using the updated 300-710 dumps can now help you pass the Securing Networks with Cisco Firepower (SNCF) exam.
The Cisco 300-710 Dumps exam questions are validated by the most professional team and tested by customers.
At Lead4Pass you can find the best solution to practice 300-710 dumps questions using pdf files and the VCE exam engine.

Check out the updated 300-710 dumps entry below:

300-710 dumps

And share 300-710 SNCF free dumps detection:

QUESTION 1

Which limitation applies to Cisco FMC dashboards in a multi-domain environment?

A. Child domains are able to view but not edit dashboards that originate from an ancestor domain.
B. Child domains have access to only a limited set of widgets from ancestor domains.
C. Only the administrator of the top ancestor domain is able to view dashboards.
D. Child domains are not able to view dashboards that originate from an ancestor domain.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev60/Using_Dashboards.html

QUESTION 2

An engineer is implementing Cisco FTD in the network and is determining which Firepower mode to use. The organization needs to have multiple virtual Firepower devices working separately inside of the FTD appliance to provide traffic segmentation.
Which deployment mode should be configured in the Cisco Firepower Management Console to support these requirements?

A. Multiple Deployment
B. single-context
C. Single deployment
D. multi-instance

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3

A network administrator reviews the file report for the last month and notices that all file types, except exe. show a disposition of unknown. What is the cause of this issue?

A. The malware license has not been applied to the Cisco FTD.
B. The Cisco FMC cannot reach the Internet to analyze files.
C. A file policy has not been applied to the access policy.
D. Only Spero file analysis is enabled.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4

A network administrator needs to create a policy on Cisco Firepower to fast-path traffic to avoid Layer 7 inspection. The rate at which traffic is inspected must be optimized. What must be done to achieve this goal?

A. Enable the FXOS for multi-instance.
B. Configure a prefilter policy.
C. Configure modular policy framework.
D. Disable TCP inspection.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5

A network administrator is configuring SNORT inspection policies and is seeing failed deployment messages in Cisco FMC. What information should the administrator generate for Cisco TAC to help troubleshoot?

A. A “troubleshoot” file for the device in question.
B. A “show tech” file for the device in question.
C. A “troubleshoot” file for the Cisco FMC.
D. A “show tech” for the Cisco FMC.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/620/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev62/troubleshooting_the_system.html

QUESTION 6

An engineer is configuring a Cisco IPS to protect the network and wants to test a policy before deploying it. A copy of each incoming packet needs to be monitored while traffic flow remains constant. Which IPS mode should be implemented to meet these requirements?

A. routed
B. passive
C. transparent
D. inline tap

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7

Which two actions can be used in an access control policy rule? (Choose two.)

A. Block with Reset
B. Monitor
C. Analyze
D. Discover
E. Block ALL

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firesight/541/firepower-module-user-guide/asa-firepowermodule-user-guide-v541/AC-Rules-Tuning-Overview.html#71854

QUESTION 8

An engineer is working on a LAN switch and has noticed that its network connection to the inline Cisco IPS has gone down. Upon troubleshooting, it is determined that the switch is working as expected. What must have been implemented for this failure to occur?

A. The upstream router has a misconfigured routing protocol.
B. Link-state propagation is enabled.
C. The Cisco IPS has been configured to be in fail-open mode.
D. The Cisco IPS is configured in detection mode.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9

Which function is the primary function of the Cisco AMP threat Grid?

A. flood attack detection.
B. secure boot
C. image signing
D. DDoS mitigation
E. SYN flood detection

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 10

Which policy rule is included in the deployment of a local DMZ during the initial deployment of a Cisco NGFW through the Cisco FMC GUI?

A. a default DMZ policy for which only a user can change the IP addresses.
B. deny ip any
C. no policy rule is included
D. permit IP any

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11

Administrator is attempting to remotely log into a switch in the data center using SSH and is unable to connect. How does the administrator confirm that traffic is reaching the firewall?

A. by running Wireshark on the administrator\’s PC.
B. by performing a packet capture on the firewall.
C. by running a packet tracer on the firewall.
D. by attempting to access it from a different workstation.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12

Which command-line mode is supported by the Cisco Firepower Management Center CLI?

A. privileged
B. user
C. configuration
D. admin

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/660/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev66/command_line_reference.pdf

300-710 free dumps online download: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1RfmGWQfK8aoSjwIa-Oz3oAdOkgxgCH75/view?usp=sharing

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March 28, 2022 | admin | 350-701 Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR), Cisco, cisco 350-701, cisco 350-701 discount code, cisco 350-701 exam dumps, cisco 350-701 exam questions, cisco 350-701 practice test, cisco ccnp | Tags: , , , ,

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latest Updated Cisco 350-701 exam questions and Answer

QUESTION 1
What Cisco command shows you the status of an 802.1X connection on interface gi0/1?
A. show authorization status
B. show authen sess int gi0/1
C. show connection status gi0/1
D. show ver gi0/1
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Under which two circumstances is a CoA issued? (Choose two.)
A. A new authentication rule was added to the policy on the Policy Service node.
B. An endpoint is deleted on the Identity Service Engine server.
C. A new Identity Source Sequence is created and referenced in the authentication policy.
D. An endpoint is profiled for the first time.
E. A new Identity Service Engine server is added to the deployment with the Administration personA.
Correct Answer: BD
https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/security/ise/1.0/user_guide/ise10_prof_pol.html

QUESTION 3
Which policy is used to capture host information on the Cisco Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System?
A. network discovery
B. correlation
C. intrusion
D. access control
Correct Answer: A
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guide-v60/Introduction_to_Network_Discovery.pdf


QUESTION 4
Which technology reduces data loss by identifying sensitive information stored in public computing environments?
A. Cisco SDA
B. Cisco Firepower
C. Cisco HyperFlex
D. Cisco Cloudlock
Correct Answer: D
https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/products/collateral/security/cloudlock/cisco-cloudlock-clouddata-securitydatasheet.pdf

QUESTION 5
Which function is the primary function of the Cisco AMP threat Grid?
A. automated email encryption
B. applying a real-time URI blacklist
C. automated malware analysis
D. monitoring network traffic
Correct Answer: C

…

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Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR 350-701) – website: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/training-events/training-certifications/exams/current-list/scor-350-701.html

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Micvce Exam Table of Contents:

Cisco 350-701 Practice testing questions from Youtube

latest updated Cisco 350-701 exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1
Which policy is used to capture host information on the Cisco Firepower Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System?
A. correlation
B. intrusion
C. access control
D. network discovery
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which two prevention techniques are used to mitigate SQL injection attacks? (Choose two.)
A. Check integer, float, or Boolean string parameters to ensure accurate values.
B. Use prepared statements and parameterized queries.
C. Secure the connection between the web and the app tier.
D. Write SQL code instead of using object-relational mapping libraries.
E. Block SQL code execution in the web application database login.
Correct Answer: AB
Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/SQL_injection

QUESTION 3
In which form of attack is alternate encoding, such as hexadecimal representation, most often observed?
A. smurf
B. distributed denial of service
C. cross-site scripting
D. rootkit exploit
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
An engineer wants to automatically assign endpoints that have a specific OUl into a new endpoint group. Which probe
must be enabled for this type of profiling to work?
A. NetFlow
B. DHCP
C. SNMP
D. NMAP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which solution protects hybrid cloud deployment workloads with application visibility and segmentation?
A. Nexus
B. Stealthwatch
C. Firepower
D. Tetration
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/security/secure-data-center-solution/index.html#~products

QUESTION 6
Which policy represents a shared set of features or parameters that define the aspects of a managed device that are
likely to be similar to other managed devices in a deployment?
A. group policy
B. access control policy
C. device management policy
D. platform service policy
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/622/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev622/platform_settings_policies_for_managed_devices.pdf

QUESTION 7
Which two application layer preprocessors are used by Firepower Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System?
(Choose two.)
A. SIP
B. inline normalization
C. SSL
D. packet decoder
E. modbus
Correct Answer: AC
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev60/Application_Layer_Preprocessors.html

QUESTION 8
Which two endpoint measures are used to minimize the chances of falling victim to phishing and social engineering
attacks? (Choose two.)
A. Patch for cross-site scripting.
B. Perform backups to the private cloud.
C. Protect against input validation and character escapes in the endpoint.
D. Install a spam and virus email filter.
E. Protect systems with an up-to-date antimalware program.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 9
Which two capabilities does TAXII support? (Choose two.)
A. exchange
B. pull messaging
C. binding
D. correlation
E. mitigating
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 10
Which statement about IOS zone-based firewalls is true?
A. An unassigned interface can communicate with assigned interfaces
B. Only one interface can be assigned to a zone.
C. An interface can be assigned to multiple zones.
D. An interface can be assigned only to one zone.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/ios-firewall/98628-zone-design-guide.html

QUESTION 11
Which information is required when adding a device to Firepower Management Center?
A. username and password
B. encryption method
C. device serial number
D. registration key
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev60/Device_Management_Basics.html#ID-2242-0000069d

QUESTION 12
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the capabilities from the left onto the correct technologies on the right.
Select and Place:[2021.2] lead4pass 350-701 exam questions q12

Correct Answer:

[2021.2] lead4pass 350-701 exam questions q12-1

QUESTION 13
Which command enables 802.1X globally on a Cisco switch?
A. dot1x system-auth-control
B. dot1x page authenticator
C. authentication port-control auto
D. aaa new-model
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/nfvis/switch_command/b-nfvis-switch-commandreference/802_1x_commands.html

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New AZ-304 Dumps | Best AZ-304 Preparation Materials Online

March 10, 2022 | admin | az-304 Microsoft Azure Architect Design Exam, Microsoft, Microsoft AZ-304, microsoft az-304 dumps, microsoft az-304 exam dumps, microsoft az-304 exam questions, microsoft az-304 exam tips, microsoft az-304 practice test, Microsoft Role-based, Uncategorized | Tags: , , , , ,

To earn Microsoft Certified: Microsoft Azure Architect certification, candidates are required to pass two exams:

  • AZ-303 Microsoft Azure Architect Technologies
  • AZ-304 Microsoft Azure Architect Design

To prepare for the two exams well, we recommend choosing the preparation materials online for good practice. New AZ-304 dumps are available with 423 practice exam questions and answers at Lead4Pass, which must be the best preparation materials currently. At Lead4Pass, you can get new AZ-304 dumps questions in pdf file and testing engine, then you can practice them to make sure that you can answer the Microsoft AZ-304 exam well.

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1. What should you include in the identity management strategy to support the planned changes?

A. Move all the domain controllers from corp.fabrikam.com to virtual networks in Azure.

B. Deploy domain controllers for the rd.fabrikam.com forest to virtual networks in Azure.

C. Deploy domain controllers for corp.fabrikam.com to virtual networks in Azure.

D. Deploy a new Azure AD tenant for the authentication of new RandD projects.

 

Directory synchronization between Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) and corp.fabrikam.com must not be affected by a link failure between Azure and the on-premises network. (This requires domain controllers in Azure) Users on the on-premises network must be able to authenticate to corp.fabrikam.com if an Internet link fails. (This requires domain controllers on-premises)

 

2. You need to recommend a solution to meet the database retention requirement. What should you recommend?

A. Configure geo-replication of the database.

B. Configure a long-term retention policy for the database.

C. Configure Azure Site Recovery.

D. Use automatic Azure SQL Database backups.

 

3. You need to recommend a strategy for migrating the database content of WebApp1 to Azure. What should you include in the recommendation?

A. Use Azure Site Recovery to replicate the SQL servers to Azure.

B. Copy the BACPAC file that contains the Azure SQL database files to Azure Blob storage.

C. Use SQL Server transactional replication.

D. Copy the VHD that contains the Azure SQL database files to Azure Blob storage.

 

Before you upload a Windows virtual machine (VM) from on-premises to Azure, you must prepare the virtual hard disk (VHD or VHDX).

Scenario: WebApp1 has a web tier that uses Microsoft Internet Information Services (IIS) and a database tier that runs Microsoft SQL Server 2016. The web tier and the database tier are deployed to virtual machines that run on Hyper-V.

 

4. You need to recommend a notification solution for the IT Support distribution group. What should you include in the recommendation?

A. a SendGrid account with advanced reporting

B. Azure AD Connect Health

C. Azure Network Watcher

D. an action group

 

5. You need to recommend a strategy for the web tier of WebApp1. The solution must minimize. What should you recommend?

A. Create a runbook that resizes virtual machines automatically to a smaller size outside of business hours.

B. Configure the Scale Up settings for a web app.

C. Deploy a virtual machine scale set that scales out on a 75 percent CPU threshold.

D. Configure the Scale Out settings for a web app.

 

6. You need to recommend a data storage strategy for WebApp1. What should you include in in the recommendation?

A. an Azure SQL Database elastic pool

B. a vCore-baswl Azure SQL database

C. an Azure virtual machine that runs SQL Server

D. a fixed-size DTU AzureSQL database

 

7. You need to recommend a high-availability solution for the middle tier of the payment processing system. What should you include in the recommendation?

A. availability zones

B. an availability set

C. the Premium App Service plan

D. the Isolated App Server plan

 

8. You need to recommend a backup solution for the data store of the payment processing system.

What should you include in the recommendation?

A. Microsoft System Center Data Protection Manager (DPM)

B. Azure Backup Server

C. Azure SQL long-term backup retention

D. Azure Managed Disks

 

9. You need to recommend a solution for the network configuration of the front-end tier of the payment processing. What should you include in the recommendation?

A. Azure Application Gateway

B. Traffic Manager

C. a Standard Load Balancer

D. a Basic load Balancer

 

Scenario:

  1. Ensure that the number of compute nodes of the front-end and the middle tiers of the payment processing system can increase or decrease automatically based on CPU utilization.
  2. Ensure that each tier of the payment processing system is subject to a Service Level Agreement (SLA) of 99.99 percent availability.

With Azure Load Balancer, you can scale your applications and create high availability for your services. Load Balancer supports inbound and outbound scenarios, provides low latency and high throughput, and scales up to millions of flows.

for all TCP and UDP applications.

Azure Load Balancer is available in two SKUs: Basic and Standard. There are differences in scale, features, and pricing. Standard SLA guarantees a 99.99% for data path with two healthy virtual machines. Basic SLA does not exist.

 

10. You need to recommend a backup solution for the data store of the payment processing. What should you include in the recommendation?

A. Microsoft System Center Data Protection Manager (DPM)

B. long-term retention

C. a Recovery Services vault

D. Azure Backup Server

 

11. You need to recommend a compute solution for the middle tier of the payment processing system.

What should you include in the recommendation?

A. virtual machine scale sets

B. availability sets

C. Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS)

D. Function App

 

12. You need to recommend a disaster recovery solution for the back-end tier of the payment processing system. What should you include in the recommendation?

A. Always On Failover Cluster Instances

B. active geo-replication

C. Azure Site Recovery

D. an auto-failover group

 

13. You need to recommend a solution for protecting the content of the back-end tier of the payment processing system. What should you include in the recommendations?

A. Always Encrypted with deterministic encryption

B. Transparent Date Encryption (TDE)

C. Azure Storage Service Encryption

D. Always Encrypted with randomized encryption

 

14. You need to recommend a solution for the collection of security logs the middle tier of the payment processing system. What should you include in the recommendation?

A. Azure Notification Hubs

B. the Azure Diagnostics agent

C. Azure Event Hubs

D. the Azure Log Analytics agent

 

15. WebDev01 is used only for testing purposes. You need to reduce the costs to host WebDev01. What should you modify?

NOTE: To answer this question, sign in to the Azure portal and explore the Azure resource groups.

A. the disk type of WebDev01

B. the networking properties of WebDev01

C. the storage type of the storage account

D. the properties of the storage account

 

The storage type can be changed to Block blobs to save money.

Verify the answer:

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