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Which approach describes the high-velocity Cisco Meraki sales cycle?
A. POC, QandA. Rollout
B. Compete Pilot, Support
C. Discover Design Demo
D. See, Try, Buy
Correct Answer: D
Question 2:
In which two ways can the Cisco Catalyst 1000 series of switches be managed? (Choose two )
A. Command-Line Interface
B. Mobile App
C. Cisco Prime
D. Cloud Managed E. On-box web Ul
Correct Answer: AE
Question 3:
Which Cisco-designed portfolio solution is best for a business of 50 users or less?
A. Meraki MX
B. Meraki Go
C. Firepower 10-10
D. Cisco Umbrella
E. Cisco AnyConnect
Correct Answer: B
Question 4:
How do Cisco Meraki devices behave if they are unable to contact the Meraki Cloud server?
A. The network devices continue to function normally (traffic flows at full line rate), but management and configuration functions are interrupted
B. The devices may be re-initiated into a backup mode if an administrator manually intervenes using a direct local connection
C. The network devices will attempt to establish a connection to a locally hosted database server that has been configured for high availability
D. The network stops passing traffic across all devices and their interfaces including any connected non-Cisco Meraki devices
Correct Answer: A
Question 5:
Which two features are included in every licensed MX security appliance as part of its unified threat management solution? (Choose two )
A. Stateless L3/L7 firewalls
B. OA (change of authorization)
C. SD-WAN
D. Umbrella integration (DNS firewall)
E. Auto VPN (site-to-site VPN)
Correct Answer: CE
Question 6:
Which two types of traffic does the Cisco UCS VIC card converge on a single adapter? (Choose two )
A. VXLAN
B. SAN
C. NVGRE
D. WAN
E. LAN
Correct Answer: AC
Question 7:
Which two products are considered a part of the Cisco Meraki full stack? (Choose two.)
A. MX security appliances
B. MR wireless access points
C. Catalyst switches
D. UCS servers
E. Aironet wireless access points
Correct Answer: AB
Question 8:
What are the three primary operating principles for the entire Webex platform? (Choose three ) A. Security
B. Satisfaction
C. Integration
D. Simplicity
E. Transparency
F. Privacy
Correct Answer: AEF
Question 9:
What are two customer benefits of Cisco Catalyst SMB switches? (Choose two )
A. logical upgrade and replacement for the Cisco Catalyst 2960-Plus. at the same price point
B. built for large-scale deployments
C. contains advanced encryption functionality
D. niche business functionality
E. cool, quiet fan-less design ideal for labs open spaces and the workplace
Correct Answer: CE
Question 10:
In the event an entire site went down: which activity does Cisco\’s HyperFlex Stretched Cluster still enable a user to do?
A. continue VM replication synchronously
B. access the entire cluster
C. access only the remaining node or nodes in the cluster
D. recover lost data
Correct Answer: B
Question 11:
What are the two most frequent attack vectors used in cyber attacks against small businesses? (Choose two.)
A. malware
B. viruses
C. social engineering
D. phishing
E. pop-ups
Correct Answer: BC
Question 12:
Which Cisco Catalyst 9800 controller supports the SD-Access deployment mode only?
A. Cisco Catalyst 9800-CL
B. Embedded Wireless on a Switch
C. Cisco Catalyst 9800-L
D. Embedded Wireless Controller on Access Points
Correct Answer: B
Question 13:
Which two firewalls form part of Cisco\’s SMB offering? (Choose two ) A. Cisco Firepower 1000
B. Cisco ISA
C. Cisco ISE
D. Cisco ASAv
E. Cisco Meraki MX
Correct Answer: AE
Question 14:
What are the primary functions of the Network Topology feature in the Meraki Dashboard?
A. It provides an intelligent mapping of physical links, dynamic device searching, and overall usage statistics and health status
B. It provides administrators optimization recommendations based on what has been detected in the existing topology
C. It is a diagramming and vector graphics application that consolidates Cisco Meraki-only devices into a summary document
D. It compiles a report presenting a variety of statistics broken out across product-specific sections based on the current network
Correct Answer: A
Question 15:
Which layout can Cisco Webex flexible video conference support?
A. active speaker video view where the participant talking will have the most prominent view on the screen
B. active-active video view where two participants can engage on-screen at the same time
C. presenter video view where the meeting host shares their desktop on the screen
D. grid view where the active speaker is visible and other participants show on the bottom strip
Correct Answer: A
…
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Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Reinstall Microsoft Teams.
B. On the Microsoft Teams Settings Notifications page, enable notifications.
C. In Registry Editor, navigate to Computer\HKEY_CURRENT_USER\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Office\Teams. Create a registry key named ChatNotifications and set the value to 1.
D. In the Windows settings Notifications and Actions menu, enable notifications.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen.
A user works from a remote location and has a LAN connection and a mobile internet connection. Each connection is provided by a different internet service provider.
The user can make and receive calls by using the LAN connection. The user cannot make or receive calls by using a mobile connection.
You need to determine the cause of the issue.
Solution: Confirm whether the user can communicate with external users.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. No
B. Yes
Correct Answer: B
New Question 5:
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen.
A Lead4Pass company has a Microsoft 365 subscription.
The company has a main office in one region. The company opens a new office in another region. You must relocate 400 users to the new office.
Solution: Create a configuration profile with the emergency address and assign the profile to the device for each user.
You manage the Microsoft Teams environment for a company.
A private channel is deleted. After 20 days, the channel owner restores the channel to retrieve a file. A user reports that they cannot access the SharePoint site for the channel.
You need to restore the SharePoint site that is associated with the private channel.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
New Question 10:
A Lead4Pass company has a Microsoft 365 subscription. The company implements a new security policy that has the following requirements:
1.
Guest users from specific domains must be allowed to collaborate by using Microsoft Teams.
2.
Guest users must be prevented from inviting other guests.
You need to recommend a solution to meet the security policy requirements.
What should you recommend?
A. Run the following PowerShell cmdlets: New-AzureADPolicy | Set-AzureADPolicy
B. From the Microsoft Teams admin center, modify external collaboration settings.
C. From Azure Active Directory, modify external collaboration settings.
D. From the Microsoft Teams admin center, modify the Communicate with Skype users option.
You manage the Microsoft Teams environment for a tenant.
Users report authentication issues. In the Azure AD admin center, you view many sign-in error codes.
You need to manually reset the Seamless Single Sign-on (SSO).
Which five actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
You are managing the Teams environment for a tenant with Microsoft Cloud App Security (MCAS) enabled. All users of the tenant can share and download files via Microsoft Teams person-to-person (P2P) private chat.
User1 can share files but when trying to download files shared by colleagues, the notification The files didn’t download. appears in the bottom right corner of the screen.
You need to determine the cause of this issue.
What is the cause of this issue?
A. User1 has a Microsoft Information Protection policy in place.
B. User1 has a Conditional Access session policy in place.
C. User1 has a Conditional Access session policy in place.
D. User1 has a data loss prevention (DLP) policy in place.
UserA works at CompanyA and UserB works at CompanyB. CompanyA configures Microsoft Teams to use Islands mode. the company configures Teams to use TeamsOnly mode. UserA sends a Teams message to UserB. User B receives the message. The following notification displays:
UserB selects the Continue your conversation here link. The following message displays in the new chat window: You need to provide a solution so that the two users can successfully communicate with each other.
What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Ask UserA to use Skype for Business to chat with UserB.
B. Ask UserA to change their coexistence mode to TeamsOnly.
C. Add the UserB domain to the allowed list.
D. Ask UserB to sign out and sign in to Teams.
E. Ask UserB to use Skype for Business to chat with UserA.
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An administrator is configuring NIP on Cisco ASA via ASDM and needs to ensure that rogue NTP servers cannot insert themselves as the authoritative time source Which two steps must be taken to accomplish this task? (Choose two)
A. Specify the NTP version
B. Configure the NTP stratum
C. Set the authentication key
D. Choose the interface for syncing to the NTP server
E. Set the NTP DNS hostname
Correct Answer: CE
NEW QUESTION 3:
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the function of the Python script code snippet for the Cisco ASA REST API?
A. adds a global rule into policies
B. changes the hostname of the Cisco ASA
C. deletes a global rule from policies
D. obtains the saved configuration of the Cisco ASA firewall
Correct Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 4:
An engineer notices traffic interruption on the network. Upon further investigation, it is learned that broadcast packets have been flooding the network.
What must be configured, based on a predefined threshold, to address this issue?
A. Bridge Protocol Data Unit Guard
B. embedded event monitoring
C. storm control
D. access control lists
Correct Answer: C
ExplanationStorm control prevents traffic on a LAN from being disrupted by a broadcast, multicast, or unicast storm on one of the physical interfaces.
A LAN storm occurs when packets flood the LAN, creating excessive traffic and degrading network performance. Errors in the protocol-stack implementation, mistakes in network configurations, or users issuing a denial-of-service attack can cause a storm.
By using the ” storm-control broadcast level [falling-threshold]” we can limit the broadcast traffic on the switch.
NEW QUESTION 5:
Which method is used to deploy certificates and configure the supplicant on mobile devices to gain access to network resources?
When configuring a remote access VPN solution terminating on the Cisco ASA, an administrator would like to utilize an external token authentication mechanism in conjunction with AAA authentication using machine certificates.
Which configuration item must be modified to allow this?
A. Group Policy
B. Method
C. SAML Server
D. DHCP Servers
Correct Answer: B
In order to use AAA along with an external token authentication mechanism, set the “Method” as “Both” in the Authentication.
NEW QUESTION 7:
Refer to the exhibit.
How does Cisco Umbrella manage traffic that is directed toward risky domains?
A. Traffic is provided through the intelligent proxy.
B. Traffic is managed by the security settings and blocked.
C. Traffic is managed by the application settings, unhandled and allowed.
D. Traffic is allowed but logged.
Correct Answer: B
NEW QUESTION 8:
What is the purpose of CA in a PKI?
A. To issue and revoke digital certificates
B. To validate the authenticity of a digital certificate
C. To create the private key for a digital certificate
D. To certify the ownership of a public key by the named subject
A. It collects telemetry data from servers and then uses software sensors to analyze flow information.
B. It collects policy compliance data and process details.
C. It collects enforcement data from servers and collects interpacket variation.
D. It collects near-real-time data from servers and inventories the software packages that exist on servers.
Correct Answer: A
NEW QUESTION 10:
Which two fields are defined in the NetFlow flow? (Choose two)
A. type of service byte
B. class of service bits
C. Layer 4 protocol type
D. destination port
E. output logical interface
Correct Answer: AD
Cisco standard NetFlow version 5 defines a flow as a unidirectional sequence of packets that all share seven values which define a unique key for the flow:+ Ingress interface (SNMP ifIndex)+ Source IP address+ Destination IP address+ IP protocol+ Source port for UDP or TCP, 0 for other protocols+ Destination port for UDP or TCP, type and code for ICMP, or 0 for other protocols+ IP Type of
ServiceNow: A flow is a unidirectional series of packets between a given source and destination.
NEW QUESTION 11:
An organization wants to secure data in a cloud environment. Its security model requires that all users be authenticated and authorized.
Security configuration and posture must be continuously validated before access is granted or maintained to applications and data.
There is also a need to allow certain application traffic and deny all other traffic by default.
Which technology must be used to implement these requirements?
A. Virtual routing and forwarding
B. Microsegmentation
C. Access control policy
D. Virtual LAN
Correct Answer: B
Zero Trust is a security framework requiring all users, whether in or outside the organization\’s network, to be authenticated, authorized, and continuously validated for security configuration and posture before being granted or keeping access to applications and data.
Zero Trust assumes that there is no traditional network edge; networks can be local, in the cloud, or a combination or hybrid with resources anywhere as well as workers in any location.
The Zero Trust model uses micro-segmentation — a security technique that involves dividing perimeters into small zones to maintain separate access to every part of the network — to contain attacks.
NEW QUESTION 12:
Which two characteristics of messenger protocols make data exfiltration difficult to detect and prevent? (Choose two)
A. Outgoing traffic is allowed so users can communicate with outside organizations.
B. Malware infects the messenger application on the user endpoint to send company data.
C. Traffic is encrypted, which prevents visibility on firewalls and IPS systems.
D. An exposed API for the messaging platform is used to send large amounts of data.
E. Messenger applications cannot be segmented with standard network controls
Correct Answer: CE
NEW QUESTION 13:
What is the purpose of the My Devices Portal in a Cisco ISE environment?
A. to register new laptops and mobile devices
B. to request a newly provisioned mobile device
C. to provision userless and agentless systems
D. to manage and deploy antivirus definitions and patches on systems owned by the end-user
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Free share of a portion of the CyberOps Professional 350-201 CBRCOR exam material
Number of exam questions
Exam name
From
Release time
15
Performing CyberOps Using Cisco Security Technologies (CBRCOR)
Lead4Pass
Sep 30, 2022
New Question 1:
Refer to the exhibit. A threat actor behind a single computer exploited a cloud-based application by sending multiple concurrent API requests. These requests made the application unresponsive. Which solution protects the application from being overloaded and ensures more equitable application access across the end-user community?
A. Limit the number of API calls that a single client is allowed to make
B. Add restrictions on the edge router on how often a single client can access the API
C. Reduce the amount of data that can be fetched from the total pool of active clients that call the API
D. Increase the application cache of the total pool of active clients that call the API
Correct Answer: A
New Question 2:
A threat actor attacked an organization\’s Active Directory server from a remote location, and in a thirty-minute timeframe, stole the password for the administrator account and attempted to access 3 company servers. The threat actor successfully accessed the first server that contained sales data, but no files were downloaded. A second server was also accessed that contained marketing information and 11 files were downloaded. When the threat actor accessed the third server that contained corporate financial data, the session was disconnected, and the administrator\’s account was disabled.
Which activity triggered the behavior analytics tool?
A. accessing the Active Directory server
B. accessing the server with financial data
C. accessing multiple servers
D. downloading more than 10 files
Correct Answer: C
New Question 3:
Refer to the exhibit. Cisco Advanced Malware Protection installed on an end-user desktop has automatically submitted a low prevalence file to the Threat Grid analysis engine for further analysis. What should be concluded from this report?
A. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise do not justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the scores do not indicate the likelihood of malicious ransomware.
B. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise do not justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the scores are high and do not indicate the likelihood of malicious ransomware.
C. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the scores are high and indicate the likelihood that malicious ransomware has been detected.
D. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the scores are low and indicate the likelihood that malicious ransomware has been detected.
Correct Answer: C
New Question 4:
The physical security department received a report that an unauthorized person followed an authorized individual to enter a secured premises. The incident was documented and given to a security specialist to analyze. Which step should be taken at this stage?
A. Determine the assets to which the attacker has access
B. Identify assets the attacker handled or acquired
C. Change access controls to high-risk assets in the enterprise
D. Identify the movement of the attacker in the enterprise
Correct Answer: D
New Question 5:
A new malware variant is discovered hidden in pirated software that is distributed on the Internet. Executives have asked for an organizational risk assessment. The security officer is given a list of all assets. According to NIST, which two elements are missing to calculate the risk assessment? (Choose two.)
Refer to the exhibit. At which stage of the threat kill chain is an attacker, based on these URIs of inbound web requests from known malicious Internet scanners?
A payroll administrator noticed unexpected changes within a piece of software and reported the incident to the incident response team. Which actions should be taken at this step in the incident response workflow?
A. Classify the criticality of the information, research the attacker\’s motives, and identify missing patches
B. Determine the damage to the business, extract reports, and save evidence according to a chain of custody
C. Classify the attack vector, understand the scope of the event, and identify the vulnerabilities being exploited
D. Determine the attack surface, evaluate the risks involved, and communicate the incident according to the escalation plan
Correct Answer: B
New Question 10:
A company recently completed an internal audit and discovered that there is a CSRF vulnerability in 20 of its hosted applications. Based on the audit, which recommendation should an engineer make for patching?
A. Identify the business applications running on the assets
B. Update software to patch third-party software
C. Validate CSRF by executing exploits within Metasploit
D. Fix applications according to the risk scores
Correct Answer: D
New Question 11:
An engineer is analyzing a possible compromise that happened a week ago when the company? (Choose two.)
A. firewall
B. Wireshark
C. autopsy
D. SHA512
E. IPS
Correct Answer: AB
New Question 12:
An organization had a breach due to a phishing attack. An engineer leads a team through the recovery phase of the incident response process. Which action should be taken during this phase?
A. Host a discovery meeting and define configuration and policy updates
B. Update the IDS/IPS signatures and reimage the affected hosts
C. Identify the systems that have been affected and tools used to detect the attack
D. Identify the traffic with data capture using Wireshark and review email filters
Correct Answer: C
New Question 13:
An engineer is going through vulnerability triage with company management because of a recent malware outbreak from which 21 affected assets need to be patched or remediated. Management decides not to prioritize fixing the assets and accepts the vulnerabilities.
What is the next step the engineer should take?
A. Investigate the vulnerability to prevent further spread
B. Acknowledge the vulnerabilities and document the risk
C. Apply vendor patches or available hotfixes
D. Isolate the assets affected in a separate network
Correct Answer: D
New Question 14:
The incident response team receives information about the abnormal behavior of a host. A malicious file is found being executed from an external USB flash drive. The team collects and documents all the necessary evidence from the computing resource.
What is the next step?
A. Conduct a risk assessment of systems and applications
B. Isolate the infected host from the rest of the subnet
C. Install malware prevention software on the host
D. Analyze network traffic on the host\’s subnet
Correct Answer: B
New Question 15:
An organization had several attacks over the last 6 months and has tasked an engineer with looking for patterns or trends that will help the organization anticipate future attacks and mitigate them. Which data analytic technique should the engineer use to accomplish this task?
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New Question 1:
How does requesting a synchronous API operation differ from requesting an asynchronous API operation?
A. clients receive responses with a task id for further processing
B. clients subscribe to a webhook for operation results
C. clients poll for the status of the execution of operations
D. clients can access the results immediately
Correct Answer: C
New Question 2:
What are two advantages of YANG-based approaches for infrastructure automation? (Choose two.)
A. multi-platform vendor abstraction
B. compiles to executables that run on network devices
C. designed to reflect networking concepts
D. directly maps to JavaScript
E. command line is driven interface
Correct Answer: AC
New Question 3:
Which device is used to transport traffic from one broadcast domain to another broadcast domain?
A. layer 2 switch
B. proxy server
C. router
D. load balancer
Correct Answer: C
New Question 4:
Which service provides a directory lookup for IP addresses and host names?
A. DNS
B. NAT
C. SNMP
D. DHCP
Correct Answer: A
New Question 5:
Users cannot access a webserver and after the traffic is captured, the capture tool shows an ICMP packet that reports “time exceeded in-transit”. What is the cause of this webserver access issue?
A. A router along the path has the wrong time.
B. A router along the path is misrouting the packets in a wrong direction.
C. The server is too loaded and the connection could not be handled in time.
D. The server is too far away and the packets require too much time to reach it.
Correct Answer: B
New Question 6:
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the value of the node defined by this YANG structure?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D
New Question 7:
What is used in Layer 2 switches to direct packet transmission to the intended recipient?
A. MAC address
B. IPv6 address
C. spanning tree
D. IPv4 address
Correct Answer: A
New Question 8:
Users cannot access a webserver and after the traffic is captured, the capture tool shows an ICMP packet that reports “communication administratively prohibited”.
What is the cause of this webserver access issue?
A. An access list along the path is blocking the traffic.
B. Users must authenticate on the webserver to access it.
C. A router along the path is overloaded and thus dropping traffic.
D. The traffic is not allowed to be translated with NAT and dropped.
Correct Answer: A
New Question 9:
What is an advantage of a version control system?
A. facilitates resolving conflicts when merging code
B. ensures that unit tests are written
C. prevents over-writing code or configuration files
D. forces the practice of trunk-based development
Correct Answer: A
New Question 10:
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the result of executing this Ansible playbook?
A. The playbook copies a new start-up configuration to CISCO_ROUTER_01
B. The playbook copies a new running configuration to CISCO_ROUTER_01
C. The playbook backs up the running configuration of CISCO_ROUTER_01
D. The playbook backs up the start-up configuration of CISCO_ROUTER_01
Correct Answer: D
New Question 11:
A 401 HTTP response code is returned when calling a REST API. What is the error state identified by this response code?
A. The server cannot process the request as it has detected an issue in the request syntax or body.
B. The request has not been accepted because it requires authentication.
C. The sever accepted the request but the client is not authorized for this content.
D. The server cannot find the requested resource because the path specified is incorrect.
Correct Answer: B
New Question 12:
What is the first development task in test-driven development?
A. Write code that implements a desired function.
B. Write a failing test case for a desired function.
C. Reverse engineer the code for a desired function.
What is the purpose of a firewall in application deployment?
A. adds TLS support to an application that does not support it natively
B. limits traffic to only ports required by the application
C. provides translation for an application\’s hostname to its IP address
D. forwards traffic to a pool of instances of the application
Correct Answer: B
New Question 14:
A small company has 5 servers and 50 clients. What are two reasons an engineer should split this network into separate client and server subnets? (Choose two.)
A. Subnets will split domains to limit failures.
B. A router will limit the traffic types between the clients and servers.
C. Subnets provide more IP address space for clients and servers.
D. A router will bridge the traffic between clients and servers.
E. Internet access to the servers will be denied on the router.
Correct Answer: AB
New Question 15:
How does a developer create and switch to a new branch called “my-bug-fix” to develop a product fix?
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New Question 1:
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the potential threat identified in this Stealthwatch dashboard?
A. Host 10.201.3.149 is sending data to 152.46.6.91 using TCP/443.
B. Host 152.46.6.91 is being identified as a watchlist country for data transfer.
C. Traffic to 152.46.6.149 is being denied by an Advanced Network Control policy.
D. Host 10.201.3.149 is receiving almost 19 times more data than is being sent to host 152.46.6.91.
Correct Answer: D
New Question 2:
What does cyber attribution identify in an investigation?
A. cause of an attack
B. exploit of an attack
C. vulnerabilities exploited
D. threat actors of an attack
Correct Answer: D
New Question 3:
Refer to the exhibit.
An analyst received this alert from the Cisco ASA device, and numerous activity logs were produced. How should this type of evidence be categorized?
A. indirect
B. circumstantial
C. corroborative
D. best
Correct Answer: C
Indirect=circumstantail so there is no possibility to match A or B (only one answer is needed in this question). For sure it\’s not the BEST evidence – this FW data inform only of DROPPED traffic. If smth happened inside the network, presented evidence could be used to support other evidence or make our narration stronger but alone it\’s means nothing.
New Question 4:
What is a sandbox interprocess communication service?
A. A collection of rules within the sandbox that prevent communication between sandboxes.
B. A collection of network services that are activated on an interface, allowing for inter-port communication.
C. A collection of interfaces that allow for coordination of activities among processes.
D. A collection of host services that allow for communication between sandboxes.
Correct Answer: C
Inter-process communication (IPC) allows communication between different processes. A process is one or more threads running inside its own, isolated address space.
New Question 5:
A security specialist notices 100 HTTP GET and POST requests for multiple pages on the web servers. The agent in the requests contains PHP code that, if executed, creates and writes to a new PHP file on the web server. Which event category is described?
A. reconnaissance
B. action on objectives
C. installation
D. exploitation
Correct Answer: C
New Question 6:
What is the practice of giving an employee access to only the resources needed to accomplish their job?
A. principle of least privilege
B. organizational separation
C. separation of duties
D. need to know the principle
Correct Answer: A
New Question 7:
Refer to the exhibit.
What is the potential threat identified in this Stealthwatch dashboard?
A. A policy violation is active for host 10.10.101.24.
B. A host on the network is sending a DDoS attack to another inside host.
C. There are two active data exfiltration alerts.
D. A policy violation is active for host 10.201.3.149.
Correct Answer: C
New Question 8:
Which incidence response step includes identifying all hosts affected by an attack?
A. detection and analysis
B. post-incident activity
C. preparation
D. containment, eradication, and recovery
Correct Answer: D
3.3.3 Identifying the Attacking Hosts During incident handling, system owners and others sometimes want to or need to identify the attacking host or hosts. Although this information can be important, incident handlers should generally stay focused on containment, eradication, and recovery. https://nvlpubs.nist.gov/nistpubs/SpecialPublications/NIST.SP.800-61r2.pdf
The response phase, or containment, of incident response, is the point at which the incident response team begins interacting with affected systems and attempts to keep further damage from occurring as a result of the incident.
New Question 9:
Which metric in CVSS indicates an attack that takes a destination bank account number and replaces it with a different bank account number?
A. availability
B. confidentiality
C. scope
D. integrity
Correct Answer: D
New Question 10:
What is the difference between mandatory access control (MAC) and discretionary access control (DAC)?
A. MAC is controlled by the discretion of the owner and DAC is controlled by an administrator
B. MAC is the strictest of all levels of control and DAC is object-based access
C. DAC is controlled by the operating system and MAC is controlled by an administrator
D. DAC is the strictest of all levels of control and MAC is object-based access
Correct Answer: B
New Question 10:
What is vulnerability management?
A. A security practice focused on clarifying and narrowing intrusion points.
B. A security practice of performing actions rather than acknowledging the threats.
C. A process to identify and remediate existing weaknesses.
D. A process to recover from service interruptions and restore business-critical applications
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.brinqa.com/vulnerability-management-primer-part-2-challenges/ Vulnerability management is the “cyclical practice of identifying, classifying, prioritizing, remediating and mitigating” software vulnerabilities.[1] Vulnerability management is integral to computer security and network security, and must not be confused with Vulnerability assessment” source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vulnerability_management
New Question 12:
Which type of evidence supports a theory or an assumption that results from initial evidence?
A. probabilistic
B. indirect
C. best
D. corroborative
Correct Answer: D
Corroborating evidence (or corroboration) is evidence that tends to support a theory or an assumption deduced by some initial evidence. This corroborating evidence confirms the proposition. Cisco CyberOps Associate CBROPS 200-201 Official Cert Guide
New Question 13:
What is the difference between deep packet inspection and stateful inspection?
A. Deep packet inspection gives insights up to Layer 7, and stateful inspection gives insights only up to Layer 4.
B. Deep packet inspection is more secure due to its complex signatures, and stateful inspection requires less human intervention.
C. Stateful inspection is more secure due to its complex signatures, and deep packet inspection requires less human intervention.
D. Stateful inspection verifies data at the transport layer and deep packet inspection verifies data at the application layer
Correct Answer: B
New Question 14:
A company encountered a breach on its web servers using IIS 7 5 Dunng the investigation, an engineer discovered that an attacker read and altered the data on a secure communication using TLS 1 2 and intercepted sensitive information by downgrading a connection to export-grade cryptography. The engineer must mitigate similar incidents in the future and ensure that clients and servers always negotiate with the most secure protocol versions and cryptographic parameters. Which action does the engineer recommend?
A. Upgrade to TLS v1 3.
B. Install the latest IIS version.
C. Downgrade to TLS 1.1.
D. Deploy an intrusion detection system
Correct Answer: B
New Question 15:
During which phase of the forensic process is data that is related to a specific event labeled and recorded to preserve its integrity?
A. examination
B. investigation
C. collection
D. reporting
Correct Answer: C
…
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Lead4Pass Cisco CCIE Collaboration 350-801 dumps have been updated to include the most popular PDF files and VCE practice exam engine to help you practice with the newly updated Cisco CCIE Collaboration 350-801 exam questions!
Cisco CCIE Collaboration 350-801 dumps exam questions and answers:
New Question 1:
An administrator executes the debug ISDN q931 command while debugging a failed call. After a test call is placed, the logs return a disconnect cause code of 1. What is the cause of this problem?
A. The dialed number is not assigned to an endpoint. B. The destination number rejects the call. C. The destination number is busy. D. The media resource is unavailable.
An engineer configures a SIP trunk for MWI between a Cisco UCM cluster and Cisco Unity Connection. The Cisco UCM cluster fails to receive the SIP notification messages. Which two SIP trunk settings resolve this issue? (Choose two.)
A. transmit security status B. accept unsolicited notification C. allow charging header D. accept out-of-band notification E. accept out-of-dialog refer
Correct Answer: BE
New Question 3:
Which action enables Cisco MRA?
A. Cisco UCC Express clients can obtain VPN connectivity to Cisco UCC Enterprise. B. VPN connectivity can be established to Cisco UCM. C. Clients such as Cisco Jabber can use call control on Cisco UCM. D. Internal SIP clients registered to Cisco UCM can call external companies
Correct Answer: C
New Question 4:
How can an administrator stop Cisco Unified Communications Manager from advertising the OPUS codec for recording-enabled devices?
A. Route recorded calls through Cisco Unified Border Element because it does not support OPUS. B. Go to the phone\’s configuration page and set “Advertise OPUS Codec” to be “false”. C. Integrate the Cisco Unified CM with 3 recording solution that does not support OPUS. D. In CUCM Service Parameters set “Opus Codec Enabled” to “Enabled for all Devices Except Recording-Enabled Devices.”
The translation rule is configured on the voice gateway to translate DNIS.
What is the outcome if the gateway receives 0255-343-1234 as DNIS?
A. The translation is not matched because DNIS contains “-“. B. The translation is not matched because DNIS does not end with a “$”. C. The translation is matched and the translated number is 02553431234. D. The translation is matched and the translated number is 025553431234.
Correct Answer: C
New Question 7:
Which type of greeting in the Call Handler configuration in Cisco Unity Connection overtimes all other greetings?
A. holidays B. supervisory C. alternate D. priority
Correct Answer: C
New Question 8:
Which program is required to deploy the Cisco Jabber client on an on-premises Cisco collaboration solution?
A. Cisco Unity Connection B. Cisco Expressway-C C. Cisco UCM D. Cisco UCM IM and Presence
Correct Answer: C
New Question 9:
What does average rate limiting allow?
A. transmits traffic bursts up to the Bc size B. more traffic than the CIR to be sent when there is available bandwidth C. bandwidth up to the Be size D. traffic to burst to the Be size when there is available bandwidth
Correct Answer: D
New Question 10:
Refer to the exhibit. What is the registration state of the analog port in this debug output?
A. The MGCP Gateway is not communicating with the Cisco UCM. B. The analog port failed to register to Cisco UCM with an error code 200. C. The analog port is currently shut down. D. The analog port is registered to Cisco UCM.
Correct Answer: D
New Question 11:
An engineer encounters third-party devices that do not support Cisco Discovery Protocol. What must be configured on the network to allow device discovery?
A. LACP B. TFTP C. LLDP D. SNMP
Correct Answer: C
New Question 12:
Which two elements of a dial plan define the domains that are accessible and are assigned to an endpoint? (Choose two.)
A. Call Admissions Control B. Route patterns C. Calling Search Spaces D. Translation patterns E. partitions
Correct Answer: CE
New Question 13:
What is a characteristic of video traffic that governs QoS requirements for video?
A. Video is typically variable bit rate. B. Voice and video traffic are different, but they have the same QoS requirements. C. Video is typically constant bit rate. D. Voice and video traffic are the same, so they have the same QoS requirements.
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Cisco 350-401 exam questions online practice test:
Tips: Verify the answer at the end of the article
Question 1:
How does Cisco Trustsec enable more access controls for dynamic networking environments and data centers?
A. uses flexible NetFlow
B. assigns a VLAN to the endpoint
C. classifies traffic based on the contextual identity of the endpoint rather than its IP address
D. classifies traffic based on advanced application recognition
Question 2:
Which technology provides a secure communication channel for all traffic at Layer 2 of the OSI model?
A. MACsec
B. IPsec
C. SSL
D. Cisco Trustsec
Question 3:
What does Cisco DNA southbound APIs provide?
A. Interface between the controller and the network devices
B. NETCONF API interface for orchestration communication
C. RESful API interface for orchestrator communication
D. Interface between the controller and the consumer
The Southbound API is used to communicate with network devices.
Question 4:
Which NGFW mode block flows crossing the firewall?
A. Passive
B. Tap
C. Inline tap
D. Inline
Question 5:
Which two pieces of information are necessary to compute SNR? (Choose two.)
A. EIRP
B. noise floor
C. antenna gain
D. RSSI
E. transmit power
Question 6:
Which requirement for an Ansible-managed node is true?
A. It must be a Linux server or a Cisco device.
B. It must have an SSH server running.
C. It must support ad hoc commands.
D. It must have an Ansible Tower installed.
Question 7:
What is the difference between the enable password and the enable secret password when password encryption is enabled on an IOS device?
A. The enable password is encrypted with a stronger encryption method.
B. There is no difference and both passwords are encrypted identically.
C. The enable password cannot be decrypted.
D. The enabled secret password is protected via stronger cryptography mechanisms.
Question 8:
Refer to the exhibit.
Which configuration establishes EBGP neighborship between these two directly connected neighbors and exchanges the loopback network of the two routers through BGP?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Question 9:
In which part of the HTTP message is the content type specified?
A. HTTP method
B. URI
C. header
D. body
Question 10:
Which behavior can be expected when the HSRP versions are changed from 1 to 2?
A. Each HSRP group reinitializes because the virtual MAC address has changed.
B. No changes occur because versions 1 and 2 use the same virtual MAC OUI.
C. Each HSRP group reinitializes because the multicast address has changed.
D. No changes occur because the standby router is upgraded before the active router.
Question 11:
A response code of 404 is received while using the REST API on Cisco UNA Center to POST to this URI.
/dna/intent/api/v1 /template-programmer/project
What does the code mean?
A. The client made a request for a resource that does not exist.
B. The server has not implemented the functionality that is needed to fulfill the request.
C. The request was accepted for processing, but the processing was not completed.
D. The POST/PUT request was fulfilled and a new resource was created, Information about the resource is in the response body.
Question 12:
What is the structure of a JSON web token?
A. three parts separated by dots header payload, and signature
B. header and payload
C. three parts separated by dots version header and signature
D. payload and signature
Question 13:
Which OSPF network types are compatible and allow communication through the two peering devices?
A. broadcast to nonbroadcast
B. point-to-multipoint to nonbroadcast
C. broadcast to point-to-point
D. point-to-multipoint to broadcast
Question 14:
At which Layer does Cisco DNA Center support REST controls?
A. EEM applets or scripts
B. Session layer
C. YMAL output from responses to API calls
D. Northbound APIs
Question 15:
Which statement about agent-based versus agentless configuration management tools is true?
A. Agentless tools require no messaging systems between master and slaves.
B. Agentless tools use proxy nodes to interface with slave nodes.
C. Agent-based tools do not require a high-level language interpreter such as Python or Ruby on slave nodes.
D. Agent-based tools do not require the installation of additional software packages on the slave nodes.
……
Verify answer:
Numbers:
Answers:
Explain:
Q1
C
Q2
A
Q3
A
Q4
D
Firepower Threat Defense (FTD) provides six interface modes which are: Routed, Switched, Inline Pair, Inline Pair with Tap, Passive, Passive (ERSPAN).
When Inline Pair Mode is in use, packets can be blocked since they are processed inline When you use Inline Pair mode, the packet goes mainly through the FTD Snort engine When Tap Mode is enabled, a copy of the packet is inspected and dropped internally while the actual traffic goes through FTD unmodified
Q5
BD
signal-to-noise ratio (SNR) A measure of received signal quality, calculated as the difference between the signal\’s RSSI and the noise floor. A higher SNR is preferred.
Q6
B
Q7
D
Q8
A
Q9
C
Q10
A
Q11
A
The 404 (Not Found) error status code indicates that the REST API can\’t map the client\’s URI to a resource but may be available in the future. Subsequent requests by the client are permissible.
Q12
A
Q13
A
The following different OSPF types are compatible with each other:
+ Broadcast and Non-Broadcast (adjust hello/dead timers) + Point-to-Point and
Point-to-Multipoint (adjust hello/dead timers) Broadcast and Non-Broadcast networks elect DR/BDR so they are compatible. Point-topoint/ multipoint do not elect DR/BDR so they are compatible.
Q14
D
Q15
A
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Ccna FAQs: About, Value, Exam Material & labs
About 200-301 CCNA: What You Need to Know
Vendor:Cisco Exam Code: 200-301 Exam Name: Cisco Certified Network Associate Certification:CCNA Languages: English and Japanese Price: $300 USD Duration: 120 mins Number of Questions: 100-120 questions Passing score: 82% 200-301 dumps:https://www.lead4pass.com/200-301.html (CCNA exam dump maps to Cisco 200-301 CCNA exam objectives) Include 2022 Newest Simulation Labs 200-301 dumps (Number of Questions): 824 Q&A Last update time: Jun 26, 2022
Is CCNA worth it?
Yes, the CCNA is definitely worth it — it’s one of the best certifications a network administrator could earn at any point in their career. The CCNA is worth it because Cisco technology provides service provider and enterprise router solutions to nearly 40% of the world. Of course, there are plenty of non-Cisco networks, but there’s basically no other certification that can all at once prepare you for all the devices and jobs that the CCNA does.
Free share of a portion of the Cisco Certified Network Associate 200-301 exam material (Including labs Q7):
QUESTION 1:
Refer to the exhibit.
Each router must be configured with the last usable IP address in the subnet. Which configuration fulfills this requirement?
A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2:
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is asked to config router CB-R1 so that it forms an OSPF single-area neighbor relationship with CB-R2.
Which command sequence must be implemented to configure the router?
A. router ospf 10 network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.3 area 0 network 10.0.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
B. router ospf 10 network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.3 area 0 network 10.0.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
C. router ospf 10 network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.3 area 0 network 10.0.2.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
D. router ospf 10 network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.252 area 0 network 10.0.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 3:
Refer to the exhibit.
How many JSON objects are represented?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4:
Refer to the exhibit. Which two configurations would be used to create and apply a standard access list on R1, so that only the 10.0.70.0/25 network devices are allowed to access the internal database server? (Choose two)
A. R1(config)# interface GigabitEthernet0/0 R1(config-if)# ip access-group 5 out
B. R1(config)# access-list 5 permit 10.0.54.0 0.0.1.255
C. R1(config)# interface Serial0/0/0 R1(config-if)# ip access-group 5 in
D. R1(config)# access-list 5 permit 10.0.70.0 0.0.0.127
E. R1(config)# access-list 5 permit any
Correct Answer: AD
QUESTION 5:
Refer to the exhibit. What is the next hop for traffic entering R1 with a destination of 10.1.2.126?
A. 10.165 20.126 B. 10.165.20.146 C. 10.165.20.166 D. 10.165 20.226
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6:
Refer to the exhibit. The given Windows PC is requesting the IP address of the host at www.cisco.com. To which IP address is the request sent?
A. 192.168.1.226 B. 192.168.1.100 C. 192.168.1.254 D. 192.168.1.253
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 7*:
CCNA Lab simulation 6
All physical cabling between the two switches is installed. Configure the network connectivity between the switches using the designated VLANs and interfaces.
Configure VLAN 100 named Compute and VLAN 200 named Telephony where required for each task.
Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW2 to use the existing VLAN named Available.
Configure the connection between the switches using access ports.
Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW1 using data and voice VLANs.
Configure Ethemet0/1 on SW2 so that the Cisco proprietary neighbor discovery protocol is turned off for the designated interface only.
See the Explanation below.
A. Check the Explanation below B. Place Holder C. Place Holder D. Place Holder
Correct Answer: A
Answer as below configuration: on sw1 enable conf t vlan 100 name Compute vlan 200 name Telephony int e0/1 switchport voice vlan 200 switchport access vlan 100 int e0/0 switchport mode access do wr
on sw2 Vlan 99 Name Available Int e0/1 Switchport access vlan 99 do wr
QUESTION 8:
Drag and Drop Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 9:
DRAG DROP Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 10:
Drag and Drop Refer to Exhibit.
Rotor to the exhibit. The IP address configurations must be completed on the DC-1 and HQ-1 routers based on these requirements:
DC-1 Gi1/0 must be the last usable address on a /30
DC-1 Gi1/1 must be the first usable address on a /29
DC-1 Gi1/2 must be the last usable address on a /28
HQ-1 Gil/3 must be the last usable address on a /29
Drag and drop the commands from the left onto the destination interfaces on the right. Not all commands are used Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 11:
DRAG DROP Drag and drop the DNS lookup components from the left onto the functions on the right. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 12:
Drag and Drop An interface has been configured with the access list that is shown below.
On the basis of that access list, drag each information packet on the left to the appropriate category on the right. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 13:
Drag and Drop Drag and drop the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller security settings from the left onto the correct security mechanism categories on the right. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
Layer 2 Security Mechanism includes WPA+WPA2, 802.1X, Static WEP, CKIP while Layer 3 Security Mechanisms (for WLAN) includes IPSec, VPN Pass-Through, Web Passthrough …
What is the next hop for traffic entering CertBus-R1 with a destination of 10.1.2 126?
A. 10.165 20.126 B. 10.165.20.146 C. 10.165.20.166 D. 10.165 20.226
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 15:
An engineer has configured the domain name, user name, and password on the local router. What is the next step to complete the configuration tor a Secure Shell access RSA key?
A. crypto key Import rsa pem B. crypto key pubkey-chain rsa C. crypto key generate rsa D. crypto key zeroize rsa
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Next, I will share some Cisco 300-420 ENSLD Exam basics that you must know.
ENSLD is the abbreviation of the Designing Cisco Enterprise Networks exam name, and 300-420 is the exam code. For specific information, see:
Vendor:Cisco Exam Code: 300-420 Exam Name: Designing Cisco Enterprise Networks (ENSLD) Certification:CCNP Duration: 90 minutes Languages: English and Japanese Price: $300 USD
The 300-420 ENSLD Exam is just one step:
You must also know that the 300-420 ENSLD Exam is one of the Concentration exams. But if you want to get the CCNP Enterprise certification, you need to do it in two steps:
Step 1: Choose one of the following exams
300-410 ENARSI
300-415 ENSDWI
300-420 ENSLD
300-425 ENWLSD
300-430 ENWLSI
300-435 ENAUTO
Step 2: Take the Core exam, this step also includes your ticket to participate in the CCIE lab, provided you must pass the exam, but don’t worry, you can find the answer on the VCEcert 350-401 page.
350-401 ENCOR
Next, you can also get 300-420 free dumps of online exercises
QUESTION 1:
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must design an automatic failover solution. The solution should allow HSRP to detect a WAN 1 failure and initiate an automatic failover, making router R2 the active HSRP router. Which two solutions should the engineer choose? (Choose two.)
A. Implement Enhanced Object Tracking on roster R1 B. use a floating static route C. Implement IP SLA on router R1 D. Implement PBR on router R1 E. use IP source routing
Correct Answer: AC
QUESTION 2:
An engineer must design a VPN solution for a company that has multiple branches connecting to the main office. What are two advantages of using DMVPN instead of IPsec tunnels to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. support for AES 256-bit encryption B. greater scalability C. support for anycast gateway D. lower-traffic overhead E. dynamic spoke-to-spoke tunnels
Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 3:
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is designing an OSPF network for a client. Requirements dictate that the routers in Area 1 should receive all routers belonging to the network, including EIGRP, except the ones originated in the RIP domain. Which action should the engineer take?
A. Make area 1 an NSSA. B. Make area 1 a stub. C. Make area 1 a standard OSPF area. D. Make the area 1 router part of area 0.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 4:
Which NETCONF operation creates filtering that is specific to the session notifications?
A. B. C.
D.
Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 5:
A large chain of stores currently uses MPLS-based T1 lines to connect their stores to their data center. An architect must design a new solution to improve availability and reduce costs while keeping these considerations in mind:
1. The company uses multicast to deliver training to the stores. 2. The company uses dynamic routing protocols and has implemented QoS. 3. To simplify deployments, tunnels should be created dynamically on the hub when additional stores open. Which solution should be included in this design?
A. VPLS B. GET VPN C. DMVPN D. IPsec
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6:
An organization is designing a detailed QoS plan that limits bandwidth to specific rates. Which two parameters are supported by the traffic policing feature? (Choose two.)
A. violating B. marking C. shaping D. bursting E. conforming
Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 7:
An engineer is creating a design to enable IPv6 to run on an existing IPv4 IS-IS network. The IPv4 and IPv6 topologies will match exactly, and the engineer plans to use the same IS-IS router levels for each protocol per interface. Which IS-IS design is required?
A. multi-topology without enabling transition feature B. multi-topology with transition feature enabled C. single topology without enabling transition feature D. single topology with transition feature enabled
Which nonproprietary mechanism can be used to automate rendezvous point distribution in a large PIM domain?
A. Embedded RP B. BSR C. Auto-RP D. Static RP
Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9:
Which method does Cisco SD-WAN use to avoid fragmentation issues?
A. PMTUD is used. B. Access circuits are configured with 1600 byte MTU settings. C. Jumbo frames are enabled. D. Traffic is marked with the DF bit set.
A network engineer must improve the current IS-IS environment. The Catalyst switch is equipped with dual supervisors.
Each time a stateful switchover occurs, the network experiences unnecessary route recomputation. Which solution addresses this issue if the upstream router does not understand graceful restart messaging?
A. Enable IS-IS remote LFA FRR on both devices. B. Enable NSR on the switch. C. Enable NSF on the switch. D. Configure ISIS aggressive timers on both devices.
Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 11:
An engineer must design a multicast network for a financial application. Most of the multicast sources also receive multicast traffic (many-to-many deployment model). To better scale routing tables, the design must not use source trees.
Which multicast protocol satisfies these requirements?
Bidir-PIM is designed to be used for many-to-many applications within individual PIM domains. Multicast groups in bidirectional PIM mode can scale to an arbitrary number of sources without incurring overhead due to the number of sources.
QUESTION 12:
An engineer is working with NETCONF and Cisco NX-OS-based devices. The engineer needs a YANG model that supports a specific feature relevant only to Cisco NX-OS. Which model must the engineer choose?
A. Native B. IEEE C. OpenConfig D. IETF
Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13:
How is the sub-second failure of a transport link detected in a Cisco SD-WAN network?
A. Hellos are sent between the WAN Edge routers and the vSmart controller. B. BFD runs on the IPsec tunnels between WAN Edge routers. C. BGP is used between WAN Edge routers and the vSmart controller. D. Link state change messages are sent between vSmart controllers.
