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The latest Cisco 350-401 exam practice questions are from the dumps part of Lead4Pass 350-401,
and the answers to the questions will be announced at the end of the article

QUESTION 1

Which two results occur if Cisco DNA Center loses connectivity to devices in the SD-Access fabric? (Choose two )

A. All devices reload after detecting loss of connection to Cisco DNA Center
B. Already connected users are unaffected, but new users cannot connect
C. User connectivity is unaffected.
D. Cisco DNA Center is unable to collect monitoring data in Assurance.
E. Users lose connectivity

QUESTION 2

Refer to the exhibit.

You have just created a new VRF on PE3. You have enabled debug IP BGP vpnv4 unicast updates on PE1, and you can
see the route in the debug, but not in the BGP VPNv4 table. Which two statements are true? (Choose two)

A. After you configure route-target import 999:999 for a VRF on PE1, the route will be accepted
B. VPNv4 is not configured between PE1 and PE3
C. address-family ipv4 or is not configured on PE3
D. PE1 will reject the route due to automatic route filtering
E. After you configure route-target import 999:999 for a VRF on PE3, the route will be accepted

Because some PE routers might receive routing information they do not require, a basic requirement is to be able to
filter the MP-iBGP updates at the ingress to the PE router so that the router does not need to keep this information in
memory. The Automatic Route Filtering feature fulfills this filtering requirement. This feature is available by default on all PE routers, and no additional configuration is necessary to enable it. Its function is to filter automatically VPN-IPv4
routes that contain a route-target extended community that does not match any of the PE\’s configured VRFs. This effectively discards any unwanted VPN-IPv4 routes silently, thus reducing the amount of information that the PE has to store in memory -> Answer \’ PE1 will reject the route due to automatic route filtering\’ is correct.

Reference:

MPLS and VPN Architectures Book, Volume 1
The reason that PE1 dropped the route is there is no “route-target import 999:999” command on PE1 (so we see the
“DENIED due to the extended community not supported” in the debug) so we need to type this command to accept this route -> Answer \’ After you configure route-target import 999:999 for a VRF on PE1, the route will be accepted\’ is correct.

QUESTION 3

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must simplify the IPsec configuration by enabling IPsec over GRE using IPsec
profiles. Which two configuration changes accomplish this? (Choose two).

A. Apply the crypto map to the tunnel interface and change the tunnel mode to tunnel mode IPSec ipv4.
B. Create an IPsec profile, associate the transform-set. and apply the profile to the tunnel interface.
C. Remove the crypto map and modify the ACL to allow traffic between 10.10.0.0/24 to 10.20.0.0/24.
D. Remove all configuration related to crypto map from R1 and R2 and eliminate the ACL |>]
E. Create an IPsec profile, associate the transform-set ACL. and apply the profile to the tunnel interface

QUESTION 4

Which function does a fabric AP perform in a Cisco SD-Access deployment?

A. It updates wireless clients’ locations in the fabric
B. It connects wireless clients to the fabric.
C. It manages wireless clients’ membership information in the fabric
D. It configures security policies down to wireless clients in the fabric

QUESTION 5

Refer to the exhibit.

Assuming that R is a CE router, which VRF is assigned to Gi0/0 on R1?

A. VRF VPN_B
B. Default VRF
C. Management VRF
D. VRF VPN_A

There is nothing special with the configuration of Gi0/0 on R1. Only the Gi0/0 interface on R2 is assigned to VRF VPN_A. The default VRF here is similar to the global routing table concept in Cisco IOS

QUESTION 6

Which line must be added in the Python function to return the JSON object {“cat_9k”: “FXS193202SE”)?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

QUESTION 7

What is the result when an active route processor fails in a design that combines NSF with SSO?

A. An NSF-aware device immediately updates the standby route processor RIB without churning the network
B. The standby route processor temporarily forwards packets until route convergence is complete
C. An NSF-capable device immediately updates the standby route processor RIB without churning the network
D. The standby route processor immediately takes control and forwards packets along known routes

QUESTION 8

Which IPv6 migration method relies on dynamic tunnels that use the 2002::/16 reserved address space?

A. GRE
B. 6RD
C. 6to4
D. ISATAP

6to4 tunnel is a technique which relies on reserved address space 2002::/16 (you must remember this range). These
tunnels determine the appropriate destination address by combining the IPv6 prefix with the globally unique destination 6to4 border router\’s IPv4 address, beginning with the 2002::/16 prefix, in this format: 2002:border-routerIPv4-address::/48 For example, if the border-router-IPv4-address is 64.101.64.1, the tunnel interface will have an IPv6 prefix of 2002:4065:4001:1::/64, where 4065:4001 is the hexadecimal equivalent of 64.101.64.1. This technique allows IPv6 sites to communicate with each other over the IPv4 network without explicit tunnel setup but we have to implement it on all routers on the path.

QUESTION 9

To increase total throughput and redundancy on the links between the wireless controller and switch, the customer
enabled LAG on the wireless controller. Which EtherChannel mode must be configured on the switch to allow the WLC
to connect?

A. Auto
B. Active
C. On
D. Passive

Link aggregation (LAG) is a partial implementation of the 802.3ad port aggregation standard. It bundles all of the
controller\’s distribution system ports into a single 802.3ad port channel. Restriction for Link aggregation:

LAG requires the EtherChannel to be configured for ‘mode on’ on both the controller and the Catalyst switch. …
Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/wireless-mobility-documents/lag-link-aggregation/ta-p/3128669

QUESTION 10

Refer to the exhibit. What happens to access interfaces where VLAN 222 is assigned?

A. STP BPDU guard is enabled
B. A description “RSPAN” is added
C. They are placed into an inactive state
D. They cannot provide PoE

QUESTION 11

DRAG-DROP
Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the QoS components they describe on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Marking = applied on traffic to convey Information to a downstream device Classification = distinguish traffic types Trust = Permits traffic to pass through the device while retaining DSCP/COS values shaping = process used to buffer traffic that exceeds a predefined rate

QUESTION 12

An engineer has deployed a single Cisco 5520 WLC with a management IP address of 172.16.50.5/24. The engineer
must register 50 new Cisco AIR-CAP2802I-E-K9 access points to the WLC using DHCP option 43. The access points
are connected to a switch in VLAN 100 that uses the 172.16.100.0/24 subnet. The engineer has configured the DHCP
scope on the switch as follows:

The access points are failing to join the wireless LAN controller. Which action resolves the issue?
A. configure option 43 Hex F104.AC10.3205
B. configure option 43 Hex F104.CA10.3205
C. configure DNS-server 172.16.50.5
D. configure DNS-server 172.16.100.1

172.16.50.5 in hex is We will have the answer from this paragraph: “TLV values for the Option 43 suboption: Type +
Length + Value. Type is always the suboption code 0xf1. Length is the number of controller management IP addresses
times 4 in hex.

Value is the IP address of the controller listed sequentially in hex. For example, suppose there are two
controllers with management interface IP addresses, 192.168.10.5 and 192.168.10.20. The type is 0xf1. The length is 2*4 = 8 =

0x08. The IP addresses translates to c0a80a05 (192.168.10.5) and c0a80a14 (192.168.10.20). When the string is
assembled, it yields f108c0a80a05c0a80a14. The Cisco IOS IT Certification Guaranteed, The Easy Way! 81command
that is added to the DHCP scope is option 43 hex f108c0a80a05c0a80a14.”

Reference:

Click Therefore in this question, option 43 in hex should be “F104.AC10.3205 (the management IP address of 172.16.50.5 in hex is AC.10.32.05).

QUESTION 13

If a VRRP master router fails, which router is selected as the new master router?

A. router with the highest priority
B. router with the highest loopback address
C. router with the lowest loopback address
D. router with the lowest priority

QUESTION 14

A network engineer is configuring Flexible Netflow and enters these commands
Sampler Netflow1 Mode random one-out-of 100 Interface FastEthernet 1/0 Flow-sampler netflow1

Which are two results of implementing this feature instead of traditional Netflow? (Choose two.)

A. CPU and memory utilization are reduced.
B. Only the flows of top 100 talkers are exported
C. The data export flow is more secure.
D. The number of packets to be analyzed is reduced
E. The accuracy of the data to be analyzed is improved

QUESTION 15

Which statement about LISP encapsulation in an EIGRP OTP implementation is true?

A. LISP learns the next hop
B. OTP uses LISP encapsulation to obtain routes from neighbors
C. OTP uses LISP encapsulation for dynamic multipoint tunneling
D. OTP maintains the LISP control plane

The EIGRP Over the Top solution can be used to ensure connectivity between disparate EIGRP sites. This feature uses
EIGRP on the control plane and Locator ID Separation Protocol (LISP) encapsulation on the data plane to route traffic
across the underlying WAN architecture.

EIGRP is used to distribute routes between customer edge (CE) devices within
the network, and the traffic forwarded across the WAN architecture is LISP encapsulated. EIGRP OTP only uses LISP
for the data plane, EIGRP is still used for the control plane. Therefore we cannot say OTP uses LISP encapsulation for
dynamic multipoint tunneling as this requires encapsulating both data and control plane traffic -> Answer \’ OTP uses
LISP encapsulation for dynamic multipoint tunneling\’ is not correct.

In OTP, EIGRP serves as the replacement for LISP
control plane protocols (therefore EIGRP will learn the next hop, not LISP -> Answer \’ LISP learns the next hop\’ is not
correct). Instead of doing dynamic EID-to- RLOC mappings in native LISP-mapping services, EIGRP routers running
OTP over a service provider cloud create targeted sessions, use the IP addresses provided by the service provider as
RLOCs, and exchange routes as EIDs. Let\’s take an example:

If R1 and R2 ran OTP to each other, R1 would learn about the network 10.0.2.0/24 from R2 through EIGRP, treat the
prefix 10.0.2.0/24 as an EID prefix, and take the advertising next hop 198.51.100.62 as the RLOC for this EID-prefix.
Similarly, R2 would learn from R1 about the network 10.0.1.0/24 through EIGRP, treat the prefix 10.0.1.0/24 as an EID prefix, and take the advertising next hop 192.0.2.31 as the RLOC for this EID-prefix. On both routers, this information
would be used to populate the LISP mapping tables. Whenever a packet from 10.0.1.0/24 to 10.0.2.0/24 would arrive at
R1 would use its LISP mapping tables just like in ordinary LISP to discover that the packet has to be LISP
encapsulated and tunneled toward 198.51.100.62, and vice versa. The LISP data plane is reused in OTP and does not
change; however, the native LISP mapping and resolving mechanisms are replaced by EIGRP. Reference: CCIE
Routing and Switching V5.0 Official Cert Guide, Volume 1, Fifth Edition

Publish the answer：

Q10

Q11

Q12

Q13

Q14

Q15

image

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latest Updated Cisco 350-701 exam questions and Answer

QUESTION 1
What Cisco command shows you the status of an 802.1X connection on interface gi0/1?
A. show authorization status
B. show authen sess int gi0/1
C. show connection status gi0/1
D. show ver gi0/1
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Under which two circumstances is a CoA issued? (Choose two.)
A. A new authentication rule was added to the policy on the Policy Service node.
B. An endpoint is deleted on the Identity Service Engine server.
C. A new Identity Source Sequence is created and referenced in the authentication policy.
D. An endpoint is profiled for the first time.
E. A new Identity Service Engine server is added to the deployment with the Administration personA.
Correct Answer: BD
https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/security/ise/1.0/user_guide/ise10_prof_pol.html

QUESTION 3
Which policy is used to capture host information on the Cisco Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System?
A. network discovery
B. correlation
C. intrusion
D. access control
Correct Answer: A
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guide-v60/Introduction_to_Network_Discovery.pdf

QUESTION 4
Which technology reduces data loss by identifying sensitive information stored in public computing environments?
A. Cisco SDA
B. Cisco Firepower
C. Cisco HyperFlex
D. Cisco Cloudlock
Correct Answer: D
https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/products/collateral/security/cloudlock/cisco-cloudlock-clouddata-securitydatasheet.pdf

QUESTION 5
Which function is the primary function of the Cisco AMP threat Grid?
A. automated email encryption
B. applying a real-time URI blacklist
C. automated malware analysis
D. monitoring network traffic
Correct Answer: C

…

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QUESTION 1
Which policy is used to capture host information on the Cisco Firepower Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System?
A. correlation
B. intrusion
C. access control
D. network discovery
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which two prevention techniques are used to mitigate SQL injection attacks? (Choose two.)
A. Check integer, float, or Boolean string parameters to ensure accurate values.
B. Use prepared statements and parameterized queries.
C. Secure the connection between the web and the app tier.
D. Write SQL code instead of using object-relational mapping libraries.
E. Block SQL code execution in the web application database login.
Correct Answer: AB
Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/SQL_injection

QUESTION 3
In which form of attack is alternate encoding, such as hexadecimal representation, most often observed?
A. smurf
B. distributed denial of service
C. cross-site scripting
D. rootkit exploit
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
An engineer wants to automatically assign endpoints that have a specific OUl into a new endpoint group. Which probe
must be enabled for this type of profiling to work?
A. NetFlow
B. DHCP
C. SNMP
D. NMAP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which solution protects hybrid cloud deployment workloads with application visibility and segmentation?
A. Nexus
B. Stealthwatch
C. Firepower
D. Tetration
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/security/secure-data-center-solution/index.html#~products

QUESTION 6
Which policy represents a shared set of features or parameters that define the aspects of a managed device that are
likely to be similar to other managed devices in a deployment?
A. group policy
B. access control policy
C. device management policy
D. platform service policy
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/622/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev622/platform_settings_policies_for_managed_devices.pdf

QUESTION 7
Which two application layer preprocessors are used by Firepower Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System?
(Choose two.)
A. SIP
B. inline normalization
C. SSL
D. packet decoder
E. modbus
Correct Answer: AC
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev60/Application_Layer_Preprocessors.html

QUESTION 8
Which two endpoint measures are used to minimize the chances of falling victim to phishing and social engineering
attacks? (Choose two.)
A. Patch for cross-site scripting.
B. Perform backups to the private cloud.
C. Protect against input validation and character escapes in the endpoint.
D. Install a spam and virus email filter.
E. Protect systems with an up-to-date antimalware program.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 9
Which two capabilities does TAXII support? (Choose two.)
A. exchange
B. pull messaging
C. binding
D. correlation
E. mitigating
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 10
Which statement about IOS zone-based firewalls is true?
A. An unassigned interface can communicate with assigned interfaces
B. Only one interface can be assigned to a zone.
C. An interface can be assigned to multiple zones.
D. An interface can be assigned only to one zone.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/ios-firewall/98628-zone-design-guide.html

QUESTION 11
Which information is required when adding a device to Firepower Management Center?
A. username and password
B. encryption method
C. device serial number
D. registration key
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev60/Device_Management_Basics.html#ID-2242-0000069d

QUESTION 12
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the capabilities from the left onto the correct technologies on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 13
Which command enables 802.1X globally on a Cisco switch?
A. dot1x system-auth-control
B. dot1x page authenticator
C. authentication port-control auto
D. aaa new-model
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/nfvis/switch_command/b-nfvis-switch-commandreference/802_1x_commands.html

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QUESTION 1
A user with minimal privileges forgets to enter customer payments for the previous 15 days. The user needs to enter all
the payments using a previous date instead of the current date. What should the user do?
A. Change the date of the user session in the session date form.
B. Change the system date on the user\\’s operating system and restart the browser.
C. Change the date of the customer payment journal header.
D. Change the system date of the Application Object Server (AOS) in system administration.
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/fin-ops-core/fin-ops/organizationadministration/tasks/change-date-session

QUESTION 2
SIMULATION
You are a functional consultant for Contoso Entertainment System USA (USMF).
You need to create a new calendar named Work Week that will be defined as follows:
1.
Open from Monday to Friday from 09:00 to 17:00
2.
Closed all day Saturday and Sunday
To complete this task, sign in to the Dynamics 365 portal.
Correct Answer:
You need to create a working time template and a working time calendar.
Create the template:
1.
Click Organization administration > Common > Calendars > Working time templates. Click New to create a new line.
2.
On the Overview tab, in the Working time template field, enter an alphanumeric identifier of up to 10 characters.
3.
In the Name field, enter a descriptive name for the template.
4.
Select the tab that corresponds to the day of the week that you want to define working hours for, and click Add to create
a new line.
5.
In the From field, enter the starting time for the day or the period (09:00).
6.
In the To field, enter the ending time for the day or the period (17:00)
7.
Repeat steps 4 through 6 for each day of the week ensuring that Saturday and Sunday are marked as closed then save
the template.
Create the calendar:
1.
Click Organization administration > Common > Calendars > Calendars.
2.
On the toolbar, click New to create a new line.
3.
In the Calendar field, enter a unique identifier of up to ten characters.
4.
In the Name field, enter Work Week.
5.
Click Working times, and then click Compose working times to create or update working times for the calendar.
6.
In the Calendar field, select the name of the calendar (Work Week) to compose working times for.
7.
In the From date field, enter the first date to compose working times for. By default, the field contains the current date.
8.
In the To date field, enter the last date to compose working times for. By default, the field contains a date that is one
year from the current date.
9.
In the Working time template field, select the template you created. 10. Click OK.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamicsax-2012/appuser-itpro/create-working-time-templates
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamicsax-2012/appuser-itpro/create-working-time-calendars

QUESTION 3
HOTSPOT
You want to enhance usability in the Dynamics 365 Finance deployment for an organization.
You need to set up filters to help people find records that are used regularly.
Which filter expressions should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

…

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QUESTION 1
You need to connect the Excel instance to the Relecloud production instance. What should you do?
A. Set the server URL to Microsoft.Dynamics.Platform.Integration.Office.UrlViewerApplet.
B. Set the server URL to https://relecloud-prod.operations.dynamics.com.
C. Set the App Correlation ID to https://relecloud-prod.operations.dynamics.com.
D. Set the App Correlation ID to the App Id in the Dynamics 365 Office App Parameters.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/dev-itpro/office-integration/use-excel-addin

QUESTION 2
SIMULATION
You are a functional consultant for Contoso Entertainment System USA (USMF). You plan to import customers from an
old legacy system to USMF.
You need to identify the format used for the customer details v2 entity by creating an export job. The solution must use a
Microsoft Excel data format and Contoso Europe. To validate your results, save the file in Microsoft Excel format to the
Downloads\Customer folder.
To complete this task, sign in to the Dynamics 365 portal. NOTE: To complete this task, you must configure the Shared working directory for the Framework parameters to C:\users\public\documents\.
Correct Answer: Solution
Solution
1.
Navigate to System Administration>; Workspaces>; Data management.
2.
Click the Framework parameters tile.
3.
In the Shared working directory field, enter C:\users\public\documents\ then click Validate.
4.
Click the Export tile.
5.
In the Name field, enter a name for the export job.
6.
In the Entity Name field, select the Customer details v2 entity.
7.
Click on Add entity.
8.
In the Target data format field, select EXCEL.
9.
Set the Skip staging option to No.
10.Click the Add button.
11.Click Export to begin the export.
12.Click on Download package.
13.Select the Downloads\Customer folder as the location to save the downloaded file.

QUESTION 3
A company implements Dynamics 365 Finance.
The implementation team must build acceptance scripts to make sure that common business use cases can be
performed in the new system. They must test use cases by stepping through required tasks, organized by functional
hierarchy.
You need to create User Acceptance Testing (UAT) tests in Lifecycle Services (LCS) that can be easily repeatable.
What should you use?
A. Task recorder
B. APQC Unified Library
C. Asset library
D. Configuration data manager
Correct Answer: A
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/fin-ops-core/dev-itpro/lifecycle-services/using-task-guides-and-bpm-tocreate-user-acceptance-tests

QUESTION 4
SIMULATION
A company named Contoso, Ltd. plans to create a new legal entity for a new division that has a financial period close of
March 31.
You need to create a new calendar for the planned legal entity. To complete this task, sign in to the Dynamics 365
portal.
Correct Answer: Solution
Solution
1.
Go to Navigation pane>; Modules>; General Ledger>; Ledger Setup>; Fiscal Calendars.
2.
Click the New Calendar button.
3.
In the Calendar field, enter a name for the calendar. ?In the Description field, enter a description for the calendar.
4.
In the Start of the fiscal year field, select April 1st. ? At the End of the fiscal year field, select March 31st.
5.
In the Length of period field, enter 1.
6.
In the Unit field, select Year.
7.
Click the Create button to create the calendar.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/modules/create-fiscal-calendars-years-periods-dyn365-finance/3-create

QUESTION 5
A company implements Dynamics 365 Finance.
You are responsible for creating a custom feature within a solution by using Microsoft Azure DevOps. Testers have
found a bug while running one of the User Acceptance Testing (UAT) scripts. However, it is not a high-severity bug and
has
been found to not have interconnected dependencies to other branches within the process flow.
You need to deploy the passed functionality features.
What should you do?
A. Exclude the specific package from the deployable package in Microsoft Azure DevOps.
B. Exclude the specific package from the data package in the Data management tool.
C. Exclude the specific package from the deployable package in the Configuration data manager.
D. Exclude the specific package from the Business process modeler (BPM).
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
HOTSPOT
You work with a systems administrator for Dynamics 365 Finance.
The system has been configured to prompt users for how they want to send emails based on the given scenario they
are encountering. In certain situations, they will want to generate an email to forward to an account executive who
doesn\\’t
have access to Dynamics 365 Finance. Other times, the emails should be either sent as an attachment to a user email
or through a generic no-reply email.
You need to determine which configuration to provide to the file system administrator for the given scenario.
Which option should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 7
you need 10 to determine the different entities that sales managers can use to import data to an initial Excel template.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each
correct selection is worth one point
A. Explore the Dynamics 365 database schema
B. Explore the Data distribution framework jobs.
C. Explore the Excel Workbook Designer records.
D. Explore the data entities in the Data Management Workspace.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
A client uses Dynamics 365 Finance.
You need to configure a workflow to allow users to approve or deny workflow tasks from outside the system.
What should you configure?
A. a business event and a Microsoft PowerApps workflow
B. a standard notification in workflows
C. a standard date-based alert
D. a business event a Microsoft Flow workflow
E. a standard changed-based alert
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
You manage a Dynamics 365 Finance environment. Users report slow queries, deadlocks, and crashes. You need to identify which tool to use to troubleshoot. What should you use?
A. Environment monitoring
B. Microsoft Azure Active Directory Connect Health Agent
C. System diagnostics
D. DirectQuery
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://blogs.msdn.microsoft.com/axsa/2018/06/05/how-to-use-environment-monitoring-view-raw-logs/

QUESTION 10
You are a Dynamics 365 Finance system administrator.
Microsoft recently released a new feature for the public preview that would add significant value to your organization without
licensing adjustments.
You need to enable the feature.
Where can you enable the preview feature?
A. Solution management
B. Lifecycle Services
C. Organizational administration module
D. experience.dynamics.com
E. System administration module
Correct Answer: E
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/fin-ops-core/fin-ops/get-started/public-preview-releases

QUESTION 11
HOTSPOT
You manage a Dynamics 365 Finance environment.
In preparation for being migrated into a new environment, data packages are being numbered in alignment with the
default numbering formats in Lifecycle Services. A package is named 03.01.002.
You need to identify what this package contains. To answer, select the appropriate option in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/unified-operations/dev-itpro/lcs-solutions/process-datapackages-lcs-solutions

QUESTION 12
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen.
You are a Dynamics 365 Finance system administrator. You have a test environment that is used by several people at
any given time.
You create a new data entity in your development and migrate the code to the test environment. In the test environment,
you are unable to find the data entity in the list.
You need to locate the data entity.
Solution: Restart the Application Object Server (AOS) of the test environment.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
HOTSPOT
A company implements Dynamics 365 Finance and uses Lifecycle Services (LCS). The company uses both standards
and customized functionality.
Testers have reported problems using the recent User Acceptance Testing (UAT) round.
You need to resolve these issues before UAT can proceed.
Which tools should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

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QUESTION 1
Use the following login credentials as needed:
To enter your username, place your cursor in the Sign-in box and click on the username below.
To enter your password, place your cursor in the Enter password box and click on the password below.
Azure Username: [email protected]
Azure Password: KJn29!aBBB
If the Azure portal does not load successfully in the browser, press CTRL-K to reload the portal in a new browser tab.
The following information is for technical support purposes only:
Lab Instance: 10989444

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QUESTION 1
HOTSPOT
You manage a network that includes an on-premises Active Directory domain and an Azure Active Directory (Azure
AD).
Employees are required to use different accounts when using on-premises or cloud resources. You must recommend a
solution that lets employees sign in to all company resources by using a single account. The solution must implement
an
identity provider.
You need to provide guidance on the different identity providers.
How should you describe each identity provider? To answer, select the appropriate description from each list in the
answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box1: User management occurs on-premises. Azure AD authenticates employees by using on-premises passwords.
Azure AD Domain Services for hybrid organizations
Organizations with a hybrid IT infrastructure consume a mix of cloud resources and on-premises resources. Such
organizations synchronize identity information from their on-premises directory to their Azure AD tenant. As hybrid
organizations look to migrate more of their on-premises applications to the cloud, especially legacy directory-aware
applications, Azure AD Domain Services can be useful to them.
Example: Litware Corporation has deployed Azure AD Connect, to synchronize identity information from its on-premises directory to their Azure AD tenant. The identity information that is synchronized includes user accounts, their
credential
hashes for authentication (password hash sync) and group memberships.
User accounts, group memberships, and credentials from Litware\\’s on-premises directory are synchronized to Azure
AD via Azure AD Connect. These user accounts, group memberships, and credentials are automatically available within
the
managed domain.
Box 2: User management occurs on-premises. The on-promises domain controller authenticates employee credentials.
You can federate your on-premises environment with Azure AD and use this federation for authentication and
authorization. This sign-in method ensures that all user authentication occurs on-premises.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory-domain-services/active-directory-ds-overview
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/whatis-fed

QUESTION 2
Your company plans to publish APIs for its services by using Azure API Management.
You discover that service responses include the AspNet-Version header.
You need to recommend a solution to remove AspNet-Version from the response of the published APIs.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. a new product
B. a modification to the URL scheme
C. a new policy
D. a new revision
Correct Answer: C
Set a new transformation policy to transform an API to strip response headers.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/api-management/transform-api

QUESTION 3
HOTSPOT
You plan to deploy a network-intensive application to several Azure virtual machines.
You need to recommend a solution that meets the following requirements:
Minimizes the use of the virtual machine processors to transfer data
Minimizes network latency
Which virtual machine size and the feature should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/windows/sizes-hpc#h-series

QUESTION 4
You need to recommend a solution for configuring the Azure Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) settings.
What should you include in the recommendation? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 5
Your company purchases an app named App1.
You plan to run App1 on seven Azure virtual machines in an Availability Set. The number of fault domains is set to 3.
The number of update domains is set to 20.
You need to identify how many App1 instances will remain available during a period of planned maintenance.
How many App1 instances should you identify?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 6
D. 7
Correct Answer: C
Only one update domain is rebooted at a time. Here there is 7 update domain with one VM each (and 13 updates domain with no VM).
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/windows/manage-availability

QUESTION 6
You have an on-premises Hyper-V cluster. The cluster contains Hyper-V hosts that run Windows Server 2016
Datacenter. The hosts are licensed under a Microsoft Enterprise Agreement that has Software Assurance.
The Hyper-V cluster contains 30 virtual machines that run Windows Server 2012 R2. Each virtual machine runs a
different workload. The workloads have predictable consumption patterns.
You plan to replace the virtual machines with Azure virtual machines that run Windows Server 2016. The virtual
machines will be sized according to the consumption pattern of each workload.
You need to recommend a solution to minimize the compute costs of the Azure virtual machines.
Which two recommendations should you include in the solution? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Configure a spending limit in the Azure account center.
B. Create a virtual machine scale set that uses autoscaling.
C. Activate Azure Hybrid Benefit for the Azure virtual machines.
D. Purchase Azure Reserved Virtual Machine Instances for the Azure virtual machines.
E. Create a lab in Azure DevTest Labs and place the Azure virtual machines in the lab.
Correct Answer: CD
C: For customers with Software Assurance, Azure Hybrid Benefit for Windows Server allows you to use your on-premises Windows Server licenses and run Windows virtual machines on Azure at a reduced cost. You can use Azure
Hybrid Benefit for Windows Server to deploy new virtual machines with Windows OS.
D: With Azure Reserved VM Instances (RIs) you reserve virtual machines in advance and save up to 80 percent.
Reference:
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/pricing/reserved-vm-instances/
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/windows/hybrid-use-benefit-licensing

QUESTION 7
You need to recommend a solution to meet the database retention requirement. What should you recommend?
A. Configure geo-replication of the database.
B. Configure a long-term retention policy for the database.
C. Configure Azure Site Recovery.
D. Use automatic Azure SQL Database backups.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
You have an Azure Storage v2 account named storage1.
You plan to archive data to storage1.
You need to ensure that the archived data cannot be deleted for five years. The solution must prevent administrators
from deleting the data.
Solution: You create a file share, and you configure an access policy.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Instead of a file share, immutable Blob storage is required.
Time-based retention policy support: Users can set policies to store data for a specified interval. When a time-based retention policy is set, blobs can be created and read, but not modified or deleted. After the retention period has
expired,
blobs can be deleted but not overwritten.
Note: Set retention policies and legal holds
1.
Create a new container or select an existing container to store the blobs that need to be kept in an immutable state.
The container must be in a general-purpose v2 or Blob storage account.
2.
Select Access policy in the container settings. Then select Add policy under Immutable blob storage.
3.
To enable time-based retention, select Time-based retention from the drop-down menu.
4.
Enter the retention interval in days (acceptable values are 1 to 146000 days).
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/blobs/storage-blob-immutable-storage
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/blobs/storage-blob-immutability-policies-manage

QUESTION 9
You need to deploy resources to host a stateless web app in an Azure subscription. The solution must meet the
following requirements:
Provide access to the full .NET framework.
Provide redundancy if an Azure region fails.
Grant administrators access to the operating system to install custom application dependencies.
Solution: You deploy a virtual machine scale set that uses autoscaling.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Instead, you should deploy two Azure virtual machines to two Azure regions, and create a Traffic Manager profile.

QUESTION 10
You need to recommend a notification solution for the IT Support distribution group. What should you include in the
recommendation?
A. a SendGrid account with advanced reporting
B. Azure AD Connect Health
C. Azure Network Watcher
D. an action group
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/how-to-connect-health-operations

QUESTION 11
HOTSPOT
Your company is designing a multi-tenant application that will use elastic pools and Azure SQL databases. The
application will be used by 30 customers.
You need to design a storage solution for the application. The solution must meet the following requirements:
Operational costs must be minimized.
All customers must have their own database.
The customer databases will be in one of the following three Azure regions: East US, North Europe, or South Africa
North.
What are the minimum number of elastic pools and Azure SQL Database servers required? To answer, select the
appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: 3
The server, its pools, and databases must be in the same Azure region under the same subscription.
Box 2: 3
A server can have up to 5000 databases associated with it.
Reference:
https://vincentlauzon.com/2016/12/18/azure-sql-elastic-pool-overview/

QUESTION 12
HOTSPOT
You configure the Diagnostics settings for an Azure SQL database as shown in the following exhibit

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

QUESTION 13
You have an Azure Storage v2 account named storage1.
You plan to archive data to storage1.
You need to ensure that the archived data cannot be deleted for five years. The solution must prevent administrators
from deleting the data.
Solution: You create a file share and snapshots.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Instead, you could create an Azure Blob storage container, and configure a legal hold access policy.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/blobs/storage-blob-immutable-storage

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QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
You have an Azure subscription that contains the following resources:
1.
a virtual network named VNet1
2.
a replication policy named ReplPoHcy1
3.
a Recovery Services vault named Vault1
4.
an Azure Storage account named Storage1
You have an Amazon Web Services (AWS) EC2 virtual machine named VM1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
You need to migrate VM1 to VNet1 by using Azure Site Recovery.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order
Select and Place:

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QUESTION 1
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant linked to an Azure subscription. The tenant contains a group
named Admins.
You need to prevent users, except for the members of Admins, from using the Azure portal and Azure PowerShell to
access the subscription.
What should you do?
A. From Azure AD, configure the User settings.
B. From the Azure subscription, assign an Azure policy.
C. From Azure AD, create a conditional access policy.
D. From the Azure subscription, configure Access control (IAM).
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
HOTSPOT
You plan to create an Azure Storage account in the Azure region of East US 2.
You need to create a storage account that meets the following requirements:
Replicates synchronously
Remains available if a single data center in the region fails
How should you configure the storage account? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: Zone-redundant storage (ZRS)
Zone-redundant storage (ZRS) replicates your data synchronously across three storage clusters in a single region.
LRS would not remain available if a data center in the region fails
GRS and RA GRS use asynchronous replication.
Box 2: StorageV2 (general purpose V2)
ZRS only supports GPv2.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-redundancy
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-redundancy-zrs

QUESTION 3
You need to recommend an identity solution that meets the technical requirements.
What should you recommend?
A. password hash synchronization and single sign-on (SSO)
B. federated single sign-on (SSO) and Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS)
C. Pass-through Authentication and single sign-on (SSO)
D. cloud-only user accounts
Correct Answer: C
With Pass-through Authentication, the on-premises passwords are never stored in the cloud in any form.
Scenario:
Prevent user passwords or hashes of passwords from being stored in Azure.
Ensure that when users join devices to Azure Active Directory (Azure AD), the users use a mobile phone to verify their
identity.
Minimize administrative effort whenever possible.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/how-to-connect-pta

QUESTION 4
HOTSPOT
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com and an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD), tenant
named adatum.onmicrosoft.com.
Adatum.com contains the user accounts in the following table.

Adatum.onmicrosoft.com contains the user accounts in the following table.

You need to implement Azure AD Connect. The solution must follow the principle of least privilege.
Which user accounts should you use in Adatum.com and Adatum.onmicrosoft.com to implement Azure AD Connect? To
answer select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: User5
In Express settings, the installation wizard asks for the following:
AD DS Enterprise Administrator credentials
Azure AD Global Administrator credentials
The AD DS Enterprise Admin account is used to configure your on-premises Active Directory. These credentials are
only used during the installation and are not used after the installation has completed. The Enterprise Admin, not the
Domain
Admin should make sure the permissions in Active Directory can be set in all domains.
Box 2: UserA
Azure AD Global Admin credentials are only used during the installation and are not used after the installation has
completed. It is used to create the Azure AD Connector account used for synchronizing changes to Azure AD. The
account
also enables sync as a feature in Azure AD.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/connect/active-directory-aadconnect-accounts-permissions

QUESTION 5
HOTSPOT
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant that contains the user groups shown in the following table.

You enable self-service password reset (SSPR) for Group1.
You configure the Notifications settings as shown in the following exhibit.

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Box 1: Yes
Notify all admins when other admins reset their passwords: Yes.
Box 2: No
Notify users on password resets: No.
Box 3: No Notify users on password resets
If this option is set to Yes, then users resetting their password receive an email notifying them that their password has
been changed. The email is sent via the SSPR portal to their primary and alternate email addresses that are on file in
Azure AD. No one else is notified of the reset event. Notify all admins when other admins reset their passwords
If this option is set to Yes, then all administrators receive an email to their primary email address on file in Azure AD.
The email notifies them that another administrator has changed their password by using SSPR.
Example: There are four administrators in an environment. Administrator A resets their password by using SSPR.
Administrators B, C, and D receive an email alerting them of the password reset.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/authentication/concept-sspr-howitworks
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/authentication/tutorial-enable-sspr

QUESTION 6
You have an Azure Cosmos DB account named Account1. Account1 includes a database named DB1 that contains a
container named Container 1. The partition key tor Container1 is set to /city.
You plan to change the partition key for Container1
What should you do first?
A. Delete Container1
B. Create a new container in DB1
C. Regenerate the keys for Account1.
D. Implement the Azure CosmosDB.NET SDK
Correct Answer: B
The good news is that there are two features, the Change Feed Processor and Bulk Executor Library, in Azure Cosmos
DB that can be leveraged to achieve a live migration of your data from one container to another. This allows you to
redistribute your data to match the desired new partition key scheme, and make the relevant application changes afterward, thus achieving the effect of “updating your partition key”.
Reference:
https://devblogs.microsoft.com/cosmosdb/how-to-change-your-partition-key/

QUESTION 7
You have an Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS) cluster named Clus1 in a resource group named RG1.
An administrator plans to manage Clus1 from an Azure AD-joined device.
You need to ensure that the administrator can deploy the YAML application manifest file for a container application.
You install the Azure CLI on the device.
Which command should you run next?
A. kubectl get nodes
B. az aks install-CLI
C. kubectl apply –f app1.YAML
D. az aks get-credentials –resource-group RG1 –name Clus1
Correct Answer: C
References:
https://kubernetes.io/docs/reference/kubectl/overview/
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/cli/azure/aks

QUESTION 8
You have two Azure SQL Database managed instances in different Azure regions.
You plan to configure the managed instances in an instance failover group.
What should you configure before you can add the managed instances to the instance failover group?
A. Azure Private Link that has endpoints on two virtual networks
B. A Site-to-Site VPN between the virtual networks that contain the instances.
C. An Azure Application Gateway that has managed instance endpoints in a backend pool.
D. An internal Azure Load Balancer instance that has managed instance endpoints in a backend pool.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
You need to meet the user requirement for Admin1. What should you do?
A. From the Subscriptions blade, select the subscription and then modify the Properties.
B. From the Subscriptions blade, select the subscription and then modify the Access control (IAM) settings.
C. From the Azure Active Directory blade, modify the Properties.
D. From the Azure Active Directory blade, modify the Groups.
Correct Answer: A
Change the Service administrator for an Azure subscription
Sign in to Account Center as the Account administrator.
Select a subscription.
On the right side, select Edit subscription details.
Scenario: Designate a new user named Admin1 as the service administrator of the Azure subscription.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/billing/billing-add-change-azure-subscription-administrator

QUESTION 10
You are designing an Azure solution.
The solution must meet the following requirements:
*
Distribute traffic to different pools of dedicated virtual machines (VMs) based on rules
*
Provide SSL offloading capabilities
You need to recommend a solution to distribute network traffic.
Which technology should you recommend?
A.
server-level firewall rules
B.
Azure Application Gateway
C.
Azure Traffic Manager
D.
Azure Load Balancer
Correct Answer: B
If you require “SSL offloading”, application layer treatment, or wish to delegate certificate management to Azure, you
should use Azure\\’s layer 7 load balancer Application Gateway instead of the Load Balancer. References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/application-gateway/overview

QUESTION 11
You create a container image named Image1 on a developer workstation.
You plan to create an Azure Web App for Containers named WebAppContainer that will use Image1.
You need to upload Image1 to Azure. The solution must ensure that WebAppContainer can use Image1.
To which storage type should you upload Image1?
A. Azure Container Registry
B. an Azure Storage account that contains a blob container
C. an Azure Storage account that contains a file share
D. Azure Container Instances
Correct Answer: A
Configure registry credentials in the web app.
App Service needs information about your registry and image to pull the private image. In the Azure portal, go to
Container settings from the web app and update the Image source, Registry and save.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/devops/pipelines/targets/webapp-on-container-linux

QUESTION 12
You plan to automate the deployment of a virtual machine scale set that uses the Windows Server 2016 Datacenter
image. You need to ensure that when the scale set virtual machines are provisioned, they have web server components
installed. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each
correct selection is worth one point.
A. Create a new virtual machine scale set in the Azure portal.
B. Create an automation account.
C. Upload a configuration script.
D. Modify the extensionProfile section of the Azure Resource Manager template.
E. Create an Azure policy.
Correct Answer: AD
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machine-scale-sets/tutorial-install-apps-template

QUESTION 13
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com.
A user named Admin1 attempts to create an access review from the Azure Active Directory admin center and discovers
that the Access reviews settings are unavailable. Admin1 discovers that all the other Identity Governance settings are
available.
Admin1 is assigned the User administrator, Compliance administrator, and Security administrator roles.
You need to ensure that Admin1 can create access reviews in contoso.com.
Solution: You create an access package.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
You do not use access packages for Identity Governance. Instead, use Azure AD Privileged Identity Management.
Note: PIM essentially helps you manage the who, what, when, where, and why for resources that you care about. Key
features of PIM include:
Conduct access reviews to ensure users still need roles
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/privileged-identity-management/pim-configure
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/governance/entitlement-management-overview

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QUESTION 1
HOTSPOT
You are creating a canvas app that will be used in several countries/regions.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

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QUESTION 1
A company plans to create a canvas app that connects to three databases with different proprietary database formats.
What is the minimum number of connectors required?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powerapps/maker/canvas-apps/working-with-data-sources

QUESTION 2
You are a sales representative. You create a Power BI report to visualize data from a Microsoft Excel workbook.
Users need to be able to view and share the report.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Pin the report to a dashboard.
B. Export the data.
C. Publish the dashboard.
D. Share the dashboard.
Correct Answer: AD
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/create-reports/service-dashboard-pin-live-tile-from-report
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/collaborate-share/service-share-dashboards#limitations-and-considerations

QUESTION 3
DRAG DROP
You build a flow using a template. You want to add support for additional business scenarios.
You need to ensure that the new workflow does not break existing functionality.
Which flow editing utilities should you use? To answer, drag the appropriate tools to the correct requirements. Each tool
maybe used once, more than once, or not at all You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view
content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Box 1: Flow Checker The Flow checker feature will promote higher quality flows by ensuring you follow best practices.
By running the checker, you will be able to get answers to questions like which areas of my flow implementation pose a
performance or reliability risk?
For each issue identified, the Flow checker points to specific occurrences within the flow where improvements may be
required. And more importantly, you learn how to implement these improvements by following detailed guidance.
Box 2: Test
Box 3: Test
Reference: https://flow.microsoft.com/en-us/blog/flow-checker-four-connectors/ https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powerautomate/modern-approvals

QUESTION 4
You create a Power App portal.
When a user signs in to the portal the following error displays: User not found
You confirm that the user\\’s sign-in information is correct.
You need to determine the cause of the error.
What should you do?
A. Disable custom error messages.
B. Create a custom error message.
C. Enable diagnostic tools in Lifecycle Services.
D. Enable Maintenance mode.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/fin-ops-core/dev-itpro/lifecycle-services/monitoringdiagnostics https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/dynamics365/fin-ops-core/dev-itpro/lifecycle-services/user-logins

QUESTION 5
A company has a website. The website includes a form that allows the company to collect information about leads.
You need to set up an automated workflow to create leads in Dynamics 365 Sales when leads are created on the
company\\’s custom website.
What should you create?
A. Task Flow
B. Power Automate flow
C. Dynamics 365 workflow
D. Business Process Flow
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://trellispoint.com/create-crm-leads-using-microsoft-flow/

QUESTION 6
A company is using Power Automate to automate business processes. You need to run a flow when a user presses a
button in an app.
Which trigger type should you recommend?
A. Power Apps
B. for a selected row
C. manually trigger a flow
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
A company uses Dynamics 365 Supply Chain Management and Dynamics 365 Finance.
Account data must be synchronized between the two systems.
You need to ensure that the synchronized data is stored in one place.
What should you use?
A. Azure IoT Central
B. Azure Active Directory
C. SQL Server
D. Common Data Service
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-platform/admin/data-integrator

QUESTION 8
A company plans to use AI Builder to help improve business performance.
You need to determine which AI Models are available for use.
Which three types of models can you use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. linear regression
B. prediction
C. object detection
D. anomaly detection
E. text classification
Correct Answer: BCE
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/ai-builder/model-types

QUESTION 9
HOTSPOT
You have a Power BI report.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Box 1: Yes If you\\’d like to see the data that Power BI uses to create a visualization, you can display that data in Power
BI. You can also export that data to Excel as a .xlsx or .csv file. The option to export the data requires a Pro or
Premium license and edit permissions to the dataset and report.
Note: Export data from a Power BI dashboard
1.
Select the ellipsis in the upper-right corner of the visualization.
2.
Choose the Export data icon.
3.
Power BI exports the data to a .csv file. If you\\’ve filtered the visualization, then the app will filter the downloaded data.
4.
Your browser will prompt you to save the file. Once saved, open the .csv file in Excel.
Box 2: No
Underlying data: Select this option if you want to see the data in the visual and additional data from the model (see chart
below for details). If your visualization has an aggregate, selecting Underlying data removes the aggregate. When you
select Export, Power BI exports the data to a .xlsx file and your browser prompts you to save the file. Once saved,
open the file in Excel.
Box 3: Yes
A KPI dataset needs to contain goal values for a KPI. If your dataset doesn\\’t contain goal values, you can create them
by adding an Excel sheet with goals to your data model or PBIX file.
Note: A Key Performance Indicator (KPI) is a visual cue that communicates the amount of progress made toward a
measurable goal.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/visuals/power-bi-visualization-export-data
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/visuals/power-bi-visualization-kpi

QUESTION 10
HOTSPOT
A company needs to create several workflows and applications to help streamline its sales operations.
You need to determine which applications are appropriate for given scenarios.
Which applications should you use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-automate/getting-started https://docs.microsoft.com/enus/azure/logic-apps/logic-apps-overview https://powerapps.microsoft.com/pl-pl/blog/business-model-may/

QUESTION 11
HOTSPOT
A software company plans to use Power Automate.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/connectors/custom-connectors/share

QUESTION 12
What is the benefit of deploying Microsoft 365 and Dynamics 365 apps in the same tenant?
A. Use Common Data Services to connect to application data.
B. You only need to set up groups in Microsoft 365 for permissions to all data.
C. Users can access both Microsoft 365 and Dynamics 365 by using Single Sign-on (SSO).
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
A company uses Power Automate.
Which three items can trigger flows? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Lifecycle Services
B. Microsoft 365 Admin center
C. Common Data Service
D. Microsoft Outlook 365
E. Microsoft Windows Desktop
Correct Answer: ACD
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-automate/email-triggers https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powerautomate/connection-cds https://dynamics365.wordpress.com/category/powerapps/

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QUESTION 1
An information security manager has been assigned to implement more restrictive preventive controls. By doing so, the
net effect will be to PRIMARILY reduce the:
A. threat.
B. loss.
C. vulnerability.
D. probability.
Correct Answer: C
Implementing more restrictive preventive controls mitigates vulnerabilities but not the threats. Losses and probability of
occurrence may not be primarily or directly affected.

QUESTION 2
A project manager is developing a developer portal and requests that the security manager assign a public IP address
so that it can be accessed by in-house staff and by external consultants outside the organization\\’s local area network
(LAN). What should the security manager do FIRST?
A. Understand the business requirements of the developer portal
B. Perform a vulnerability assessment of the developer portal
C. Install an intrusion detection system (IDS)
D. Obtain a signed nondisclosure agreement (NDA) from the external consultants before allowing external access to the
server
Correct Answer: A
The information security manager cannot make an informed decision about the request without first understanding the
business requirements of the developer portal. Performing a vulnerability assessment of developer portal and installing
an intrusion detection system (IDS) are best practices but are subsequent to understanding the requirements. Obtaining
a signed nondisclosure agreement will not take care of the risks inherent in the organization\\’s application.

QUESTION 3
An information security manager is developing a new information security strategy.
Which of the following functions would serve as the BEST resource to review the strategy and provide guidance for
business alignment?
A. Internal audit
B. The steering committee
C. The legal department
D. The board of directors
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
An incident response team has determined there is a need to isolate a system that is communicating with a known
malicious host on the Internet.
Which of the following stakeholders should be contacted FIRST?
A. Executive management
B. System administrator
C. Key customers
D. The business owner
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when selecting members for an information security
steering committee?
A. Cross-functional composition
B. Information security expertise
C. Tenure in the organization
D. Business expertise
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
The BEST defense against phishing attempts within an organization is: A. filtering of e-mail.
B. an intrusion protection system (IPS).
C. strengthening of firewall rules.
D. an intrusion detection system (IDS).
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which of the following is MOST critical for an effective information security governance framework?
A. Board members are committed to the information security program.
B. Information security policies are reviewed on a regular basis.
C. The information security program is continually monitored.
D. The CIO is accountable for the information security program.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is the BEST way to identify the potential impact of a successful attack on an organization\\’s
mission critical applications?
A. Conduct penetration testing.
B. Execute regular vulnerability scans.
C. Perform independent code review.
D. Perform application vulnerability review.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A border router should be placed on which of the following?
A. Web server
B. IDS server
C. Screened subnet
D. Domain boundary
Correct Answer: D
A border router should be placed on a (security) domain boundary. Placing it on a web server or screened subnet, which
is a demilitarized zone (DMZ) would not provide any protection. Border routers are positioned on the boundary of the
network, but do not reside on a server.

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is the BEST method to defend against social engineering attacks?
A. Periodically perform antivirus scans to identify malware.
B. Communicate guidelines to limit information posted to public sites.
C. Employ the use of a web-content filtering solution.
D. Monitor for unauthorized access attempts and failed logins.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
An emergency change was made to an IT system as a result of a failure. Which of the following should be of
GREATEST concern to the organization\\’s information security manager?
A. The change did not include a proper assessment of risk.
B. Documentation of the change was made after implementation.
C. The information security manager did not review the change prior to implementation.
D. The operations team implemented the change without regression testing.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
During an incident, which of the following entities would MOST likely be contacted directly by an organization\\’s incident
response team without management approval?
A. Industry regulators
B. Technology vendor
C. Law enforcement
D. Internal audit
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
The PRIORITY action to be taken when a server is infected with a virus is to:
A. isolate the infected server(s) from the network.
B. identify all potential damage caused by the infection.
C. ensure that the virus database files are current.
D. establish security weaknesses in the firewall.
Correct Answer: A
The priority in this event is to minimize the effect of the virus infection and to prevent it from spreading by removing the
infected server(s) from the network. After the network is secured from further infection, the damage assessment can be
performed, the virus database updated and any weaknesses sought.

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Vendor: Palo Alto Networks
Exam Code: PCNSA
Exam Name: Palo Alto Networks Certified Network Security Administrator
Certification: Palo Alto Certifications and Accreditations
Total Questions: 129 Q&A
Exam Language: English

Palo Alto Networks PCNSA Exam process and Exam Path

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You cannot get up and walk around
No one can enter your testing environment
You cannot leave your testing environment
A beverage in any container is allowed, but no food or smoking
You cannot move your webcam once your testing session has started
Mumbling or speaking out loud will lead to a warning

BEFORE EXAM DAY

Perform a system test
Make sure to do the required system test and exam simulation before exam day.*

Find your testing space
Find a quiet, distraction-free area in your home or office to take your exam.

Get your ID ready
Your ID must be valid and up to date. Does your program have specific ID policies?

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QUESTION 1
The CFO found a USB drive in the parking lot and decide to plug it into their corporate laptop. The USB drive had
malware on it that loaded onto their computer and then contacted a known command and control (CnC) server, which
ordered the infected machine to begin Exfiltrating data from the laptop.
A. Create an anti-spyware profile and enable DNS Sinkhole
B. Create an antivirus profile and enable DNS Sinkhole
C. Create a URL filtering profile and block the DNS Sinkhole category
D. Create a security policy and enable DNS Sinkhole
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.paloaltonetworks.com/pan-os/7-1/pan-os-web-interface-help/objects/objects-security-profilesanti-spyware-profile

QUESTION 2
Which file is used to save the running configuration with a Palo Alto Networks firewall?
A. running-config.xml
B. run-config.xml
C. running-configuration.xml
D. run-configuratin.xml
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which option shows the attributes that are selectable when setting up application filters?
A. Category, Subcategory, Technology, and Characteristic
B. Category, Subcategory, Technology, Risk, and Characteristic
C. Name, Category, Technology, Risk, and Characteristic
D. Category, Subcategory, Risk, Standard Ports, and Technology
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.paloaltonetworks.com/pan-os/7-1/pan-os-web-interface-help/objects/objects-application-filters

QUESTION 4
Which action related to App-ID updates will enable a security administrator to view the existing security policy rule that
matches new application signatures?
A. Review Policies
B. Review Apps
C. Pre-analyze
D. Review App Matches
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.paloaltonetworks.com/pan-os/9-0/pan-os-admin/app-id/manage-new-app-ids-introduced-incontent-releases/review-new-app-id-impact-on-existing-policy-rules

QUESTION 5
For the firewall to use Active Directory to authenticate users, which Server Profile is required in the Authentication
Profile?
A. TACACS+
B. RADIUS
C. LDAP
D. SAML
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.paloaltonetworks.com/pan-os/8-1/pan-os-admin/authentication/configure-an-authenticationprofile-and-sequence

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Vendor: ITIL
Exam Code: ITILFND
Exam Name: ITIL V4 Foundation
Certification: ITIL Certification
Total Questions: 281 Q&A
Exam Language: English

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QUESTION 1
Which document shows a detailed analysis of business impact and benefits?
A. A return on investment
B. Service level requirements
C. A business case
D. A service level agreement
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using public frameworks and standards?
A. Knowledge of public frameworks is more likely to be widely distributed
B. They are always free ensuring they can be implemented quickly
C. They are validated across a wide range of environments making them more robust
D. They make collaboration between organizations easier by giving a common language
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
The multi-level SLA\\’ is a three-layer structure. Which one of the following layers is NOT part of this type of SLA?
A. Customer level
B. Service level
C. Corporate level
D. Configuration level
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
What is defined as a cause, or potential cause, of one or more incidents?
A. Change
B. Event
C. Known error
D. Problem
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
When is it confirmed if a project\\’s objectives have been achieved?
A. During the Closing a Project process
B. During the final end stage assessment
C. During the Controlling a Stage process
D. During the Managing Product Delivery process
Correct Answer: A

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May 6, 2021 | admin | Certified Internal Auditor - Part 1, The Internal Audit Activity's Role in Governance, Risk, and Control, IIA, IIA Certified Internal, IIA-CIA-PART1 dumps, IIA-CIA-PART1 exam prep, IIA-CIA-PART1 exam tips | Tags: IIA-CIA-PART1 coupon code, IIA-CIA-PART1 dumps, IIA-CIA-PART1 exam prep, IIA-CIA-PART1 practice test

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Vendor: IIA
Exam Code: IIA-CIA-PART1
Exam Name: Certified Internal Auditor – Part 1, The Internal Audit Activity’s Role in Governance, Risk, and Control
Certification: Certified Internal
Total Questions: 566 Q&A
Exam Language: English

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QUESTION 1
The first stage in the development of a crisis management program is to:
A. Formulate contingency plans.
B. Conduct a risk analysis.
C. Create a crisis management team.
D. Practice the response to a crisis.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
An internal auditor is assessing the risk of employees falsifying reimbursement requests for business- related meals or
travel. Which of the following procedures would the internal auditor most likely perform first?
A. Review the supplemental documentation provided for a sample of reimbursement requests.
B. Interview the payroll/accounting supervisor to determine what controls exist to prevent fraud.
C. Determine whether or not the payroll/accounting department has been subject to regular review.
D. Establish a flowchart of the payroll/accounting functions that include any controls currently in place.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Management has asked the chief audit executive (CAE) to provide assurance on the organization\\’s automated control
system related to financial data. The current audit staff does not have the expertise needed to conduct this type of
engagement. Which of the following would be the best response by the CAE?
A. Accept the assignment and use control self-assessment to complete the project.
B. Do not accept the assignment because the internal audit activity lacks the competency to perform the engagement
with due professional care.
C. Accept the assignment and use an external provider with the necessary knowledge and skills to perform the
engagement.
D. Accept the assignment if the engagement is included in the current audit plan, but inform senior management that the
current audit staff does not have the knowledge and skills required.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
According to the International Professional Practices Framework, internal auditors should possess which of the following
competencies?
I. Proficiency in applying internal auditing standards, procedures, and techniques.
II. Proficiency in accounting principles and techniques.
III. An understanding of management principles.
IV.
An understanding of the fundamentals of economics, commercial law, taxation, finance, and quantitative methods.
A.
I only
B.
II only
C.
I and III only
D.
I, III, and IV only
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
When reviewing management reports to the board of directors, the internal audit activity should:
A. Evaluate the process used to prepare the management reports.
B. Maintain supporting documentation for the management reports.
C. Tie all financial numbers in the reports to the general ledger.
D. Compare to prior-period reports for consistency.
Correct Answer: A

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