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The Best Cisco Proctored Exams for Validating Knowledge 700-505 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (Q1-Q30)

QUESTION 1
Which option is an online conferencing solution that allows participants to see; hear and share content and applications in real time?
A. Cisco Unity
B. Cisco ISR with Conferencing service module
C. Borderless Networks
D. WebEx meetings
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which two Cisco ISR series are needed to support a Cisco Services-Ready Engine to deploy services on demand? (Choose two.)
A. 3900 Series
B. 2900 Series
C. 2800 Series
D. 800 Series
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
Which three business challenges do customers face that are addressed by Cisco architectural solutions? (Choose three.)
A. Guarantee reliability.
B. Improve workforce productivity.
C. Hire more staff.
D. Increase cash flow.
E. Deliver first-class offerings and experience to their clients.
F. Reduce total cost of ownership while maximizing the contribution of IT.
Correct Answer: BEF

QUESTION 4
Your customer is considering migrating to a Cisco Borderless Routing solution from their current vendor.
Which best practice can close the sale?
A. Show the customer a Cisco television commercial
B. Go through a check list and compare the performance capabilities between Cisco and the othervendor.
C. Mention that promotions and incentives are available through Cisco.
D. Demonstrate how the Cisco solution saves money by consolidating devices and integrating management.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which two product portfolios help make up the Cisco Office in a Box solution? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 3048
B. Cisco UCS C-Series Servers
C. Cisco UCS E-Series Servers
D. Cisco ISR 2900 and 3900 Series
E. Cisco Nexus 5000
F. Cisco ISR 1900, 2900 and 3900 Series
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 6
Which three options are considered common features of Cisco WebEx solutions? (Choose three.)
A. Document, application, and desktop sharing
B. Available in 226 languages
C. Scheduled and ad-hoc meetings
D. Consistent, cross-platform experience
E. Third-party voice included
F. Per-user attention status indicator
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 7
Which statement about the Cisco Meraki cloud architecture is true?
A. Devices are configured in the cloud on first use and then managed locally after they are set up.
B. All Meraki devices are managed locally by default.
C. Management data flows to the Cisco Meraki cloud and user traffic flows directly to its destination on the LAN or across the WAN.
D. All data flows through the Cisco Meraki cloud.
Correct Answer: CExplanation

QUESTION 8
Which two customer benefits can be realized with Cisco Unified Data Center? (Choose two.)
A. 50 percent faster disaster recovery
B. 50 percent less time in application deployment
C. 15 percent faster in application performance, 40 percent less in infrastructure costs
D. 60 percent less cost for cooling and power
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 9
Which two benefits will customers achieve if they upgrade to a properly configured Cisco Borderless Network? 700-505 dumps (Choose two.)
A. New application and service deployment is completely automated.
B. Network availability increases and downtime decreases
C. Security becomes less difficult to achieve
D. All potential failures will be eliminated.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 10
Which three options are business benefits of increased reliability? (Choose three.)
A. validates business decisions
B. protects revenue streams
C. reduces maintenance and network operation costs
D. increases business resilience
E. enhances career paths
F. promotes independence
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 11
Which two customer characteristics indicate an opportunity for Cisco Meraki cloud-managed networks? (Choose two.)
A. having networking experts on site
B. requiring a high degree of flexibility and customization
C. implementing data center or large campus deployments
D. having distributed sites and lean IT staff
E. moving applications to the cloud
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 12
Which resource should you use when you need to obtain current information about incentive programs and promotions?
A. Web search
B. Cisco Partner Central web site
C. 1-877-GO-CISCO
D. Your local Cisco sales engineer
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which three options are benefits to the partner in the Cisco Partner Program? (Choose three.)
A. drives growth and profitability
B. results in more individual Cisco career certifications (that is, CCNA, CCNP)
C. differentiates your business
D. provides access to promotions and incentives
E. partners receive free gear when they achieve certification
F. partner program enrollment increases
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 14
Which Cisco service is targeted for customers that want proactive monitoring?
A. SMARTnet
B. Small Business Support Service
C. SmartCare
D. Collaborative Professional Services
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Which statement about TrustSec is true?
A. It monitors all the devices on the network, and turns them off when they are not needed.
B. It provides a policy-based, scalable platform that offers integrated posture, profiling, and guest services to make context-aware access control decisions.
C. It provides secure rich-media and collaboration services to optimize real-time voice and video applications.
D. It provides defense against denial of service attacks.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which two options are benefits of the Cisco ASA 5500-X Series over the Cisco ASA 5500 Series? (Choose two.)
A. The Cisco IPS does not require an additional hardware module.
B. Cisco IPS throughput up to 650 Mb/s is provided.
C. The Cisco Content Security does not require an additional hardware module.
D. Firewall throughput up to 12 Gb/s is provided.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 17
Which two options are Cisco Telepresence multipurpose endpoint solutions for small and midsize business? (Choose two.)
A. Third-party videoconferencing endpoint
B. Cisco MX200
C. Cisco VCS
D. Cisco Profile 42
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 18
A customer wants to deploy a solution that requires high-quality video for full multimedia applications.
Which two Cisco Unified Communication endpoint solutions should you recommend? (Choose two.)
A. 8900 Series
B. 9900 Series
C. 3900 Series
D. 5900 Series
E. 6900 Series
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 19
Which three statements about the Cisco ISR G2 security solutions are true? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco ISR G2 security should only be deployed after a customer has rejected deploying Cisco ASA security.
B. Web Security Connected is delivered as a service module.
C. Software upgrades and reboots are needed to install security licenses.
D. Web Security Connected integrates with the Cisco ASA firewalls and the Cisco AnyConnect secure mobility client.
E. Cisco IPS network module can be added to the Cisco 2900 and 3900 Series routers.
F. Software licenses for security services include; IPsec/SSL VPN, Firewall, IPS.
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 20
Which statement about Cisco CleanAir technology is true?
A. It features chip-level proactive and automatic electronic beamforming.
B. It features automatic advanced radio frequency shaping.
C. It features chip-level proactive and automatic interference mitigation.
D. It is a feature of the Cisco Aironet 1600 Series AP 26
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
Which two product portfolios help make up the FlexPod Express solution? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco UCS C-Series Server
B. Cisco ISR 2900 and 3900 Series
C. Cisco Nexus 3048 Switch
D. Cisco UCS E-Series Servers
E. Cisco ISR 1900, 2900, and 3900 Series
F. Cisco Nexus 5000
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 22
Which Cisco Partner Sales Tool provides a single searchable location for sales guidance and technical details to help differentiate Cisco solutions from the competition?
A. Cisco Commerce Workspace
B. Competitive Portal
C. Quick Product Reference Guide
D. Cisco Discovery Service
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
Which three switching technology components distinguish Cisco from competing products? (Choose three.)
A. RSTP8021w
B. Universal PoE
C. medianet
D. Flexible NetFlow
E. Multiprotocol Label Switching
F. Gigabit Ethernet
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 24
Which four customer needs do Cisco architectures help solve? 700-505 dumps (Choose four.)
A. eliminate redundancy
B. guarantee business outcomes
C. increase ROID. reduce independence
E. provide reliability
F. slow staff growth
G. lower costs
H. boost productivity
Correct Answer: CEGH

QUESTION 25
In which two ways can Cisco solutions help resolve customer business challenges? (Choose two.)
A. by supporting BYOD and increased mobility
B. by providing a multisystem infrastructure that must be monitored and maintained by the IT staff
C. by providing improved collaboration and communication tools
D. by providing a complex borderless solution
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 26
Which three options are opportunities for partners to introduce Cisco Meraki products to existing or prospective customers? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Meraki roadshow
B. Webinars with a free AP for qualified attendees IE
C. Cisco Meraki equipment rental program
D. Free mobile device management with Systems Manager
E. Free product trials
F. Free Cisco Meraki refurbished equipment
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 27
Which four product categories have Cisco Meraki cloud-managed offerings? (Choose four.)
A. IP telephones
B. Cisco Telepresence
C. Mobile device management
D. Switches
E. Security appliances
F. Servers
G. Storage
H. Wireless access points
Correct Answer: CDEH

QUESTION 28
Which statement about the Threat Operations Center is true?
A. It provides insight into threat trends and outlook
B. It provides 24×7 coverage in three centers.
C. It provides business hours global coverage
D. It provides only automatic rule creation and quality control.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
Which three options are customer benefits of implementing a Cisco Borderless switching solution? (Choose three.)
A. Spanning Tree
B. Smart Install
C. AutoSmartPorts
D. Smart CallHome
E. Solar-powered
F. Uninterruptable power
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 30
Which two options are advantages of Cisco Data Center solutions over the competition? (Choose two.)
A. end-to-end optimization
B. seamless installation
C. scalability without complexity
D. embedded self service
Correct Answer: CD

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The Best Cisco APE 648-232 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (Q1-Q30)

QUESTION 1
Which two platforms are the first to be combined to make up the WebEx Meetings shared SaaS platform?
A. Cisco TelePresence Callway and WebEx Connect
B. Connect and WebEx
C. Quad and Cisco TelePresence Callway
D. WebEx Quad
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What is the maximum capacity of participants for a Cisco WebEx Meeting Center and Training Center meeting?
A. 250
B. 300
C. 400
D. 500
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Your primary site becomes unavailable. Which one of these features enables you to automatically and transparently move all collaboration activity to the backup site, ensuring a seamless user experience?
A. medianet
B. GSB
C. WebEx One-Click
D. GDM
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
With regard to conference node redundancy, if a region requires 2400 G.711 ports, then how many nodes should it include?
A. Two nodes, each with a capacity of 1200 G.711 ports
B. Three nodes, each with a capacity of 1200 G.711 ports
C. One node with a capacity of 2400 G.711 ports
D. One node with a capacity of 1200 G.711 ports
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which two of these factors should be considered when determining the size of a conference system? (Choose two.)
A. future growth
B. service levels
C. location of participants
D. CapEx
E. node capacity
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 6
Which feature in Cisco WebEx Meeting Center allows you to collaboratively brainstorm ideas and take notes?
A. integrated audio and VoIP
B. whiteboard
C. Network-Based Recording
D. WebEx One-Click
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which three host capabilities are available on WebEx for iPad? (Choose three.)
A. schedule, start, or cancel a meeting
B. invite attendees
C. pass presenter control
D. stream media from a PC
E. chat privately with attendees
F. run WebEx in the background
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 8
Which new WebEx feature allows for the main video to switch automatically to the present speaker, using voice activation?
A. Cisco TelePresence
B. Cisco ActivePresence
C. multipoint video
D. WebEx One-Click
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
One of the challenges of online training is measuring class effectiveness. Which two tools does Cisco WebEx Training Center use to measure this? 648-232 dumps (Choose two.)
A. visual attention indicator
B. polling
C. self-check quizzes
D. application sharing
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 10
You are late for a meeting and you missed the first half of the conversation. Which feature allows you to never miss the contents of a meeting?
A. Cisco ActivePresence
B. Network-Based Recording
C. hands-on labs
D. breakout sessions
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
What does the global attentiveness meter monitor?
A. if the attendee has the correct audio equipment
B. whether or not attendees are using external applications during the event
C. pre- and post-event reporting
D. event success
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which two of these statements best describe the benefits of the immersive customer service experiences that are offered by WebEx Support Center? (Choose two.)
A. Customer service representatives can provide more personalized service.
B. Customers can interact with the customer service representative from a mobile device.
C. Customer service representatives can increase the time spent with customers.
D. Customers can instantly view information that the customer service representative is sharing.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 13
What is the number one customer complaint surveyed by technical support organizations?
A. cost of service
B. time that it takes to resolve issue
C. lack of resolution
D. time that it takes to reach a service representative
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
What are the three ways that the WebEx Support Center improves key performance metrics for a business? (Choose three.)
A. increases first-call resolution percentage
B. lengthens average call handling time
C. drives in-person sales
D. shortens average wait time
E. improves customer satisfaction rating
F. increases time to resolution
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 15
What is the difference between HQ and HD video?
A. HQ video is 360p, while HD video is 720p or higher.
B. The terms are interchangeable.
C. HQ video is 720p, while HD video is 1080p or higher.
D. HQ video is 360p, while HD video is 1080p or higher.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Which one of these groups uses a specific transport protocol, such as RSVP, for signaling the metadata attributes and storing the information in the database?
A. consumers
B. producers
C. solution components
D. meeting clients
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
In which category does the Domain setting appear in the WebEx Administration Tool?
A. Customization
B. Enterprise Edition
C. Configuration
D. System Settings
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
What are trusted domains external to WebEx Connect?
A. whitelist domains
B. CSV files
C. blacklist domains
D. XMPP domains
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Which task cannot be done by the site administrator, but must be done by opening a request with the WebEx support team?
A. Update user accounts.
B. Deactivate user accounts.
C. Delete users.
D. Add users.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Why should policy groups be avoided when creating policies?
A. Policy groups are not supported.
B. There are possible performance impacts if not used correctly.
C. Policy groups keep the majority of users assigned to the top level group.
D. There is a limit to the number of users in a policy group.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
What should be enabled so that users do not have to enter their username and password?
A. SAML
B. IDP
C. Kerberos
D. Integrated Windows Authentication
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
If an Active Directory Federation Services customer chooses to enable IWA, what will WebEx Federated SSO use to take the Windows login from the PC directly, so that end users do not need to sign in at all?
A. WebEx One-Click
B. Kerberos integration method
C. SAML
D. IDM
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
Which group of administrative reports includes usage reports for Training Center, Support Center, and Event Center?
A. common usage reports
B. IM reports
C. Enterprise Edition reports
D. IM activity reports
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
Which issue should be escalated to Cisco Technical Support?
A. forgetting your login password
B. installing your WebEx client
C. troubleshooting UI configuration issues
D. new account request
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
648-232 dumps What should customers do to make a branding request?
A. Go into their account and fill out the specifications.
B. Call the WebEx support team.
C. Submit a support ticket.
D. Send the WebEx account manager an email message.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
How will the branding be displayed if you join a meeting on another company site?
A. It will show in text format only.
B. Branding will not be shown.
C. It will be shown by using two-level branding.
D. It will be shown using default settings.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
The WebEx event window has six principal interface areas. Drag and drop the area on the left to its function on the right.
Select and Place:

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 28
With encrypted audio conferencing, you can configure three different secure conferencing nodes. Drag the node on the left to its description on the right.
Select and Place:

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 29
Drag the implementation process on the left with its task on the right.
Select and Place:

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 30
Which description matches the steps involved in escalating WebEx issues? Drag the step on the left to its description on the right.
Select and Place:

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

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High Quality Microsoft MCSA Windows Server 2016 70-740 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q20)

QUESTION 1
HOTSPOT
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016 server.
Server1 has the Docker daemon configured and has a container named Container1.
You need to mount the folder C:\Folder1 on Server1 to C:\ContainerFolder in Container1.
Which command should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
You have a physical server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016 Server1 is a Hyper-V host.
On Server1, you create a virtual machine named VM1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
You plan to install the Hyper-V server role on VM1.
You need to ensure that you can configure VM1 to host virtual machines.
How should you complete the Windows PowerShell script? To answer, drag the appropriate values to the correct targets. Each value may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 3
HOTSPOT
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series. 70-740 dumps
A company named Contoso, Ltd. has several servers that run Windows Server 2016.
Contoso has a Hyper-V environment that uses failover clustering and Windows Server Update Services (WSUS). The environment contains several Windows containers and several virtual machines.
The WSUS deployment contains one upstream server that is located on the company’s perimeter network and several downstream servers located on the internal network. A firewall separates the upstream server from the downstream servers.
You plan to deploy a human resources application to a new server named HRServer5.
HRServer5 contains a FAT32-formatted data volume.
The CIO of Contoso identifies the following requirements for the company’s IT department:
– Deploy a failover cluster to two new virtual machines.
– Store all application databases by using Encrypted File System (EFS).
– Ensure that each Windows container has a dedicated IP address assigned by a DHCP server.
– Produce a report that lists the processor time used by all of the processes on a server named Server1 for five hours.
– Encrypt all communication between the internal network and the perimeter network, including all WSUS communications.
– Automatically load balance the virtual machines hosted in the Hyper-V cluster when processor utilization exceeds 70 percent.
You need to create a Data Collector Set to meet the requirement for the processor time report.
What command should you run to create the Data Collector Set? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 4
HOTSPOT
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016 Server1 has the Windows Application proxy role service installed.
You plan to deploy Remote Desktop Gateway (RD Gateway) services. Clients will connect to the RD Gateway services by using various types of devices including Windows, iOS and Android devices.
You need to publish the RD Gateway services through the Web Application Proxy.
Which command should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 5
HOTSPOT
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016 Server1 has the Web Application Proxy role service installed.
You publish an application named App1 by using the Web Application Proxy.
You need to change the URL that users use to connect to App1 when they work remotely.
Which command should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso com The domain contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016.
Server1 has IP Address Management (IPAM) installed Server2 has Microsoft System Center 2016 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) installed.
You need to integrate IPAM and VMM.
Which types of objects should you create on each server? To answer, drag the appropriate object types to the correct servers Each object type may be used once, more than once, or not at all You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 7
HOTSPOT
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com The domain contains a domain controller named Server1 and a member server named Server2.
Server1 has the DNS Server role installed Server2 has IP Address Management lPAM installed The IPAM server retrieves zones from Server1 as shown in the following table.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 8
HOTSPOT
You have a server named Served that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has the Windows Application Proxy role service installed. You are publishing an application named.
App1 that will use Integrated Windows authentication as shown in the following graphic.

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 9
HOTSPOT
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso com. The domain contains a DNS server named Server1.
You enable Response Rate Limiting on Server1.
You need to prevent Response Rate Limiting from applying to hosts that reside on the network of 10.0.0.0/24.
Which cmdlets should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 10
HOTSPOT
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016 Server1 is a Hyper-V host.
You have two network adapter cards on Server1 that are Remote Direct Memory Access (RDMA) -capable.
You need to aggregate the bandwidth of the network adapter cards for a virtual machine on Server1. 70-740 dumps
The solution must ensure that the virtual machine can use the RDMA capabilities of the network adapter cards.
Which command should you run first? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 11
HOTSPOT
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) farm.
You install Windows Server 2016 on a server named Server2.
You need to configure Server2 as a node in the federation server farm.
Which cmdlets should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 12
DRAG DROP
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The functional level of the forest and the domain is Windows Server 2008 R2. All servers in the domain.
Run Windows Server 2016 Standard. The domain contains 300 client computers that run either Windows 8.1 or Windows 10.
The domain contains nine servers that are configured as shown in the following table.

The virtual machines are configured as follows:
– Each virtual machine has one virtual network adapter.
– VM1 and VM2 are part of a Network Load Balancing (NLB) cluster.
– All of the servers on the network can communicate with all of the virtual machines.
You need to install the correct edition of Windows Server 2016 to support the planned changes for Server2, Server3, Server4, and Server5.
Which edition or editions should you choose for each server? To answer, drag the appropriate editions to the correct servers. Each edition may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 13
HOTSPOT
Your network contains an Active Directory forest The forest contains one domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two domain controllers named DC1 and DC2. DC1 holds all of the operations master roles.
During normal network operations, you run the following commands on DC2:
Move-ADDirectoryServerOperationMasterRole -Identity “DC2” -OperationMasterRole PDCEmulator.
Move-ADDirectoryServerOperationMasterRole -Identity “DC2” -OperationMasterRole’RIDMaster DC1 fails.
You remove DC1 from the network, and then you run the following command:
Move-ADDirectoryServerOperationMasterRole -Identity “DC2” -OperationMasterRole SchemaMaster.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 14
HOTSPOT
You have a Windows Server 2016 failover cluster that has a cluster network named ClusterNetwork1.
You need to ensure that ClusterNetwork1 is enabled for cluster communication only. 70-740 dumps
What command should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 15
HOTSPOT
You plan to deploy three servers named Server1, Server2, and Server3 that will run Windows Server 2016. The servers will have the following disk configurations:
– Server1 will have a C: drive of 2 TB.
– Server2 will have two disks. The C: drive will be 2 TB. The D: drive will be 1TB. D: must support file system-based compression.
– Server3 will have two disks. The C: drive will be 2 TB. The D: drive will be 1TB and must support file-system based quotas.
Which file system can you use for each drive? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 16
HOTSPOT
You have four servers named Server1, Server2, Server3, and Server4 that run Windows Server 2016.
Server1 and Server2 are nodes in a failover cluster named FC1. Server3 and Server4 are nodes in a failover cluster named FC2.
You add the cluster roles show in the following table.

You add a file share named Share1 to FS1. You add a file share named Share2 to FS2.
Which UNC paths can you use to access each share? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 17
DRAG DROP
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
On Server1, you create a Nano Server image named Disk1.vhdx.
You need to start Server1 by using Disk1.vhdx.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 18
DRAG DROP
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
Server1 allows inbound connectivity from all computers in the contoso.com domain.
Server1 has an IP address of 192.168.0.10.
Server1 hosts a Windows container named Container1. Container1 hosts a website that is accessible on port 80.
You need to ensure that you can use the Docker(?) client to manage Container1 from any computer in the domain.
Which four cmdlets should you run in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate cmdlets from the list of cmdlets to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 19
HOTSPOT
You have a four-node Hyper-V cluster named Cluster1.
A virtual machine named VM1 runs on Cluster1. VM1 has a network adapter that connects to a virtual switch named Network1.
You need to prevent a network disconnection on VM1 from causing VM1 to move to another cluster node.
What command should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 20
DRAG DROP
You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 hosts a virtual machine named VM1. VM1 runs Windows Server 2016. VM1 uses a VHD for storage.
The disk configuration of VM1 is shown in the exhibit.

You need to increase the size of volume D to 400 GB.
Which cmdlets should you run on Server1 and VM1? To answer, drag the appropriate cmdlets to the correct servers. Each cmdlet may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

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The Best Cisco CCDP 300-101 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (Q13-Q40)

QUESTION 13
Which command denies the default route?
A. ip prefix-list deny-route seq 5 deny 0.0.0.0/32
B. ip prefix-list deny-route seq 5 deny 0.0.0.0/8
C. ip prefix-list deny-route seq 5 deny 0 0 0.0/0
D. ip prefix-list deny-route seq 5 deny 0.0.0.0/16
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14

Base on the output, which option is the next hop to get to the 130.0.1.0/24 network?
A. 10.30.30.1
B. 10.0.11.1
C. 10.20.20.1
D. 10.10.10.1
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which feature can mitigate fragmentation issues within network segments that are between GRE endpoints?
A. PMTU
B. ICMP DF bit
C. TCP Flow Control
D. TCP MSS
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16

The excerpt was taken from the routing table of router SATX. Which option ensures that routes from 51.51.51.1 are preferred over routes from 52.52.52.2?
A. SATX(config-router)#distance 90 51.51.51.10.0.0.0
B. SATX(config-router)#distance 89.52.52.52.2 0.0.0.0
C. SATX(config-router)#distance 90.52.52.52.2 0.0.0.0
D. SATX(config-router)#administrative distance 91 51.51.510.0.0.0
E. SATX(config-router)#distance 89 51.51.51.10.0.0.0
F. SATX(config-router)#administrative distance 91 52.52.52.2 0.0.0.0
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which Cisco Express Forwarding table or tables hold forwarding information?
A. FIB table only
B. adjacency tables only
C. FIB and adjacency tables only
D. FIB,RIB, and adjacency tables
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
router eigrp 65535
no auto-summary
network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255
router ospf 1
network 192.168.5.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
passive-interface loopback0
redistribute eigrp 65535
If this configuration is applied to a device that redistributes EIGRP routes into OSPF. Which two statements about the behavior of the device are true? (Choose two)
A. EIGRP routes appears in the routing table as E2 OSPF routes
B. The device router ID is set to Loopback0 automatically
C. The device redistributes all EIGRP networks into OSPF
D. EIGRP routes appears in the routing table as N2 OSPF routes
E. The device redistributes only classful EIGRP networks into OSPF.
F. EIGRP routes appears as type 3 LSAs in the OSPF database.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 19

A network engineer has configured NTP on a Cisco router, but the time on the router is still incorrect.
What is the reason for this problem?
A. The router is not syncing with the peer, even though the NTP request and response packets are being exchanged.
B. The router is not syncing with peer, and the NTP request and response packets are not being exchanged.
C. The router is syncing with the peer, and the NTP request and response packets are being exchanged.
D. The router is dropping all NTP packets.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which two technologies can encapsulate an IPv6 payload in an IPv4 packet for transmission across a network? (Choose two)
A. L2TPv3
B. trunking
C. AToM
D. ISATAP
E. NAT-PT
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 21
300-101 dumps Which command do you enter to filter only routing updates that are sent through interface GigabitEthemet0/0?
A. R1(config-if)#passive-interface GigabitEthemet0/0
B. R1(config-router)#no passive-interface GigabitHthemet0/0
C. R1config-router)#passrve-interface GigabitEthemet0/0
D. R1(conffg-router)passive-interface default
E. R1(config-if)#passive-interface default
F. R1(config-router)#distribute-list 1 GigabitEthemet0/0 out
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22

A network engineer is unable to make VRF lite EIGRP adjacency work.There is nothing wrong with communication between R1 and R2. What command will eliminate the issue when executed on both routes?
A. (config-router-if)autonomous-system 100
B. (config)#ip-multicast-routing
C. (config-vrf)#route-target both 100:1
D. (config-router-af)#network 209.165.202.128 0.0.0.31
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
What does the number 16 in the following command represent?
Router(config)#snmp-server user abed public v2c access 16
A. the mask of the files that are allowed to use community string public
B. the standard named access list 16, which contains the access rules that apply to user abed.
C. the number of concurrent users who are allowed to query the SNMP community
D. the user ID that is allowed to use the community string public
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
Which value does a point-to-point GRE tjunnel use to identify a peer?
A. MAC address
B. configured multicast address.
C. DLCI
D. IP address
E. VC ID
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
Which two statements about uRPF are true? (Choose two)
A. The Keyword any can be used with both strict mode and loose mode
B. Strict mode may drop legitimate traffic.
C. tt is enabled globally.
D. Strict mode is most appropriate for networks with asymmetric routing.
E. Loose mode may drop traffic when asymmetric routing occurs on the network
F. It is enabled on a per interface basis.
Correct Answer: BF

QUESTION 26
A network engineer is configuring a DHCP server to support a specialized application. Which additional DHCP feature must be enabled to support the delivery of various additional parameters to DHCP clients?
A. modules
B. vendor extensions
C. options
D. Scopes
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
In SNMP v3, which security level provides encryption of the data?
A. authMember
B. noAuthNoPriv
C. authNoPriv
D. authPriv
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Which three functionalities are specific to stateful NAT64? (Choose Three)
A. It requires IPv4-transalable IPv6 address
B. It requires either manual or DHCPv6 based address assignment for IPv6 host.
C. It helps ensure end-to-end address transparency and scalability
D. A state or bindings are created on every unique translation
E. it conserves IPV4 addresses
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 29
Which two options are components of a dual stack?(choose two)
A. EIGRP
B. OSPF
C. IPV6 traffic
D. IPv4 traffic
E. layer 3 switch
F. layer 2 switch
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 30
Which technology uses the many-to-one method of mapping IP addresses?
A. static NAT
B. dynamic NAT
C. NAT-PT
D. PAT
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 31
Which three statements about IPv6 EIGRP are true? 300-101 dumps (Choose Three)
A. EIGRP neighbor relationships are formed using the link-local address
B. EIGRP neighbor relationships can be formed only on the configured IPv6 address.
C. It supports ELM-64 addresses only.
D. EIGRP route advertisement is configured under the interface configuration
E. An IPv6 EIGRP router ID is required.
F. EIGRP route advertisement is configured under the ipv6 router eigrp configuration
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 32

A network engineer is working on the network topology and executes the command no ip split- horizon on interface S0/0 of the hum router. What is the result of this command?
A. A routing loop is created.
B. Each of the spoke routers can see the routes that are advertised from the other spoke routers
C. The Spoke routers can see the routes that are advertised by the hub router
D. The hub router can see the routes that are advertised by the spoke routers
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 33

All interfaces on each router are participating in the EIGRP 100 process. Interface Loopback 2 on HQR2 is currently in shutdown mode. An engineer issues the eigrp stub command on router BR1.
Which statements about the query messages sent from router HQ-R2 for a route to reach the 12.12.12.12/32 network is true?
A. Router HQ-R2 sends a query message to the feasible successor for a route to 12.12.12.12/32 network.
B. BR1 receives query messages from HQ-R2 for a route to 12.12.12.12/32 network
C. Router HQ-R1 receives query messages from HQ-R2 for a route to 12.12.12.12/32 network.
D. Router HQ-R1 and BR1 receives query messages from HQ-R2 for a route to 12.12.12/32 network.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 34
Which set of actions does a network engineer perform to set the IPv6 address of a DHCP relay server at the VLAN interface level?
A. Enter the VLAN interface configuration mode and define the IPv6 address of a DHCP relay server
B. Enter the global configuration mode and enable the IPv6 DHCP relay
C. Enter the global configuration mode, enable IPv6 DHCP relay from interface configuration mode and define the IPv6 address of a DHCP relay server
D. Enter the VLAN interface configuration mode, enable IPv6 DHCP relay, and define the IPv6 address of a DHCP relay server
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 35
which two types of authentication dose EIGRP offer ?(choose two)
A. TKIP
B. MD5
C. WPA
D. Plain text
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 36
Refer to the following
Logging Console7
Which option is one of the effects entering this command on a Cisco IOS router, with no additional logging configuration?
A. Debug messages can be seen on the console by enabling “terminal monitor.”
B. Debug messages are logged only on active console connections.
C. A user that is connected via SSH sees level 7 messages
D. The router can experience high CPU utilization
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 37
Which two options can you use to configure an EIGRP stub router? (Choose two)
A. summary-only
B. receive-only
C. external
D. summary
E. totally-stubby
F. not-so-stubby
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 38
After configuring the routes, the network engineer executes the show ip route command. What is the expected results?
A. Gateway of last resort is 10.0.2.1 to network 0.0.0.0 10.0.0.0/24 is subnetted, 2 subnets C 10.0.2.0is directly connected, FastEthernetO/O 10.0.1.0 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/l S”0.0.0.0/0[1/0] via 10.0.2.1(1/0] via 10.0.1.1
Router#
B. Gateway of last resort is 10 0.2 1 to network 0 0 00 10 0.0 0/24 is subnetted, 1 subnet C 10.0.2 isdirectly connected, FastEthernetO/O S 0.0.0 0/0 [1/0] via 10.0.2.1
Router#
C. Gateway of last report is not set
Router #
D. Gateway of test resort is 10.0.1.1 to network 0.0.0.0 10.0.0.0/24 is subnetted 1 subnet C 10.0.1.0 is directly connected FastEthernetO/1 S” 0.0.0?/0 [1/0] via 10.0.1.1
Router#
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 39
Which two statements about NTP stratum are true? 300-101 dumps (Choose two )
A. Stratum 15 indicates a device that is not synchronized
B. Stratum 1 devices receive their time from a peer that is connected directly to an authoritative time source.
C. The highest stratum level a synchronized device can have is 16
D. Stratum 2 devices receive their time from a peer that is connected directly to an authoritative time source
E. Stratum 0 devices are connected directly to an authoritative time source
F. Stratum 1 devices are connected directly to an authoritative time source
Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 40
Which technology dose Easy virtual network use?
A. MP-BGP
B. DMVPN
C. MPLS
D. VRF-Lite
Correct Answer: D

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The Best Cisco CCNP Collaboration 300-075 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (Q11-Q30)

QUESTION 11
When device mobility mode is enabled or disabled for a cluster, to which does the cluster setting apply?
A. all phones in the cluster that support device mobility
B. all phones in the cluster that subscribed to device mobility
C. mobile phones in the cluster that support device mobility
D. mobile phones in the cluster that are in default mode
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.

To stream multicast MOH to the remote site across the WAN, what should the minimum value for the Max Hops be configured as?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
The Max Hops field in the Music On Hold (MOH) Server Configuration window indicates the maximum number of routers that an audio source is allowed to cross. If max hops is set to zero, the audio source must remain in its own subnet. If max hops is set to one, the audio source can cross up to one router to the next subnet. Cisco recommends setting max hops to two.

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.

The HQ site uses area code 650. The BR1 site uses area code 408. The long distance national code for PSTN dialing is 1. To make a long distance national call, an HQ or BR1 user dials access code 9, followed by 1, and then the 10-digit number.
Both sites use MGCP gateways. AAR must use globalized call routing using a single route pattern. Assume that all outgoing PSTN numbers are localized at the egress gateway as shown in the exhibit.
How many route lists and route groups should be configured for AAR at a minimum?
A. a single route list with a local route group for each site
B. two route lists and two route groups for each site
C. a single route list and four route groups for each sitea
D. None. The AAR CSS can point directly to the route pattern.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit.

What must be configured on the HQ Cisco Unified Communications Manager to allow HQ users to dial the SAF learned directory number pattern 3XXX?
A. Route pattern 3XXX should be configured and made available to HQ users through the phone CSS.
B. Route pattern 3XXX should be configured and made available to HQ phone users through the phone AAR CSS.
C. The SAF partition assigned to the SAF learned patterns must be available to the HQ phone users through the phone CSS.
D. The SAF partition assigned to the SAF learned patterns must be available to the HQ phone users through the phone AAR CSS.
E. The SAF directory number pattern 3XXX will be made available to all users automatically as soon as the SAF partition is selected.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Incorrect answer: ABD
By adopting the SAF network service, the call control discovery feature allows Cisco Unified Communications Manager to advertise itself along with other key attributes.

QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit.

All HQ phones are configured to use HQ_MRGL and all BR phones are configured to use BR_MRGL. 300-075 dumps For the HQ phones always to use the hardware conference bridge as a first choice, which configuration should be implemented?
A. Ensure that both the hardware and software conference bridges are listed in the HQ_MRG. Ensure that the instance ID for the hardware conference bridge is 0.
B. Ensure that both the hardware and software conference bridges are listed in the HQ_MRG. The hardware conference bridge must be configured first.
C. Assign the hardware conference bridge to HQ_MRG. Configure a second HQ_MRG_2 and assign the software conference bridge to it. Add both the HQ_MRG and HQ_MRG_2 to the HQ_MRGL and list the HQ_MRG first.
D. Assign the hardware conference bridge to HQ_MRG. Configure a second HQ_MRG_2 and assign the software conference bridge to it. Configure an additional HQ_MRGL_2. Add the HQ_MRG to HQ_MRGL. Add HQ_MRG_2 to HQ_MRGL_2. The HQ_MRGL should be assigned to the HQ phones. The HQ_MRGL_2 should be assigned to the HQ device pool.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
To ensure that the hardware bridge is utilized first with all its resources BEFORE the software bridge is used … you need to have two separate MRG’s and list the hardware MRG 1st in the MRGL …

QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.

Which pattern will be advertised try the Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. 3XXX and the ToDID will be 0:.
B. 3XXX and the TnOID will be 0:44228822.
C. 3XXX and the ToDID will be 44228822.
D. 3XXX and the ToDID will be 0:+44228822.
E. 3XXX and the ToDID will be 0:+
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Incorrect answer: BCD
the number of digits that want stripped from the hosted DN if the call fails over to the PSTN.
Value can enter 0 and 16. Here 0 is defined.

QUESTION 17
Which task must you perform before deleting a transcoder?
A. Delete the dependency records.
B. Unassign it from a media resource group.
C. Use the Reset option.
D. Remove the device pool.
E. Remove the subunit.
F. Delete the common device configuration.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
What command is used to map internal extensions to the corresponding E.164 PSTN number when using Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express in SRST mode?
A. ephone-dn
B. dialplan-pattern
C. number
D. number-e.164
E. ephone-transnumber
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit.

The exhibit shows a SAF Forwarder configuration attached to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
Which minimum configuration for a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express SAF Forwarder is needed to establish a SAF neighbor relationship with this SAF Forwarder?
A. router eigrp SAF
i
service-family ipv4 autonomous-system 1
!
topology base
exit-sf-topology
exit-service-family
voice service saf
profile trunkroute 1
session protocol sip interface Loopback1 transport tcp port 5060 !
B. router eigrp SAF
!
service-family ipv4 autonomous-system 1
!
topology base
exit-sf-topology
exit- service-family
!
voice service saf
profile trunk-route 1
session protocol sip interface Loopback1 transport tcp port 5060 !
profile dn-block 1 alias-prefix 1972555
pattern 1 type extension 4xxx
!
profile callcontrol 1
dn-service
trunk-route 1
dn-block 1
dn-block 2
!
channel 1 vrouter SAF asystem 1
subscribe callcontrol wildcarded
publish callcontrol 1
!
C. router eigrp SAF
!
service-family ipv4 autonomous-system 1
!
topology base
exit-sf-topology
exit-service-family
!
D. None of above configurations contain sufficient information.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Incorrect answer: ABD
only following configuration is enough
router eigrp SAF
service-family ipv4 autonomous-system 1
exit-service-family

QUESTION 20
When multiple Cisco Extension Mobility profiles exist, which actions take place when a user tries to log in to Cisco Extension Mobility?
A. The login will fail because only a single Cisco Extension Mobility profile is allowed.
B. The user must select the desired profile.
C. The user must login to both profiles in the order they are presented.
D. The user may login to both profiles in any order.
E. Login will only be allowed to multiple profiles if the service parameter Allow Multiple Logins is enabled.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit.



When a call is placed from Phone 1 to Phone 2 and RSVP Agent 2 is not registered to Cisco Unified Communications Manager, what happens?
A. The caller hears a busy tone.
B. The call proceeds as normal since the location setting for the BR site is unlimited.
C. An RSPV call is attempted but fails. The call will fall back to local QoS.
D. the call fails.
E. The phone displays a message that advises the user that the call has been queued.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
Which configuration command disables the secondary dial tone on the branch office ISR for users calling from the PSTN into the branch office during a WAN failure? 300-075 dumps
A. direct-inward-dial
B. voice translation-rule
C. incoming called-number
D. application
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
What is the fastest way for an engineer to test the implementation of SRST in a production environment?
A. Shut down the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Servers.
B. Shut down the switch ports connected to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Servers.
C. Add a null route to the publisher Cisco Unified Communications Manager at the remote router. Remove the null route when the operation is verified.
D. Unplug the IP phones from their switch ports.
E. Verification is not needed.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
What is an advantage of TEHO?
A. TEHO implemented with ISRs eliminates PSTN toll charges.
B. TEHO implemented with ISRs can reduce PSTN toll charges.
C. TEHO implemented with AAR reduces toll charges.
D. TEHO implemented with CFUR reroutes calls.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit.

Assuming the regions configuration to BR only permits G.729 codec, how many calls are allowed for the BR location?
A. Total of four calls; two incoming and two outgoing.
B. Total of two calls in either direction.
C. Total of four calls to the BR location. Outgoing calls are not impacted by the location configuration.
D. Total of four calls in either direction.
E. Two outgoing calls. Incoming calls are unlimited.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
Incorrect answer: ABCE
In performing location bandwidth calculations for purposes of call admission control, Cisco Unified Communications Manager assumes that each G.729 call stream consumes 24 kb/s amount of bandwidth.

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.

What should the destination IP address be configured as on the HQ and BR1 SIP trunks?
A. The HQ SIP trunk destination IP address should be 10.1.6.10. The BR1 SIP trunk destination IP address should be 10.1.5.10.
B. The destination IP address is not configurable. Each cluster will learn about the remote trunk IP address through SAF learned routes.
C. The destination IP address will be learned automatically and configured on the SIP trunks after the Cisco Unified Communications Managers discover themselves.
D. The HQ SIP trunk destination IP address should be the HQ SAF Forwarder IP address. The BR1 SIP trunk destination IP address should be the BR1 SAF Forwarder IP address.
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
Incorrect answer: ACD
The gatekeeper changes the IP address of this remote device dynamically to reflect the IP address of the remote device.

QUESTION 27
How do RSVP-enabled locations differ from Cisco Unified Communications Manager locations?
A. RSVP is configured in the ISR independent of Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
B. RSVP enables AAR within Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
C. RSVP is topology aware.
D. RSVP is configured in Cisco Unified Communications Manager independent of the ISR.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Which two options are effective mechanisms to restrict the maximum number of voice calls on a WAN link? (Choose two.)
A. Configure a gatekeeper with an SIP trunk.
B. Configure a gatekeeper and a gatekeeper-controlled trunk in Cisco Unified Communications Manager with bandwidth control.
C. Configure Cisco Unified Communications Manager regions.
D. Configure Cisco Unified Communications Manager locations.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 29
Which statement about RSVP is true?
A. MTP is typically used for RSVP agent configuration.
B. If the RSVP agent cannot reserve the required bandwidth on first effort, it enables low latency queuing and tries to connect the call again.
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager uses the RSVP-configured bandwidth between sites as a method of determining if there is sufficient bandwidth for the call.
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager uses an RSVP-enabled infrastructure and an RSVP-controlled agent to request a bandwidth reservation from the network in order to place a call.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
300-075 dumps How is the region assigned to a device such as an IP phone?
A. Regions are assigned directly in the device configuration page.
B. Regions can be assigned only through a device pool.
C. Regions can be assigned either directly on the device configuration page or through the device pool. If both configurations exist, the device pool region configuration takes precedence.
D. Regions can be assigned either directly on the device configuration page or through the device pool. If both configurations exist, the device region configuration takes precedence.
Correct Answer: B

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The Best Cisco CCNP Collaboration 300-070 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (Q1-Q30)

QUESTION 1
Which statement about the relationship between gateways and route groups is true?
A. Each gateway can belong to only one route group and can be listed only once within that route group.
B. Each gateway can belong to only one route group and can be listed multiple times within that route group.
C. Each gateway can belong to multiple route groups and can be listed only once within each route group.
D. Each gateway can belong to multiple route groups and can be listed multiple times within each route group.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which dial plan function is used to restrict calls that are made by a lobby phone to internal extensions only?
A. Path selection.
B. Endpoint addressing.
C. Manipulation of dialed destination.
D. Calling privileges.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which two are enterprise parameters? (Choose two.)
A. User search limit
B. T302 parameter
C. Enable Call Detail Records
D. Enable Dependency Records
E. codecs parameters for voice media-streaming applications
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 4
A user’s phone Call Forward No Answer setting has been configured to forward to a hunt pilot. If all call hunting options have been exhausted and the Forward Hunt No Answer feature has been configured to use Personal Preference settings, to which of these will calls to this phone be forwarded?
A. the default destination configured under Service Parameters
B. any destination configured under the user’s DN Personal Settings configuration
C. the destination specified under the user’s Call Forward No Coverage settings
D. voice mail
E. no other destination; each call will continue to ring until the caller hangs up
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
You can implement the personal preferences option. To do so, configure a user phone so that the Forward No Answer field redirects the call to a hunt pilot, which searches for someone else to answer the call. If call hunting fails because all the hunting options are exhausted or because a timeout period expires, the call can be sent to a personalized destination for the person who was originally called. For example, if you set the Forward No Coverage field in the Directory Number Configuration page to a voice-mail number, the call will be sent to the voice mailbox of that person if hunting fails.

QUESTION 5
Which three are functions of Cisco Unified Border Element? 300-070 dumps (Choose three.)
A. client registration
B. H.323 and SIP interworking
C. Lync interworking
D. transcoding
E. phone proxy
F. mobile and remote access
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 6
Which configuration output indicates a properly configured T1 digital voice interface?
A. controller T1 0/0/0framing esflinecode b8zspri-group timeslots 1-24!
B. isdn switch-type primary-ni!controller T1 0/0/0framing esflinecode b8zs!
C. isdn switch-type primary-ni!controller T1 0/0/0framing esflinecode b8zspri-group timeslots 1-24isdn switch-type primary-ni!
D. isdn switch-type primary-ni!controller T1 0/0/0framing esflinecode b8zs!dial-peer voice 1 potsdestination-pattern 54….direction-inward.dialport 0/0/0:23
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.

Which option is the most highly recommended option to install Cisco TelePresence Conductor on the virtual machine?
A. Thick Provision Eager Zeroed
B. Thick Provision Lazy Zeroed
C. Thick Provision
D. Thin Provision
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Callers inform you that they hear a second dial tone after dialing the number 4085550123. Which dial-peer configuration command resolves this issue?
A. answer-address 408555….
B. destination-pattern 91[2-9]..[2-9]…..
C. forwarddigits all
D. direct-inwarddial
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
An organization has built their video infrastructure to perform ad hoc video calls, but they also need to conduct managed video conference calls. Which hardware component is needed to conduct these calls?
A. VCS-E
B. IOS gateway
C. MCU
D. TelePresence server
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which command is used to enter the DSP farm profile configuration mode?
A. dspfarm-profile 100 transcode
B. dspfarmprofile 100 transcode
C. dspfarm profile 100 transcode
D. dspfarm 100 profile transcode
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Refer to Exhibit:

If the user at extension 1001 dials the user at extension 2002, which dial peer is used to route the call?
A. 3
B. 2
C. 4
D. 1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
You are a Network Engineer at ABC Company. You want to ensure that when the contact center agent for the company makes an external call, the extension 897 654 300 is displayed. How do you resolve this issue?
A. Configure a Line Text Label on the Directory Number configuration page.
B. Configure an external phone number mask on the Directory Number configuration page.
C. Configure a translation pattern with the pattern 897654300.
D. Configure an external phone number mask on the Device configuration page.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which three CLI commands allow you to verify the correct VoIP dial-peer matching? 300-070 dumps (Choose three.)
A. debug ccsip messages
B. debug voip ccapi inout
C. debug dialpeer match
D. debug voip dialpeer inout
E. show dialplan number
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit and configuration output.

A user in New York (5001) is trying to call a user in London (6001), but the call cannot be completed. Assuming that the WAN uplink is failing and the voice traffic has to go out toward the PSTN, which command do you need to add to dial peer to solve this issue?
dial-peer voice 3 pots
destination-pattern 6…
preference 1
port 0/0/0:23
dtmf-relay sip-notify
A. num-exp 512602 6001
B. prefix 757385
C. forward-digits 2
D. forward-digits 4
E. prefix 5126
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which two of these describe where phone services can appear on an IP phone and who can subscribe to phone services? (Choose two.)
A. end user
B. administrator
C. end user and administrator
D. Services button
E. Services and Directories buttons
F. Services, Directories, and Messages buttons
Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.

A Cisco Unified Communications Manager group is configured with the subscriber (10.1.5.3) listed first and the publisher (10.1.5.2) listed second. Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager is used for incoming calls through an MGCP gateway?
A. the publisher
B. both the publisher and subscriber in a round-robin format
C. the first server listed in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager group list
D. the subscriber
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which two of the following DSPs can be used in heterogeneous conferencing to achieve the required trans-sizing and transcoding functionality? (Choose two.)
A. PVDM3-256
B. PVDM2-256
C. PVDM-192
D. PVDM3-32
E. PVDM3-192
F. PVDM2-128
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 18
Managers have asked to be able to have an extension call them back if it is busy when they try to call it. In what two places can this feature be assigned to the Managers phone? (Choose two.)
A. Device Settings > Softkey Template
B. Device Settings > Default Device Profile Configuration
C. Device Settings > Phone Button Template
D. Device Settings > Device Profile
E. Device Settings > Device Defaults
F. Device Settings > Firmware Load Information
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 19
Which three elements are used to configure calling privileges? (Choose three)
A. Route pattern.
B. Calling search space.
C. Replica.
D. User.
E. Partition
F. Time schedule.
Correct Answer: BEF

QUESTION 20
Which two statements describe the function of the off-net option in a route pattern? (Choose two.)
A. The off-net option indicates that if a call is not routed through this route pattern, it is considered off the local network, or “off-net”.
B. This option could be used to block an external call from transferring to an internal party.
C. This option could be used to block an external call from transferring to an external party.
D. The off-net option indicates that if a call is routed through this route pattern, it is considered off the local network, or “off-net.”
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 21
What are two characteristics that are associated with the End User and User account types? (Choose two.)
A. They cannot use LDAP.
B. They are used to authorize applications.
C. They can utilize LDAP.
D. The Application is associated with the End User and User account types.
E. They can be listed in a directory.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 22
Refer to Exhibit:

If the user at extension 1001 dials the user at extension 2111, which dial peer is used to route the call?
A. 3
B. 2
C. 4
D. 1
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Refer to the exhibit. Bob has set his phone to forward calls to extension 5000. When a call is placed to extension 2000, which phone will ring?

A. Phone A
B. Phone B
C. Phone C
D. Phone D
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
Which two options are resources in a route list that route calls that match a defined route pattern? 300-070 dumps (Choose two.)
A. gateways
B. route groups
C. virtual machine servers
D. IP phones
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 25
Which statement about a partition is true?
A. A partition is a logical group of transformation patterns with similar accessibility characteristics.
B. A partition is a group of gateways with similar accessibility characteristics.
C. A partition is a logical group of directory numbers with similar accessibility characteristics.
D. A partition is a logical group of route patterns with similar accessibility characteristics.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
Which statement about translation patterns and transformation patterns is true?
A. Both transformation patterns and translations patterns support only numeric values.
B. Both transformation patterns and translations patterns support numeric and alphanumeric values.
C. Transformation patterns support numeric and alphanumeric values, whereas translations patterns supportonly numeric values.
D. Translation patterns support numeric and alphanumeric values, whereas transformation patterns supportonly numeric values.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
Which three Cisco Unified Communications Manager settings can be used to support IP phone services? (Choose three.)
A. Device Defaults
B. Enterprise Parameters
C. IP Phone Service Configuration window
D. Common Phone Profile
E. Service Parameters
F. Phone Configuration window
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 28
Refer to the exhibit.

A Network Administrator needs to create a SIP route pattern to communicate with Monterrey’s Gateway. The Administrator does not understand why this is not working properly. Which two statements explain the issue and resolve the problem? (Choose two.)
A. The Administrator needs to set up a SIP trunk between Monterrey’s Gateway and Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
B. The Administrator should type the reload command into Monterrey’s Gateway
C. The issue is caused by a failure of communication between the Monterrey’s Gateway and Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
D. The issue is caused by incorrect protocol integration between Monterrey’s Gateway and Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 29
If the route patterns 5XXX, 51XX, 513X and 5134 exist within a call route database, which pattern would be matched if the dialed number was 5324?
A. 5XXX
B. 51XX
C. 513X
D. 5134
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
You are a Voice Engineer at ABC Company. You want to provision a new voice gateway for a remote site, and you need to configure 24 channels of a T1 CAS interface. Which set is the correct set of commands for this configuration?
A. R1(config)# controller t1 1/0R1(config-controller)# framing esfR1(config-controller)# linecode b8zsR1(config-controller)# primary-group 1 timeslot 1-24 type fxo-loop-start
B. R1(config)# controller t1 1/0R1(config-controller)# linecode hdb3R1(config-controller)# framing crc4R1(config-controller)# clock source lineR1(config-controller)# ds0-group 1 timeslot 1-24 type fxo-loop-start
C. R1(config)# isdn switch-type primary-5essR1(config)# controller t1 t1/0R1(config- controller)# pri-group timeslots 1-24
D. R1(config)# controller t1 1/0R1(config-controller)# framing esfR1(config-controller)# linecode b8zsR1(config-controller)# clock source lineR1(config-controller)# ds0-group 1 timeslot 1-24 type fxo-loop-start
Correct Answer: D

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The Best CompTIA Cloud Essentials CV0-001 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (Q1-Q40)

QUESTION 1
An administrator is troubleshooting the cause of multiple VMs which are suddenly going offline. Which of the following is the FIRST step in troubleshooting the issue?
A. Review LUN configurations for errors
B. Review Fibre Channel zoning configuration
C. Review system logs on the host
D. Review VM OS multipathing software configuration
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A system administrator is planning storage infrastructure to store backup copies of virtual machines that are at least 5GB in size. Which of the following file systems can be used in this scenario? (Select TWO).
A. SMB
B. RAW
C. EXT
D. FAT
E. NTFS
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 3
Which of the following may be used prior to encryption of information stored in a database if only weak encryption algorithms are allowed?
A. LUN Masking
B. Obfuscation
C. Access Control Lists
D. Hashing
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which of the following provides a secure tunnel through the Internet?
A. DMZ
B. IDS
C. ACL
D. VPN
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which of the following describes the access control method where data owners authorize who is granted access to their files?
A. Mandatory access control
B. Role-based access control
C. Access control list
D. Discretionary access control
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
A storage system that retains data in a flat address space is known as:
A. A hierarchical file system.
B. A NAS.
C. A DAS.
D. An OSD.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Joe, an administrator, is experiencing connectivity problems with a new VM. Joe is able to ping the gateway, however he is unable to ping the hostname of another VM on the subnet. Which of the following tools should be used NEXT when troubleshooting?
A. ipconfig
B. packet sniffer
C. nslookup
D. netstat
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
CV0-001 dumps Which of the following is bridged and sends packets on the wire with its own unique MAC address?
A. Virtual PBX
B. Virtual Switches
C. VLAN
D. Virtual NIC
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which of the following components should be virtualized and added to cloud infrastructure to ensure virtual servers are only able to access the volumes assigned to them?
A. NAS
B. DAS
C. LUN
D. HBA
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
A user is notified that they will be terminated at the end of the day. As they start cleaning up their workstation, they try to FTP information from their workstation to a cloud-based, personal backup solution. Which of the following hardening techniques would be used to restrict their ability to transfer this information via FTP?
A. Antivirus
B. NIPS
C. NIDS
D. Host-based firewall
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which of the following detection controls can be used to identify an unauthorized individual who accessed a remote network share?
A. Obfuscation
B. Authentication
C. Log review
D. LUN masking
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
The corporate security department is recommending that the administrator deploys Type I hypervisor versus Type II.
Which of the following is a security concern in regards to deploying a Type II hypervisor?
A. Human error
B. Performance benchmarks
C. Additional software
D. Administration time
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
In order to enhance security on a SAN, which of the following should be configured?
A. ZFS
B. LUN
C. VSAN
D. Zoning
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
A JBOD is being monitored and an administrator notices that a high number of writes occur in short timeframes in the last 24 hours. Which of the following BEST describes this issue?
A. I/O bursting
B. I/O throttling
C. I/O threshold
D. I/O saturation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
The Chief Information Officer (CIO) tells the IT department that all non business critical production applications can be down for no more than 48 hours. Which of the following has the CIO defined?
A. Failback
B. RPO
C. RTO
D. Failover
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which of the following is the BEST means of ensuring resource utilization remains even across the hosts?
A. Resource pooling
B. VM affinity
C. Dynamic VM placement
D. VM high availability
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Which of the following are VM template hardening techniques? CV0-001 dumps (Select TWO).
A. Joining a domain
B. IP address configuration
C. Deactivating default accounts
D. OS patching
E. Disabling all ports and services
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 18
An administrator wants to repurpose server hardware to host hypervisors. The administrator must FIRST:
A. install the hypervisor on the bare metal servers.
B. check the server\’s configuration against the hardware vendor\’s HCL.
C. check the server\’s configuration against the hypervisor vendor\’s HCL.
D. install the OS and then enable the hypervisor function.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Encryption ensures which of the following? (Select TWO).
A. Access control
B. Data loss
C. Confidentiality
D. Authentication
E. Data integrity
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 20
Which of the following tables would an administrator use to find a list of paths to network nodes?
A. Port table
B. VPN tagging
C. ARP table
D. Route table
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
Which of the following is often used by a certificate to keep the contents of the page confidential?
A. 3DES
B. AES
C. RSA
D. RC4
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Which of the following is a subcomponent of a virtual machine?
A. Virtual switch
B. Virtual HBA
C. Virtual shield
D. Virtual OS
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
Which of the following, in conjunction with IPSec, can be configured to provide secure access to files on a NAS?
A. iSCSI
B. CIFS
C. FCoE
D. SSH
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
Several clients hosted on a cluster, is BEST referred to as:
A. IaaS.
B. PaaS.
C. multi-tenancy.
D. on-premise hosting.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
New servers were purchased specifically for virtualization capabilities. However, the hypervisor of choice cannot find compatible processors on the new servers. Which of the following would a system administrator MOST likely need to configure to enable virtualization features for these systems?
A. IPMI
B. RAM
C. BIOS
D. HBAs
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
Which of the following is a disk interface type that has the BEST performance?
A. NAS
B. SAN
C. SAS
D. SSD
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
An administrator has implemented a self-service provisioning portal in the company and has associated a cost to CPU, memory, storage, and OS type. Which of the following cloud computing options has been configured?
A. Cloud bursting
B. Chargeback
C. Multi-tenancy
D. Reservations
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 28
Which of the following is the BEST answer for implementing a feature that will remove a single point of failure between a SAN and host?
A. MPLS
B. MTBF
C. MTU
D. MPIO
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
An administrator has configured a cluster but one of the VMs returns an error when attempting to automatically fail-over to another host in the cluster. CV0-001 dumps Which of the following should be verified?
A. All VLANs have been tagged
B. Datacenter bridging has been configured
C. All hosts are in the same virtual network
D. Multipathing has been configured on the virtual network
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 30
Which of the following network terms describes the process of grouping similar traffic on a network?
A. VLAN tagging
B. Virtual switches
C. Supernetting
D. Route tables
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 31
A company has decided to reduce their datacenter size. An administrator for the company has been tasked to virtualize many of the company\’s servers. Which of the following should the administrator perform to accomplish this goal?
A. P2V
B. P2P
C. V2P
D. V2V
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 32
Which of the following protocols allows fibre channel to be transmitted over the network?
A. HBA
B. FCoE
C. NFS
D. iSCSI
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 33
Users have been reporting slow response times on a database server. The administrator noticed the server at any given time has between 30 to 50 users connected to various databases. Additional research shows disk metrics such as disk queuing and disk access rates are both around 10% to 15%. Which of the following can be the root cause of this slow performing server?
A. The CPU time reservation is small.
B. The swap disk space is small.
C. The server has fewer resources than required.
D. I/O tuning is disabled.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 34
An administrator is responsible for maintenance and support of servers in the cloud environment. There are over 500 virtual servers spanning across ten physical hosts. The administrator deploys a new application server. The administrator allocated the appropriate virtual resources for the application. Users report slow response after the new server was deployed. Which of the following is the cause of this issue?
A. Storage allocation on the guest OS
B. Resource pooling mis-configuration
C. Application licensing expiration
D. Data segregation on the host OS
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 35
Which of the following can be used to encrypt data at rest on a VM located in the cloud?
A. AES
B. SSL
C. TLS
D. VPN
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 36
A company has five servers and wishes to consolidate into a single physical server. Which of the following migration methods would accomplish this?
A. P2P
B. V2P
C. V2V
D. P2V
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 37
A new host has been bought to be a part of a new cluster. The purchase order specifies this server has four physical CPUs with eight cores each. After the administrator boots the host, there are only 24 logical processors available for VM allocation. Which of the following BEST describes this problem?
A. The server requires a firmware upgrade to version 8.2
B. The BIOS does not have virtualization support features completely enabled
C. The virtualization license is not the enterprise edition
D. A CPU is dead on arrival or disabled on the motherboard
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 38
A corporate office allows employees to work remotely, using their personal computers to access network resources through a browser-based gateway. Which of the following settings should be applied to the virtualized application running on the gateway to reduce the risk of company information being transferred to employees\’ personal machines?
A. Disable the ability to copy and paste
B. Encrypt the employees\’ personal computer hard drives and disable the ability to paste
C. Encrypt the employees\’ personal computer hard drives and disable the ability to print
D. Disable the ability to paste and read
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 39
CV0-001 dumps Which of the following is typically the BEST boundary controller in a private cloud implementation?
A. CSP security
B. VPN
C. SSL
D. Firewall
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 40
Which of the following cloud services would MOST likely be used to deliver web applications?
A. IaaS
B. DaaS
C. SaaS
D. PaaS
Correct Answer: C

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High Quality Cisco CCDP 300-115 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers Update (Q7-Q30)

QUESTION 7
Which option is the minimum frame size for an 802.1Q frame?
A. 64 bytes
B. 68 bytes
C. 1518 bytes
D. 1522 bytes
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
After UDLD is implemented, a NetworkAdministrator noticed that one port stops receiving UDLD packets. This port continues to reestablish until after eight failed retries. The port then transitions into the errdisable state.
Which option describes what causes the port to go into the errdisable state?
A. Normal UDLD operations that prevent traffic loops.
B. UDLD port is configured in aggressive mode.
C. UDLD is enabled globally.
D. UDLD timers are inconsistent.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Interfaces are assigned to a VLAN, and then the VLAN is deleted. Which state are these interfaces in after the VLAN is deleted?
A. They remain up, but they are reassigned to the default VLAN.
B. They go down until they are reassigned to a VLAN.
C. They go down, but they are reassigned to the default VLAN.
D. They remainup, but they are reassigned to the native VLAN.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.

Which option is the most likely explanation of the duplicate address message logged?
A. spanning-tree loop
B. HSRP misconfiguration
C. a PC with IP of 10.10.1.1
D. a hardware problem
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
300-115 dumps Which statement about the use of SDM templates in a Cisco switch is true?
A. SDMtemplates are used to configure system resources in the switch to optimize support for specific features, depending on how the switch is used in the network.
B. SDM templates are used to create Layer 3 interfaces (switch virtual interfaces) to permit hostsin one VLAN to communicate with hosts in another VLAN.
C. SDM templates are used to configure ACLs that protect networks and specific hosts from unnecessary or unwanted traffic.
D. SDM templates are used to configure a set of ACLs that allows the users tomanage the flow of traffic handled by the route processor.
E. SDM templates are configured by accessing the switch using the web interface.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
How does VTP pruning enhance network bandwidth?
A. by restricting unicast traffic across VTP domains
B. by reducing unnecessary flooding of traffic to inactive VLANs
C. by limitingthe spreading of VLAN information
D. by disabling periodic VTP updates
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
When using EtherChannel misconfiguration guard, which technology is used to prevent this type of misconfiguration from affecting the network?
A. STP
B. port security
C. LACP
D. PAgP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
After anEtherChannel is configured between two Cisco switches, interface port channel 1 is in the down/down state.
Switch A is configured with channel-group 1 mode active, while Switch B is configured with channel-group 1 mode desirable.
Why is the EtherChannel bundle not working?
A. The switches are using mismatched EtherChannel negotiation modes.
B. The switch ports are not configured in trunking mode.
C. LACP priority must be configured on both switches.
D. The channel group identifier must be different for Switch A and Switch B.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which feature describes MAC addresses that are dynamically learned or manually configured, stored in theaddress table, and added to the running configuration?
A. sticky
B. dynamic
C. static
D. secure
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Which database is used to determine the validity of an ARP packet based on a valid IP-to- MAC address binding?
A. DHCP snooping database
B. dynamic ARP database
C. dynamic routing database
D. static ARP database
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
A network engineer changed the port speed and duplex setting of an existing EtherChannel bundle that uses the PAgP protocol. Which statement describes what happens to all ports in the bundle?
A. PAgP changes the port speed and duplex for all ports in the bundle.
B. PAgP drops the ports that do not match the configuration.
C. PAgP does not change the port speed and duplex for all ports in the bundle until the switch is rebooted.
D. PAgP changes the port speed but notthe duplex for all ports in the bundle.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
You want to configure a switched internetwork with multiple VLANs as shown above. Which of the following commands should you issue on SwitchA for the port connected to SwitchB? (Select the best answer.)

A. switchport mode trunk
B. switchport access vlan 5
C. switchport mode access vlan 5
D. switchport trunk native vlan 5
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Routers R1 and R2 are configured for HSRP as shown below:
Router R1: interface ethernet 0 ip address 20.6.2.1 255.255.255.0 standby 35 ip 20.6.2.21 standby 35 priority 100 interface ethernet 1 ip address 20.6.1.1.2 255.255.255.0 standby 34 ip 20.6.1.21 Router R2: interface ethernet 0 ip address 20.6.2.2 255.255.255.0 standby 35 ip 20.6.2.21 interface ethernet 1 ip address 20.6.1.1.1 255.255.255.0 standby 34 ip 20.6.1.21 standby 34 priority 100 You have configured the routers R1 andamp;R2 with HSRP. 300-115 dumps While debugging router R2 you notice very frequent HSRP group state transitions. What is the most likely cause of this?
A. physical layer issues
B. no spanning tree loops
C. use of non-default HSRP timers
D. failure to set the command standby 35 preempt
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which technique automatically limits VLAN traffic to only the switches that require it?
A. access lists
B. DTP in nonegotiate
C. VTP pruning
D. PBR
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
Whichfour LACP components are used to determine which hot-standby links become active after an interface failure within an EtherChannel bundle? (Choose four.)
A. LACP system priority
B. LACP port priority
C. interface MAC address
D. system ID
E. port number
F. hot-standby link identification number
G. interface bandwidth
Correct Answer: ABDE

QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration ensures that the Cisco Discovery Protocol packet update frequency sent from DSW1 to ALS1 is half of the default value?
A. DSW1(config)#cdp timer 90
B. DSW1(config-if)#cdp holdtime 60
C. DSW1(config)#cdp timer 30
D. DSW1(config)#cdp holdtime 90
E. DSW1(config-if)#cdp holdtime 30
F. DSW1(config-if)#cdp timer 60
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
It a switch stack is configured to used SDM templates, where are the templates stored?
A. stack master
B. TFTP server
C. flash memory
D. all stack members
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Ferris Plastics, Inc. is a medium sized company, with an enterprise network (access, distribution andcore switches) that provides LAN connectivity from user PCs to corporate servers. The distribution switches are configured to use HSRP to provide a high availability solution.
– DSW1 -primary device for VLAN 101 VLAN 102 and VLAN 105
– DSW2 – primarydevice for VLAN 103 and VLAN 104
A failure of GigabitEthemet1/0/1 on primary device should cause the primary device to release its status as the primary device, unless GigabitEthernet1/0/1 on backup device has also failed.
Troubleshooting hasidentified several issues. Currently all interfaces are up. Using the running configurations and show commands, you have been asked to investigate and respond to the following question.



During routine maintenance, it became necessary to shut down the GigabitEthernet1/0/1 interface on DSW1. All other interfaces were up. During this time, DSW1 remained the active device for the VLAN 102 HSRP group. You have determined that there is an issue with the decrement value in the track command for the VLAN102 HSRP group. What needs to be done to make the group function properly?
A. The decrement value on DSW1 should be greaterthan 5 and less than 15. 0
B. The decrement value on DSW1 should be greaterthan 9 and less than 15.
C. The decrement value on DSW1should be greaterthan 11 and less than 19.
D. The decrement value on DSWTs should be greaterthan 190 and less than 200.
E. The decrement value on DSWTs should be greaterthan 195 and less than 205.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
VLAN maps have been configured on switch R1. 300-115 dumps Which of the following actions are taken in a VLAN map that does not contain a match clause?
A. Implicit deny feature at end of list.
B. Implicit denyfeature at start of list.
C. Implicit forward feature at end of list
D. Implicit forward feature at start of list.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.

Users of PC-1 experience slow connection when a webpage is requested from the server. To increase bandwidth, the network engineer configured an EtherChannel on interfaces Fa1/0 and Fa0/1 of the server farm switch, as shown here:
Server_Switch#sh etherchannel load-balance
EtherChannel Load-Balancing Operational State (src-mac):
Non-IP: Source MAC address
IPv4: Source MAC address
IPv6: Source IP address
Server_Switch#
However,traffic is still slow. Which action can the engineer take to resolve this issue?
A. Disable EtherChannel load balancing.
B. Upgrade the switch IOS to IP services image.
C. Change the load-balance method to dst-mac.
D. Contact Cisco TAC to report a bug onthe switch.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Which two statements about SPAN source and destination ports during an active session are true? (Choose two.)
A. The source port can be only an Ethernet physical port.
B. The source port can be monitored in multiple SPAN sessions.
C. Thedestination port can be destination in multiple SPAN sessions.
D. The destination port does not participate in STP.
E. You can mix individual source ports and source VLANs within a single session.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 28
Which two statements about the HSRP priority are true? (Choose two)
A. To assign the HSRP router priority in a standby group, the standby group-number priority priority-value global configuration command must be used.
B. The default priority of a router is zero (0).
C. The no standby priority command assigns a priority of 100 to the router.
D. Assuming that preempting has also been configured, the router with the lowest priority in an HSRP group would become the active router.
E. When two routers in an HSRP standby group are configured with identical priorities, the router with the highest configured IP address will become the active router.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 29
Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement about switch S1 is true?
A. Physical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 2 port-channel interface using an open standard protocol.
B. Logical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 2 physical port- channel interface using a Cisco proprietary protocol.
C. Physical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 3 port-channel interface using a Cisco proprietary protocol.
D. Logical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 3 physical port- channel interface using an open standard protocol.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Refer to the exhibit. What is the result of setting GLBP weighting at 105 with lower threshold 90 and upper threshold 100 on this router?

A. Only if both tracked objects are up will this router will be available as an AVF for group 1.
B. Only if the state of both tracked objects goes down will this router release its status as an AVF for group 1.
C. If both tracked objects go down and then one comes up, but the other remains down, this router will be available as an AVF for group 1.
D. This configuration is incorrect and will not have any effect on GLBP operation.
E. If the state of one tracked object goes down then this router will release its status as an AVF for group 1.
Correct Answer: B

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Latest Cisco CCDA 200-310 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (31-60)

QUESTION 31
What IPv4 addressing technique is used for proper address planning to reduce the number of entries in a routing table?
A. Filtering
B. Tunneling
C. Summarization
D. Translation
E. Supernetting
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 32
When designing the threat detection and mitigation portion for the enterprise data center network, which of the following would be the most appropriate solution to consider?
A. 802.1x
B. ACL in the Core layer
C. Cisco Security MARS
D. Cisco Firewall Services Module
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
What three considerations should be taken into account when selecting a routing protocol? (Choose three.)
A. Classful routing
B. Scalability
C. Default route origination
D. Multi vendor support
E. Link load balancing
F. Hop count
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 34
Which network access control technology is recommended to use with Layer 2 access layer switches?
A. 802.1q
B. 802.1x
C. 802.3af
D. 802.3q
E. 802.11n
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 35
What is the primary advantage of implementing a wireless LAN controller in a wireless LAN design?
A. Roaming between APs
B. RADIUS user authentication
C. Radio resource management
D. accelerated data transfer
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 36
Which option is a benefit of Cisco Discovery Protocol? 200-310 dumps
A. Provides information about directly connected Cisco devices
B. Provides greater detail about collected data, including time stamping
C. Combines with the network layer data that is gathered by NetFlow when using a NetFlow collector
D. Part of the IEEE 802.1ab standard
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 37
Which two statements best describe an OSPF deployment? (Choose two.)
A. ABR provides automatic classful network boundary summarization
B. ABR requires manual configuration for classful network summarization
C. External routes are propagated into the autonomous system from stub areas via ASBR
D. External routes are propagated into the autonomous system from regular areas or NSSA via ASBR
E. External routes are propagated into the autonomous system from regular areas or NSSA via ABR
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 38
A dynamically routed private line and a statically routed IPsec tunnel connect two offices.
What routing configuration prefers the IPsec tunnel only in the event of a private line failure?
A. Floating static entry
B. EIGRP variance
C. Bandwidth metric
D. OSPF maximum path
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 39
A network engineer has finished designing and implementing a new network. What two protocols would they use to gain insight into the network and determine the components that require optimization? (Choose two.)
A. CDP
B. NetFlow
C. ICMP Echo
D. NMAP
E. SNMP
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 40
What is the key limitation of using Internet circuits as a backup to a private enterprise WAN?
A. Circuit bandwidth
B. Prioritization
C. Security
D. Operational expense
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 41
Which protocol is used for voice bearer traffic?
A. MGCP
B. RTP
C. SCCP
D. CDP
E. ICMP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 42
Which two enterprise campus layers are combined in a medium-sized LAN? (Choose two.)
A. Core
B. Distribution
C. Access
D. Backbone
E. Aggregation
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 43

A network engineer at a technical call center receives a call from a customer complaining that only 56 kbps of data can be transferred over the T1 Frame Relay WAN circuit at a remote site. 200-310 dumps The engineer checks the Frame Relay switch and confirms that only 56 kbps is being transferred over the circuit. The engineer requests the router configuration of the customer headquarters site router.
What is causing this issue to occur?
A. The wrong CIR is configured
B. The BECN configuration is causing this issue
C. The class name is spelled wrong under the interface
D. The wrong DLCI number is assigned to the interface
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 44
Which WAN technology is a cost-effective method to deliver 100Mb of bandwidth to multiple branch offices?
A. DSL
B. DWDM
C. ISDN
D. Metro Ethernet
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 45
Which IP telephony component supports VoIP, PoE, and QoS?
A. Client Endpoints
B. Voice-enabled infrastructure
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D. Cisco Unified Contact Center
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 46
What two SAN protocols will allow a customer to utilize 10GbE for SAN access? (Choose two.)
A. iSCSI
B. FCoE C. SATA
D. Fiber Channel
E. AoE
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 47

Which configuration can be used to implement FHRP protocol and load balancing at the same time?
A. R1 interface Ethernet0 ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0 standby 1 preempt standby 1 ip 171.16.6.100 standby 1 track Serial0 standby 2 preempt standby 2 ip 171.16.6.200 standby 2 track Serial0 standby 2 priority 95 ! R2 interface Ethernet0 ip address 171.16.6.6 255.255.255.0 standby 1 preempt standby 1 ip 171.16.6.100 standby 1 track Serial0 standby 2 preempt standby 2 ip 171.16.6.200 standby 2 track Serial0
B. R1 interface Ethernet0 ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0 standby 1 preempt standby 1 ip 171.16.6.100 standby 1 track Serial0 standby 1 priority 95 ! R2 interface Ethernet0 ip address 171.16.6.6 255.255.255.0 standby 1 preempt standby 1 ip 171.16.6.100 standby 1 track Serial0 standby 1 priority 95
C. R1 interface Ethernet0 ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0 standby 1 preempt standby 1 ip 171.16.6.100 standby 1 track Serial0 standby 1 priority 95 standby 2 preempt standby 2 ip 171.16.6.200
standby 2 track Serial0
standby 2 priority 95
!
R2
interface Ethernet0
ip address 171.16.6.6 255.255.255.0
standby 1 preempt
standby 1 ip 171.16.6.100
standby 1 track Serial0
standby 2 preempt
standby 2 ip 171.16.6.200
standby 2 track Serial0
D. R1 interface Ethernet0 ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0 standby 1 preempt standby 1 ip 171.16.6.100 standby 1 track Serial0 standby 1 priority 95 ! R2 interface Ethernet0 ip address 171.16.6.6 255.255.255.0 standby 1 preempt standby 1 ip 171.16.6.100
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 48
What business trend allows employees to use personal devices to access enterprise data and systems?
A. ISE
B. BYOD
C. SAN
D. IOE
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 49
Which two of the following are benefits of using a modular approach to network design? (Choose two.)
A. Improve flexibility
B. Facilitates implementation
C. Lowers implementation costs
D. Improves customer participation in the design process
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 50
Which two states are RSTP port states? (Choose two.)
A. Discarding
B. Learning
C. Blocking
D. Listening
E. Disabled
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 51
Which two statements about designing the Enterprise Data Center Access submodule are correct? (Choose two)
A. Multiport NIC servers should each have their own IP address
B. Layer 3 connectivity should never be used in the access layer
C. Layer 2 connectivity is primarily implemented in the access layer
D. Multiport NIC servers should never be used in the access layer
E. Layer 2 clustering implementation requires servers to be Layer 2 adjacent
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 52
Which type of structure consists of the addressing, routing protocols, QoS, and security components?
A. Logical
B. Physical
C. Layered
D. Virtual
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 53
When designing for a remote worker, which two are typical requirements? 200-310 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Best-effort interactive and low-volume traffic patterns
B. Connections to the enterprise edge using Layer 2 WAN technologies
C. Always-on connection with SLA from ISP
D. Voice and IPsec VPN support
E. High-end security devices with stateful firewall filtering
F. Dual or multihoming to ISPs
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 54
What is the recommended spanning tree protocol to use for all Layer 2 deployments in a branch office environment?
A. CST
B. RSPT
C. PVST
D. MISTP
E. Rapid PVST+
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 55
Why would an engineer implement variable length subnet masks?
A. To make a subnet public
B. To prevent wasting IP addresses
C. To make a subnet its own VLAN
D. To expand an existing subnet
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 56
When is the Cisco FlexConnect design model recommended?
A. When remote-site APs are centrally managed
B. When each remote site has its own wireless controller
C. When each remote site runs VSS
D. When the remote sites use WAN optimization
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 57
What three primary sources of information are needed to perform a network audit? (Choose three.)
A. Existing documentation
B. New documentation
C. Existing network management software
D. New network management tools
E. Management personnel
F. Technical personnel
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 58
What are the three models that are required in the systematic approach of the top-down design methodology? (Choosethree.)
A. Logical
B. Physical
C. Layered
D. Network components
E. Technological
F. Protocols
G. Virtual
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 59
Your supervisor has asked you to deploy a routing protocol within the lab environment that will allow for unequal cost multipath routing. Which should you choose?
A. EIGRP
B. OSPF
C. IS-IS
D. RIP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 60
A company would like to distribute a VM hosting cluster between three data centers with the capability to move VMs between sites. The connectivity between data centers is IP only, and the new design should use existing WAN.
Which layer 2 tunneling technology should be used?
A. VPLS
B. L2TPv3
C. OTV
D. AToM
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
You need to recommend a solution that meets the technical requirements for DHCP.
What should you include in the recommendation for each office?
A. DHCP failover
B. Network Load Balancing (NLB)
C. DHCP server policies
D. IP Address Management (IPAM)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
You need to recommend a solution for updating the virtualization hosts. The solution must meet the visualization requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Cluster-Aware Updating
B. WSUS
C. System Center Updates Publisher 2011
D. System Center 2012 Configuration Manager
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You need to ensure that the developers can manage their own virtual machines.
Solution: You perform the following tasks:
– In Virtual Machine Manager, you create a new user role named DevUsers that uses the Application Administrator profile.
– You add the virtual machines to the DevUsers role.
– You grant Checkpoint permissions to the DevUsers role.
– You install and configure App Controller.
– You distribute the App Controller console URL to the developers.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 20 servers that run Windows Server 2012. The domain contains a Microsoft System Center 2012 infrastructure. A web application named WebApp1 is installed on the 20 servers. 70-414 dumps
You plan to deploy a custom registry key for WebApp1 on the 20 servers. You need to deploy the registry key to the 20 servers. The solution must ensure that you can verify whether the registry key was applied successfully to the servers.
What should you do? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. From Operations Manager, create a monitor.
B. From the Group Policy Management console, create a Group Policy object (GPO).
C. From Configuration Manager, create a Compliance Settings.
D. From Orchestrator Runbook Designer, create a runbook.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
HOTSPOT
You plan to configure Windows Network Load Balancing (NLB) for a company. You display following Network Load Balancing Manager window:

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that answers each question based on the information presented in the graphic.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 6
You need to automatically restart the appropriate web service on DETCRL01 and CHICRL01 if the web service is stopped.
Solution: You create a diagnostic task in SCOM and configure it to start the Server service.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You currently have an intranet web site that is hosted by two Web servers named Web1 and Web2. Web1 and Web2 run Windows Server 2012.
Users use the name intranet.contoso.com to request the web site and use DNS round robin.
You plan to implement the Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature on Web1 and Web2.
You need to recommend changes to the DNS records for the planned implementation.
What should you recommend?
A. Delete one of the host (A) records named Intranet. Modify the remaining host (A) record named Intranet.
B. Delete both host (A) records named Intranet. Create a pointer (PTR) record for each Web server.
C. Create a new host (A) record named Intranet. Remove both host (A) records for Web1 and Web2.
D. Create a service locator (SRV) record. Map the SRV record to Intranet.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
You need to recommend changes to the existing environment to meet the PII requirement.
What should you recommend?
A. In the Default Domain Policy, configure auto-enrollment for the S/MIME certificates from ProsewareCA.
B. Create an AD RMS cluster in Proseware, and then provision the user accounts in Proseware for the Fabrikam users.
C. Configure Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) in Fabrikam, and then install a web application proxy in Proseware.
D. In the Default Domain Policy, configure auto-enrollment for the S/MIME certificates from FabrikamCA.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
You need to recommend a network configuration for the newly deployed Hyper-V hosts used by Customer1.
On which network adapter should you recommend performing each configuration? 70-414 dumps To answer, select the appropriate network adapter for each configuration in the answer area.

Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 10
You need to recommend a solution to maintain a copy of App2. The solution must meet the application requirements and must minimize additional hardware purchases.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Single-site Failover Clustering
B. Hyper-V replicas
C. Multi-site Failover Clustering
D. Distributed File System (DFS) Replication
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
You need to recommend which type of clustered file server and which type of file share must be used in the Hyper-V cluster that hosts App2. The solution must meet the technical requirements and the security requirements.
What should you recommend?
A. A scale-out file server that uses an NFS share
B. A file server that uses an SMB share
C. A scale-out file server that uses an SMB share
D. A file server that uses an NFS share
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
You install the Service Manager Self-Service Portal on a server named CONTOSOSSP1.
Users report that they receive access denied messages when they try to connect to the portal. You must grant users the minimum required permissions. 70-414 dumps
You need to ensure that all users in the Contoso domain can access the Service Manager Self-Service Portal.
What should you do?
A. In Active Directory, create a new group named PortalUsers. Add the PortalUsers group to the Contoso\Domain Users group, and then add the group to the local users group on CONTOSOSSP1.
B. Using the account that you used to install the Self-Service portal, grant the Contoso\Domain Users group Read permissions to the portal.
C. In Service Manager, create a new user role named PortalUsers. Grant the PortalUsers role rights to all catalog items, and then add the Contoso\Domain Users Active Directory Domain Services group to the PortalUsers role.
D. Using the account that you used to install the Self-Serviceportal, grant the Contoso\Domain Users group Contribute permissions to the portal.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The network contains a server named Server1 that has the Hyper-V server role installed. Server1 hosts a virtual machine named VM1.
You deploy a new standalone server named Server2. You install the Hyper-V server role on Server2.
Another administrator named Admin1 plans to create a replica of VM1 on Server2. You need to ensure that Admin1 can configure Server2 to receive a replica of VM1.
To which group should you add Admin1?
A. Server Operators
B. Domain Admins
C. Hyper-V Administrators
D. Replicator
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Your network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012. Server1 and Server2 are connected to a Fibre Channel Storage Area Network (SAN). Server1 and Server2 are members of a failover cluster named Cluster1.
You plan to host the clustered File Server role on the nodes in Cluster1. Cluster1 will store application databases in shared folders. You need to implement a storage solution for Cluster1. The solution must minimize the amount of time the shared folders are unavailable during a failover.
What should you implement? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. An iSCSI Target Server cluster role in Cluster1
B. The Multi Path I/O (MPIO) feature on Server1 and Server2
C. A Virtual Fibre Channel SAN on Server1 and Server2
D. A Cluster Shared Volume (CSV) in Cluster1
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You plan to deploy an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) farm that will contain eight federation servers.
You need to identify which technology or technologies must be deployed on the network before you install the federation servers.
Which technology or technologies should you identify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Network Load Balancing (NLB)
B. Microsoft Forefront Identity Manager (FIM) 2010
C. The Windows Internal Database feature
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2012
E. The Windows Identity Foundation 3.5 feature
Correct Answer: AD

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