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[2018 PDF Free Download] Best Cisco 700-039 Dumps Exam Training Resources And Youtube Shared (Q1-Q20)

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QUESTION 1
Which three statements are reasons why customers consider Cisco as their collaboration solutions partner? (Choose three.)
A. The Cisco collaboration portfolio is built on open standards and stands for collaboration interoperability.
B. The Cisco collaboration portfolio is exclusive to software rather than hardware solutions.
C. The Cisco collaboration portfolio is creatively designed with a single solution model that fits all customer choices.
D. Cisco has the most comprehensive collaboration portfolio and flexible delivery model offerings in the market.
E. Cisco is the market leader with the best-in-class telephony, conferencing, and video solutions.
F. The Cisco comprehensive and flexible collaboration portfolio is lowest-priced option when compared to competitors
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 2
Where will an account manager find the largest source of case studies, whitepapers, demos, and verticaloriented Information around Cisco Collaboration?
A. Collaboration Use Case
B. QuickStart for Cisco Collaboration
C. Cisco Competitive Edge Portal
D. Steps to Success
E. Cisco Collaboration business case
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 3
Once you define the customer’s value chain, you will be able to identify departments managing core processes where the Cisco Collaboration Architecture will bring highest business value.
Which two of the following departments typically manage core processes? (Choose two.)
A. Procurement
B. Sales and Marketing
C. Logistics and Operations
D. HR Management
E. Research and Development
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
Which option leads to the development of high-level and detailed customer designs?
A. Mapping collaboration maps with the customer’s existing solutions
B. Mapping collaboration maps with the customer assessment procedure
C. Mapping collaboration maps with the customer business model
D. Mapping collaboration maps with the Cisco Collaboration Architecture solutions
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which two options represent the critical concerns of a desktop application manager regarding Cisco Collaboration Architecture? 700-039 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Implementing instant messaging can become a security threat. How secure is your Collaboration application?
B. I’m concerned about integration into our existing application infrastructure
C. Can your Collaboration application self-diagnose problems’?
D. I’m concerned about the reporting capabilities of your desktop collaboration application
E. Collaboration sounds sophisticated, but how does this support our sales force?
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 6
Which two statements indicate that the customer needs an infrastructure that can efficiently accommodate organizational changes? (Choose two.)
A. We need technology to dictate and lead business processes.
B. Collaboration applications must be flexible to quickly adapt to changes in user demand.
C. Collaboration equipment must be deployed at several locations and data centers.
D. The lifetime of any technology in our company is approximately two to three years
E. Future success of our company depends on operational agility.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 7
Security plays an essential role in the Cisco Collaboration Architecture In which layers of the Cisco Collaboration Architecture is security implemented?
A. Advanced Cisco security solutions are implemented in all layers of the Cisco Collaboration Architecture model.
B. Security is implemented in all the layers except in the medianet services interface layer.
C. Cisco security solutions are integrated into the infrastructure layer and partially into the collaboration services layer
D. Cisco provides advanced security solutions in the infrastructure and collaboration services layers while the collaboration applications layer security is ensured by third-party solutions.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which three statements are benefits of a financial analysis? (Choose three.)
A. It uses ROI measures that are always accepted by other stakeholders or the CFO.
B. It increases the size of the deal and the potential services revenue
C. It highlights strategic and tactical benefits.
D. It requires minimal resources and is risk-free
E. It encourages the customer to examine Cisco Unified Communications in more detail.
F. It is a simple process and it can be completed in time, well within the sales cycle.
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 9
Which two customer statements present business ROI? (Choose two)
A. With Cisco Collaboration, we can deploy Extension Mobility, which will allow employees to “touchdown” at any workspace
B. With Cisco Collaboration, we will engage quicker with third-party suppliers and will shorten go-tomarket time for innovative products globally
C. A Cisco Collaboration Architecture will improve our company’s morale
D. Cisco Telepresence can integrate with our existing video infrastructure
E. Cisco Collaboration helps us to increase the productivity of our sales force and to gain new revenue streams through new customers
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 10
Which two characteristics are differentiators for the Cisco ISR router compared to the competition? (Choose two.)
A. Decoupling the delivery of software from hardware on optional service modules
B. Integration of WLAN access points
C. Routes network traffic down alternative paths to avoid congestion, which switches cannot do
D. Support of analog voice connections
E. Operational simplicity through a single, universal Cisco IOS Software image. Services Ready Engine, EnergyWise innovations, and investment protection
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 11
Which two options apply when you have a meeting with the telecommunications manager of an organization? (Choose two.)
A. The telecommunications manager is concerned about how collaboration affects network management
B. The telecommunications manager is exclusively concerned with day-to-day issues, such as reporting, security, reliability, training, and processes.
C. The telecommunications manager could be resistant because the IT department gets authority over the new system.
D. The telecommunications manager’s major concern is the cost of the solution
E. The telecommunications manager may have a long-standing relationship with a PBX competitor
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 12
You are discussing Cisco Collaboration Architecture with the IT manager of an organization. Which three statements are effective responses that relate to the IT manager’s concerns? (Choose three)
A. Collaboration tools improve upon ways in which corporations can enforce employee accountability.
B. The Collaboration Architecture, by design, ensures the highest availability.
C. Improved collaboration tools improve the end-user experience and will make the IT manager more popular
D. A centralized Collaboration Architecture deployment will ease management and save money.
E. Initial costs may be higher, but comparing the Total Cost of Ownership over a five-year period will show that the Cisco product is less expensive.
F. A fully-deployed Collaboration Architecture supports efficient training in a variety of ways
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 13
Which three options are important selling points for Cisco against Microsoft? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco provides unparalleled value to the managed service provider.
B. Cisco routers represent a competitive edge in remote offices.
C. Cisco has the maturity both in technology development and empirical deployment to scale to the requirements of large enterprises.
D. Cisco is well respected and is the only serious choice in collaboration.
E. Cisco better enables for mobility and deskless workers.
F. Cisco Unified Presence can be integrated with Microsoft Office Communicator and Microsoft Lync.
Correct Answer: CEF

QUESTION 14
Which three options are ways that customers benefit from the Cisco Technology Developer Program? (Choose three.)
A. Opportunity to participate in Cisco research and development to develop next-generation Cisco Collaboration solutions
B. Exponentially expands the number and quality of rich, new business solutions
C. Display the Cisco Compatible logo in association with their product offering
D. Faster more successful deployments
E. Complete access to Cisco technologies and support resources
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 15
The Finance manager of an organization is concerned about switching their existing PBX to IP. Which response describes the value of the Collaboration Architecture?
A. Cisco and Cisco Partners have vast experience in smooth migration scenarios. Deployment has no risks
B. Collaboration Architecture is much more than just IP telephony. A fully-deployed solution optimizes business processes and enhances customer satisfaction.
C. Our competitors are sticking to PBX solution and are losing market share Collaboration is a risk-free approach.
D. Our solutions create a satisfied workforce, which results in higher productivity.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which two options are business requirements in the retail vertical market? (Choose two.)
A. Supply chain agility
B. Customer experience transformation
C. Customer intimacy
D. Increase employee productivity
E. Collaborative customer experience
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 17
Which of the following is the last step when mapping business requirements with Cisco Collaboration Architecture?
A. Map business model elements with the value chain.
B. Map important technical KPIs with customer process flow.
C. Map collaboration maps (diagrams) with Cisco Collaboration Architecture
D. Map process flow tasks with the collaboration map
E. Map value chain and value network with Cisco Collaboration Architecture applications
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Which digital signaling is correctly mapped to its functionality? 700-039 dumps
A. T1 PRI NFAS – Used to connect to the PSTN where caller ID is required and PRI is not an option
B. T1 CAS – Used widely in North America to connect to the PSTN or PBXs
C. T1 FGD – Uses a single D channel to control multiple spans of T1s with only B channels option
D. T1 and E1 PRI – Uses the Q Signaling variation of the basic ISDN specification
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Which statement about Cisco WebEx Meeting Center is true?
A. It is fully scalable, is delivered entirely over the public internet, and is optimized for security, performance, and reliability.
B. It is powered by Jabber XMPP and can be used for one-on-one or group chat and File transfers.
C. It is an award-winning flagship product that simulates a traditional live meeting in an online environment.
D. It displays life-size, remarkably clear video images, which provide a “face-to-face” meeting with remote customers, suppliers, and partners.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Which three statements describe Cisco Enterprise License Manager? (Choose three)
A. It enables customers to see whether they require additional licenses and how the purchased licenses are utilized.
B. It is centralized and free, and it manages licenses across multiple clusters through license management, reporting, and compliance systems.
C. It includes soft clients, applications server software, and licensing on a per-user basis.
D. It is available in Professional, Standard, and Entry Editions.
E. It is an enterprise-wide management tool for all Cisco Collaboration licenses
Correct Answer: ABE

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QUESTION 1
You deploy a website to Azure. When the website starts, it loads and caches common data.
Updates to the website must occur without downtime or performance degradation that is noticeable to users.
You need to upgrade to a new version of website code.
What should you do?
70-532 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
A small company with an in-house IT staff is considering implementing a new technology that their current IT staff is unfamiliar with. The company would like to implement the new technology as soon as possible but does not have the budget to hire new IT staff. Which of the following should the company consider?
A. Cloud computing
B. New hardware
C. Outsourcing
D. Virtualization
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
When using SaaS, the cloud computing vendor is responsible to maintain which of the following?
A. Client infrastructure
B. Client firewall
C. Updates and licenses.
D. Workstation OS version.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which of the following enables hardware independence?
A. In-sourcing
B. Outsourcing
C. Virtualization
D. Abstraction
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Virtualization is a conversion process that translates unique IT hardware into emulated and standardized software-based copies. Through hardware independence, virtual servers can easily be moved to another virtualization host, automatically resolving multiple hardware- software incompatibility issues. As a result, cloning and manipulating virtual IT resources is much easier than duplicating physical hardware.

QUESTION 5
You deploy an application as a cloud service in Azure.
The application consists of five instances of a web role.
You need to move the web role instances to a different subnet.
Which file should you update?
A. Service definition
B. Diagnostics configuration
C. Service configuration
D. Network configuration
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
You administer an Azure-based solution that performs image processing. You have four Standard D3 Azure Resource Manager (ARM) virtual machines (VMs). 70-532 dumps All VMs are deployed in a Virtual Machine Scale Set (VMSS).
The servers must scale up or down as the workload increases or decreases.
You need to configure auto-scaling to scale the VMSS when the server workload is above 95 percent or below 5 percent.
What should you do?
A. Navigate to the VM’s Size panel and increase the instance count.
B. Navigate to the VMSS Metric panel and add a new alert for the CPU Percentage Metric. Configure the alert to notify Via email.
C. Navigate to the VM’s Metric panel and enable diagnostics for basic metrics.
D. Navigate to the VMSS Metric panel and add a new alert for the CPU Percentage Metric. Configure the alert to notify via webhook.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which of the following cloud computing services requires the MOST involvement from a company’s in-house staff?
A. IaaS
B. MaaS
C. PaaS
D. SaaS
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) is an instant computing infrastructure, provisioned and managed over the Internet. Quickly scale up and down with demand, and pay only for what you use.
IaaS helps you avoid the expense and complexity of buying and managing your own physical servers and other datacenter infrastructure. Each resource is offered as a separate service component, and you only need to rent a particular one for as long as you need it. The cloud computing service provider manages the infrastructure, while you purchase, install, configure, and manage your own software–operating systems, middleware, and applications.

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is not a requirement for creating an online secondary for SQL Database?
A. The secondary database must have the same name as the primary.
B. They must be on separate servers.
C. They both must be on the different subscription.
D. The secondary server cannot be a lower performance tier than the primary.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
What are good recommendations for securing files in Blob storage? (Choose Three)
A. Always use SSL.
B. Keep your primary and secondary keys hidden and don’t give them out.
C. In your application, store them someplace that isn’t embedded in client-side code that users can see.
D. Make the container publicly available.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 10
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You administer an Azure environment that includes six Azure Resource Manager (ARM) virtual machines (VMs) that support development. The development team uses Azure SQL databases and Azure Queues for application storage. All Azure resources are grouped within a single subscription and resource group.
You need to reduce the recurring monthly Azure costs without degrading server performance. You must minimize the administrative effort involved.
What should you do?
A. Configure an auto-shutdown schedule for each VM by using the Azure Portal.
B. Update the development environment to use Azure Table storage.
C. Create an Azure Automation runbook that compresses unused virtual hard disk (VHD) files daily.
D. Create an Azure PowerShell script that backs up and deprovisions all Azure SQL databases daily.
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
You can set any ARM-based Virtual Machines to auto-shutdown with a few simple clicks. This was a feature originally available only to VMs in Azure DevTest Labs: your self-service sandbox environment in Azure to quickly create Dev/Test environments while minimizing waste and controlling costs. In case you haven’t heard it before, the goal for this service is to solve the problems that IT and development teams have been facing: delays in getting a working environment, timeconsuming environment configuration, production fidelity issues, and high maintenance cost. It has been helping our customers to quickly get “ready to test” with a worry-free self-service environment.

QUESTION 11
You are migrating an existing solution to Azure. The solution includes a user interface tier and a database tier. The user interface tier runs on multiple virtual machines (VMs). The user interface tier has a website that uses Node.js. The user interface tier has a background process that uses Python. This background process runs as a scheduled job. The user interface tier is updated frequently. The database tier uses a self-hosted MySQL database.
The user interface tier requires up to 25 CPU cores. You must be able to revert the user interface tier to a previous version if updates to the website cause technical problems. The database requires up to 50 GB of memory. The database must run in a single VM.
You need to deploy the solution to Azure.
What should you do first?
A. Deploy the entire solution to an Azure Web App. Use a web job that runs continuously to host the database.
B. Configure Microsoft Visual Team Services to continuously deploy the user interface tier to the Azure Web App service. Deploy the production builds and the staging builds of the user interface tier to separate slots.
C. Deploy the entire solution to an Azure Web App. Use a web job that runs continuously to host the user interface tier.
D. Deploy the user interface tier to a VM. Use multiple availability sets to continuously deploy updates from Microsoft Visual Studio Online.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
A company is designing a new web-based software application that must be highly available and resistant. Which of the following is the BEST environment for the application?
A. The primary instance of the application will be locally hosted with a weekly copy of the instance send to a cloud service provider.
B. The primary instance of the application will be locally hosted with a nightly file-level backup being performed to an off-site location.
C. The primary instance of the application will be running a cloud service provider’s hosted environment with a continuous backup to the company’s local infrastructure.
D. The primary instance of the application will be locally hosted with a nightly copy of the instance sent to a client service provider.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You develop an enterprise application that will be used only by the employees of a company. The application is not Internet-facing. You deploy instances of the application to Azure datacenters on two continents.
You must implement a load balancing solution that meets the following requirements:
Provide network-level distribution of traffic across all instances of the application.
Support HTTP and HTTPS protocols.
Manage all inbound and outbound connections.
Any back-end virtual machine (VM) must be able to service requests from the same user or client session.
Solution: You implement Application Gateway.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
Traffic Manager is also needed. It allows you to control the distribution of user traffic for service endpoints in different datacenters

QUESTION 14
You are developing a messaging solution to integrate two applications named WeatherSummary and WeatherDetails. The WeatherSummary application displays a summary of weather information for major cities. The WeatherDetails application displays weather details for a specific city.
You need to ensure that the WeatherDetails application displays the weather details for the city that the user selects in the WeatherSummary application.
What should you do?
A. Create an Azure Service Bus Queue communication. In the WeatherDetails application, implement the PeekLock method.
B. Create an Azure Service Bus Topics object. In the WeatherDetails application, create a filter.
C. Create an Azure Service Bus Relay object. In the WeatherDetails application, create a filter.
D. Create an Azure Service Bus Queue communication. In the WeatherDetails application, implement the ReceiveAndDelete method.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which of the following statements are correct for submitting operations in a batch? (Choose three.)
A. All operations have to be in the same partition.
B. Total batch size can’t be greater than 4 MB.
C. Max operation count is 100.
D. Minimum operation count is three
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 16
You administer an Access Control Service namespace named contosoACS that is used by a web application. ContosoACS currently utilizes Microsoft and Yahoo accounts.
Several users in your organization have Google accounts and would like to access the web application through ContosoACS.
You need to allow users to access the application by using their Google accounts.
What should you do?
A. Register the application directly with Google.
B. Edit the existing Microsoft Account identity provider and update the realm to include Google.
C. Add a new Google identity provider.
D. Add a new WS-Federation identity provider and configure the WS-Federation metadata to point to the Google sign-in URL.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Configuring Google as an identity provider eliminates the need to create and manage authentication and identity management mechanism. It helps the end user experience if there are familiar authentication procedures.

QUESTION 17
A graphic design company regularly runs out of storage space on its file servers due to the large size of its customer artwork files. The company is considering migrating to cloud computing to solve this problem. Which of the following characteristics of cloud computing is the MOST beneficial reason the company should implement a cloud solution?
A. Scalability
B. Security
C. Variable costs
D. Hardware independence
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
A company maintains an Azure storage account. The storage account uses blobs and tables.
Customers access the storage account by using shared access signatures (SASs). 70-532 dumps
You need to monitor the usage of the storage services. You need to do the following:
Which three data analysis tasks should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Use data from the logs of the storage services to find individual storage access attempts that do not comply with the SLA.
B. Use data from the logs of the storage services to calculate aggregate server latency across individual requests. Determine whether the results of this calculation indicate that the Azure Storage service is in compliance with the SLA.
C. Analyze the logs of the storage services to determine which storage services were inaccessible because of permissions issues.
D. Review the Azure documentation to determine which storage operations are billable. Then find records of those operations in the logs of the storage services.
E. Analyze the logs of the storage services to find records of operations that are marked as billable.
F. Correlate the data logged from the storage service with the permissions to store data in the individual blobs and containers. Determine which storage services were inaccessible because of permissions issues.
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 19
Which of the following should be measured with a direct cost chargeback method?
A. Power and cooling consumed
B. CPU cycles used
C. Technical staff
D. Square footage cost of the facility
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
CHARGEBACK METHODS
A range of approaches have been developed for implementing chargeback in an organization, as summarized in the figure below. The degree of complexity, degree of difficulty, and cost to implement decreases from the top of the chart [service-based pricing (SBP)], to the bottom [high-level allocation (HLA)]. HLA is the simplest method; it uses a straight division of IT costs based on a generic metric such as headcount. Slightly more effort to implement is low-level allocation (LLA), which bases consumer costs on something more related to IT activity such as the number of users or servers. Direct cost (DC) more closely resembles a time and materials charge but is often tied to headcount as well.

QUESTION 20
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have a web app that is deployed to Azure.
You need to download a compressed collection of the diagnostic logs.
What should you use?
A. Azure PowerShell
B. File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
C. Application Insights
D. Microsoft Visual Studio
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Diagnostic information stored to the web app file system can be accessed directly using FTP. It can also be downloaded as a Zip archive using Azure PowerShell or the Azure Command-Line Interface.

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Drag and drop the financial benefits on the left to the direct and indirect spaces on the right.
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QUESTION 11
Cisco Internet of Everything connects people, processes, things, and data. Which two of its characteristics have an impact on businesses? (Choose two.)
A. Leveraging data into more useful information for decision-making
B. Connecting people for measuring services’ usage trends
C. Delivering the solutions and products to the right person at the right time
D. Having physical devices and objects connected to the Internet and to each other for intelligent decision making
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 12
How could IT as a Service help drive business outcomes?
A. By the fast technology acquisition options for the customers.
B. Providing an organization with the right to use the technology and service without the need for purchasing it.
C. Providing an organization with various options for the types of services to deploy.
D. Depending upon what the business is seeking, each type of service has different financial implications for business outcomes.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which two options are benefits of Cisco’s overall portfolio with respect to the set of buyers? (Choose two.)
A. increased business performance
B. enhanced accountability
C. real-time business intelligence
D. higher service availability
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 14
Which three options are examples of KPIs for Business Outcomes? (Choose three.)
A. Improved customer satisfaction
B. Increased IT service performance
C. Lower IT asset obsolescence
D. Revenue growth
E. Lower OPEX
F. Increased IT asset utilization
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 15
Which options are three examples of Critical Success Factors? (Choose three.)
A. Increasing manufacturing efficiency at a rate above increases in supplies
B. Attracting and retaining more highly qualified staff versus competitors
C. Providing a holistic perspective to the core business drivers and business outcomes
D. Matching customer retention rate to customer retention objective
E. Selling a greater share of profitable products to our customers
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 16
What is ROI?
A. It is defined as the financial benefits derived from services and solutions, and it is expressed as a percentage of dividing present value from a technology solution by the cost of that technology solution.
B. It is defined as the financial benefits derived from services and solutions, and it is expressed as a percentage of dividing total investment from a technology solution by the cost of that technology solution.
C. It is defined as the financial benefits derived from services and solutions, and it is expressed as a percentage of dividing net return from a technology solution by the margin of that technology solution.
D. It is defined as the financial benefits derived from services and solutions, and it is expressed as a percentage of dividing net return from a technology solution by the cost of that technology solution.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Which categories can collaboration help achieve business goals for the customer?
A. Innovation, Industries, Incentives.
B. Line of Business, Vertical, Business Outcome.
C. Industry markets, Business Outcome, Technology Innovation.
D. Line of Business, Vertical, Business Value.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Which options are two benefits of understanding the customer’s business model? (Choose two.)
A. Understanding the customer’s business model changes the way you interact with your customer.
B. Understanding the customer’s business model provides control and assessment of project challenges.
C. Understanding the customer’s business model helps track progress through outcomes.
D. Understanding the customer’s business model is used to address the sales force mindset.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 19
KPIs are quantitative measurement of progress against the tactical goals of an organization. Which are three characteristics of KPIs? (Choose three.)
A. KPIs must be strategic and tactical in nature
B. KPIs can be financial, managerial, or operational
C. KPIs measure progress against goals
D. KPIs are set according to priorities: magnitude and urgency
E. KPIs define what needs to happen to achieve desired results in the time, budget, and level of expected quality
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 20
Which two options are features of Cisco SalesConnect? (Choose two.)
A. Ability to create personalized “briefcases” of content that you can save once, and access from any device.
B. Single place to find business proposals and instructor led training related to Cisco Partners.
C. Access to kits of bundled content including IOS images and more.
D. Trusted, up-to-date, and relevant content displayed using comprehensive, powerful search capabilities.
Correct Answer: AD

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QUESTION 1
Which option is an online conferencing solution that allows participants to see; hear and share content and applications in real time?
A. Cisco Unity
B. Cisco ISR with Conferencing service module
C. Borderless Networks
D. WebEx meetings
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which two Cisco ISR series are needed to support a Cisco Services-Ready Engine to deploy services on demand? (Choose two.)
A. 3900 Series
B. 2900 Series
C. 2800 Series
D. 800 Series
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
Which three business challenges do customers face that are addressed by Cisco architectural solutions? (Choose three.)
A. Guarantee reliability.
B. Improve workforce productivity.
C. Hire more staff.
D. Increase cash flow.
E. Deliver first-class offerings and experience to their clients.
F. Reduce total cost of ownership while maximizing the contribution of IT.
Correct Answer: BEF

QUESTION 4
Your customer is considering migrating to a Cisco Borderless Routing solution from their current vendor.
Which best practice can close the sale?
A. Show the customer a Cisco television commercial
B. Go through a check list and compare the performance capabilities between Cisco and the othervendor.
C. Mention that promotions and incentives are available through Cisco.
D. Demonstrate how the Cisco solution saves money by consolidating devices and integrating management.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which two product portfolios help make up the Cisco Office in a Box solution? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 3048
B. Cisco UCS C-Series Servers
C. Cisco UCS E-Series Servers
D. Cisco ISR 2900 and 3900 Series
E. Cisco Nexus 5000
F. Cisco ISR 1900, 2900 and 3900 Series
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 6
Which three options are considered common features of Cisco WebEx solutions? (Choose three.)
A. Document, application, and desktop sharing
B. Available in 226 languages
C. Scheduled and ad-hoc meetings
D. Consistent, cross-platform experience
E. Third-party voice included
F. Per-user attention status indicator
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 7
Which statement about the Cisco Meraki cloud architecture is true?
A. Devices are configured in the cloud on first use and then managed locally after they are set up.
B. All Meraki devices are managed locally by default.
C. Management data flows to the Cisco Meraki cloud and user traffic flows directly to its destination on the LAN or across the WAN.
D. All data flows through the Cisco Meraki cloud.
Correct Answer: CExplanation

QUESTION 8
Which two customer benefits can be realized with Cisco Unified Data Center? (Choose two.)
A. 50 percent faster disaster recovery
B. 50 percent less time in application deployment
C. 15 percent faster in application performance, 40 percent less in infrastructure costs
D. 60 percent less cost for cooling and power
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 9
Which two benefits will customers achieve if they upgrade to a properly configured Cisco Borderless Network? 700-505 dumps (Choose two.)
A. New application and service deployment is completely automated.
B. Network availability increases and downtime decreases
C. Security becomes less difficult to achieve
D. All potential failures will be eliminated.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 10
Which three options are business benefits of increased reliability? (Choose three.)
A. validates business decisions
B. protects revenue streams
C. reduces maintenance and network operation costs
D. increases business resilience
E. enhances career paths
F. promotes independence
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 11
Which two customer characteristics indicate an opportunity for Cisco Meraki cloud-managed networks? (Choose two.)
A. having networking experts on site
B. requiring a high degree of flexibility and customization
C. implementing data center or large campus deployments
D. having distributed sites and lean IT staff
E. moving applications to the cloud
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 12
Which resource should you use when you need to obtain current information about incentive programs and promotions?
A. Web search
B. Cisco Partner Central web site
C. 1-877-GO-CISCO
D. Your local Cisco sales engineer
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which three options are benefits to the partner in the Cisco Partner Program? (Choose three.)
A. drives growth and profitability
B. results in more individual Cisco career certifications (that is, CCNA, CCNP)
C. differentiates your business
D. provides access to promotions and incentives
E. partners receive free gear when they achieve certification
F. partner program enrollment increases
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 14
Which Cisco service is targeted for customers that want proactive monitoring?
A. SMARTnet
B. Small Business Support Service
C. SmartCare
D. Collaborative Professional Services
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Which statement about TrustSec is true?
A. It monitors all the devices on the network, and turns them off when they are not needed.
B. It provides a policy-based, scalable platform that offers integrated posture, profiling, and guest services to make context-aware access control decisions.
C. It provides secure rich-media and collaboration services to optimize real-time voice and video applications.
D. It provides defense against denial of service attacks.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which two options are benefits of the Cisco ASA 5500-X Series over the Cisco ASA 5500 Series? (Choose two.)
A. The Cisco IPS does not require an additional hardware module.
B. Cisco IPS throughput up to 650 Mb/s is provided.
C. The Cisco Content Security does not require an additional hardware module.
D. Firewall throughput up to 12 Gb/s is provided.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 17
Which two options are Cisco Telepresence multipurpose endpoint solutions for small and midsize business? (Choose two.)
A. Third-party videoconferencing endpoint
B. Cisco MX200
C. Cisco VCS
D. Cisco Profile 42
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 18
A customer wants to deploy a solution that requires high-quality video for full multimedia applications.
Which two Cisco Unified Communication endpoint solutions should you recommend? (Choose two.)
A. 8900 Series
B. 9900 Series
C. 3900 Series
D. 5900 Series
E. 6900 Series
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 19
Which three statements about the Cisco ISR G2 security solutions are true? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco ISR G2 security should only be deployed after a customer has rejected deploying Cisco ASA security.
B. Web Security Connected is delivered as a service module.
C. Software upgrades and reboots are needed to install security licenses.
D. Web Security Connected integrates with the Cisco ASA firewalls and the Cisco AnyConnect secure mobility client.
E. Cisco IPS network module can be added to the Cisco 2900 and 3900 Series routers.
F. Software licenses for security services include; IPsec/SSL VPN, Firewall, IPS.
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 20
Which statement about Cisco CleanAir technology is true?
A. It features chip-level proactive and automatic electronic beamforming.
B. It features automatic advanced radio frequency shaping.
C. It features chip-level proactive and automatic interference mitigation.
D. It is a feature of the Cisco Aironet 1600 Series AP 26
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
Which two product portfolios help make up the FlexPod Express solution? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco UCS C-Series Server
B. Cisco ISR 2900 and 3900 Series
C. Cisco Nexus 3048 Switch
D. Cisco UCS E-Series Servers
E. Cisco ISR 1900, 2900, and 3900 Series
F. Cisco Nexus 5000
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 22
Which Cisco Partner Sales Tool provides a single searchable location for sales guidance and technical details to help differentiate Cisco solutions from the competition?
A. Cisco Commerce Workspace
B. Competitive Portal
C. Quick Product Reference Guide
D. Cisco Discovery Service
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
Which three switching technology components distinguish Cisco from competing products? (Choose three.)
A. RSTP8021w
B. Universal PoE
C. medianet
D. Flexible NetFlow
E. Multiprotocol Label Switching
F. Gigabit Ethernet
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 24
Which four customer needs do Cisco architectures help solve? 700-505 dumps (Choose four.)
A. eliminate redundancy
B. guarantee business outcomes
C. increase ROID. reduce independence
E. provide reliability
F. slow staff growth
G. lower costs
H. boost productivity
Correct Answer: CEGH

QUESTION 25
In which two ways can Cisco solutions help resolve customer business challenges? (Choose two.)
A. by supporting BYOD and increased mobility
B. by providing a multisystem infrastructure that must be monitored and maintained by the IT staff
C. by providing improved collaboration and communication tools
D. by providing a complex borderless solution
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 26
Which three options are opportunities for partners to introduce Cisco Meraki products to existing or prospective customers? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Meraki roadshow
B. Webinars with a free AP for qualified attendees IE
C. Cisco Meraki equipment rental program
D. Free mobile device management with Systems Manager
E. Free product trials
F. Free Cisco Meraki refurbished equipment
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 27
Which four product categories have Cisco Meraki cloud-managed offerings? (Choose four.)
A. IP telephones
B. Cisco Telepresence
C. Mobile device management
D. Switches
E. Security appliances
F. Servers
G. Storage
H. Wireless access points
Correct Answer: CDEH

QUESTION 28
Which statement about the Threat Operations Center is true?
A. It provides insight into threat trends and outlook
B. It provides 24×7 coverage in three centers.
C. It provides business hours global coverage
D. It provides only automatic rule creation and quality control.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
Which three options are customer benefits of implementing a Cisco Borderless switching solution? (Choose three.)
A. Spanning Tree
B. Smart Install
C. AutoSmartPorts
D. Smart CallHome
E. Solar-powered
F. Uninterruptable power
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 30
Which two options are advantages of Cisco Data Center solutions over the competition? (Choose two.)
A. end-to-end optimization
B. seamless installation
C. scalability without complexity
D. embedded self service
Correct Answer: CD

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QUESTION 1
Which two platforms are the first to be combined to make up the WebEx Meetings shared SaaS platform?
A. Cisco TelePresence Callway and WebEx Connect
B. Connect and WebEx
C. Quad and Cisco TelePresence Callway
D. WebEx Quad
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What is the maximum capacity of participants for a Cisco WebEx Meeting Center and Training Center meeting?
A. 250
B. 300
C. 400
D. 500
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Your primary site becomes unavailable. Which one of these features enables you to automatically and transparently move all collaboration activity to the backup site, ensuring a seamless user experience?
A. medianet
B. GSB
C. WebEx One-Click
D. GDM
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
With regard to conference node redundancy, if a region requires 2400 G.711 ports, then how many nodes should it include?
A. Two nodes, each with a capacity of 1200 G.711 ports
B. Three nodes, each with a capacity of 1200 G.711 ports
C. One node with a capacity of 2400 G.711 ports
D. One node with a capacity of 1200 G.711 ports
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which two of these factors should be considered when determining the size of a conference system? (Choose two.)
A. future growth
B. service levels
C. location of participants
D. CapEx
E. node capacity
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 6
Which feature in Cisco WebEx Meeting Center allows you to collaboratively brainstorm ideas and take notes?
A. integrated audio and VoIP
B. whiteboard
C. Network-Based Recording
D. WebEx One-Click
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which three host capabilities are available on WebEx for iPad? (Choose three.)
A. schedule, start, or cancel a meeting
B. invite attendees
C. pass presenter control
D. stream media from a PC
E. chat privately with attendees
F. run WebEx in the background
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 8
Which new WebEx feature allows for the main video to switch automatically to the present speaker, using voice activation?
A. Cisco TelePresence
B. Cisco ActivePresence
C. multipoint video
D. WebEx One-Click
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
One of the challenges of online training is measuring class effectiveness. Which two tools does Cisco WebEx Training Center use to measure this? 648-232 dumps (Choose two.)
A. visual attention indicator
B. polling
C. self-check quizzes
D. application sharing
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 10
You are late for a meeting and you missed the first half of the conversation. Which feature allows you to never miss the contents of a meeting?
A. Cisco ActivePresence
B. Network-Based Recording
C. hands-on labs
D. breakout sessions
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
What does the global attentiveness meter monitor?
A. if the attendee has the correct audio equipment
B. whether or not attendees are using external applications during the event
C. pre- and post-event reporting
D. event success
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which two of these statements best describe the benefits of the immersive customer service experiences that are offered by WebEx Support Center? (Choose two.)
A. Customer service representatives can provide more personalized service.
B. Customers can interact with the customer service representative from a mobile device.
C. Customer service representatives can increase the time spent with customers.
D. Customers can instantly view information that the customer service representative is sharing.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 13
What is the number one customer complaint surveyed by technical support organizations?
A. cost of service
B. time that it takes to resolve issue
C. lack of resolution
D. time that it takes to reach a service representative
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
What are the three ways that the WebEx Support Center improves key performance metrics for a business? (Choose three.)
A. increases first-call resolution percentage
B. lengthens average call handling time
C. drives in-person sales
D. shortens average wait time
E. improves customer satisfaction rating
F. increases time to resolution
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 15
What is the difference between HQ and HD video?
A. HQ video is 360p, while HD video is 720p or higher.
B. The terms are interchangeable.
C. HQ video is 720p, while HD video is 1080p or higher.
D. HQ video is 360p, while HD video is 1080p or higher.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Which one of these groups uses a specific transport protocol, such as RSVP, for signaling the metadata attributes and storing the information in the database?
A. consumers
B. producers
C. solution components
D. meeting clients
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
In which category does the Domain setting appear in the WebEx Administration Tool?
A. Customization
B. Enterprise Edition
C. Configuration
D. System Settings
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
What are trusted domains external to WebEx Connect?
A. whitelist domains
B. CSV files
C. blacklist domains
D. XMPP domains
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Which task cannot be done by the site administrator, but must be done by opening a request with the WebEx support team?
A. Update user accounts.
B. Deactivate user accounts.
C. Delete users.
D. Add users.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Why should policy groups be avoided when creating policies?
A. Policy groups are not supported.
B. There are possible performance impacts if not used correctly.
C. Policy groups keep the majority of users assigned to the top level group.
D. There is a limit to the number of users in a policy group.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
What should be enabled so that users do not have to enter their username and password?
A. SAML
B. IDP
C. Kerberos
D. Integrated Windows Authentication
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
If an Active Directory Federation Services customer chooses to enable IWA, what will WebEx Federated SSO use to take the Windows login from the PC directly, so that end users do not need to sign in at all?
A. WebEx One-Click
B. Kerberos integration method
C. SAML
D. IDM
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
Which group of administrative reports includes usage reports for Training Center, Support Center, and Event Center?
A. common usage reports
B. IM reports
C. Enterprise Edition reports
D. IM activity reports
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
Which issue should be escalated to Cisco Technical Support?
A. forgetting your login password
B. installing your WebEx client
C. troubleshooting UI configuration issues
D. new account request
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
648-232 dumps What should customers do to make a branding request?
A. Go into their account and fill out the specifications.
B. Call the WebEx support team.
C. Submit a support ticket.
D. Send the WebEx account manager an email message.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
How will the branding be displayed if you join a meeting on another company site?
A. It will show in text format only.
B. Branding will not be shown.
C. It will be shown by using two-level branding.
D. It will be shown using default settings.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
The WebEx event window has six principal interface areas. Drag and drop the area on the left to its function on the right.
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QUESTION 28
With encrypted audio conferencing, you can configure three different secure conferencing nodes. Drag the node on the left to its description on the right.
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Drag the implementation process on the left with its task on the right.
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Which description matches the steps involved in escalating WebEx issues? Drag the step on the left to its description on the right.
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You have a physical server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016 Server1 is a Hyper-V host.
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You plan to install the Hyper-V server role on VM1.
You need to ensure that you can configure VM1 to host virtual machines.
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Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series. 70-740 dumps
A company named Contoso, Ltd. has several servers that run Windows Server 2016.
Contoso has a Hyper-V environment that uses failover clustering and Windows Server Update Services (WSUS). The environment contains several Windows containers and several virtual machines.
The WSUS deployment contains one upstream server that is located on the company’s perimeter network and several downstream servers located on the internal network. A firewall separates the upstream server from the downstream servers.
You plan to deploy a human resources application to a new server named HRServer5.
HRServer5 contains a FAT32-formatted data volume.
The CIO of Contoso identifies the following requirements for the company’s IT department:
– Deploy a failover cluster to two new virtual machines.
– Store all application databases by using Encrypted File System (EFS).
– Ensure that each Windows container has a dedicated IP address assigned by a DHCP server.
– Produce a report that lists the processor time used by all of the processes on a server named Server1 for five hours.
– Encrypt all communication between the internal network and the perimeter network, including all WSUS communications.
– Automatically load balance the virtual machines hosted in the Hyper-V cluster when processor utilization exceeds 70 percent.
You need to create a Data Collector Set to meet the requirement for the processor time report.
What command should you run to create the Data Collector Set? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
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QUESTION 4
HOTSPOT
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016 Server1 has the Windows Application proxy role service installed.
You plan to deploy Remote Desktop Gateway (RD Gateway) services. Clients will connect to the RD Gateway services by using various types of devices including Windows, iOS and Android devices.
You need to publish the RD Gateway services through the Web Application Proxy.
Which command should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
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70-740 dumps
QUESTION 5
HOTSPOT
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016 Server1 has the Web Application Proxy role service installed.
You publish an application named App1 by using the Web Application Proxy.
You need to change the URL that users use to connect to App1 when they work remotely.
Which command should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
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QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso com The domain contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016.
Server1 has IP Address Management (IPAM) installed Server2 has Microsoft System Center 2016 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) installed.
You need to integrate IPAM and VMM.
Which types of objects should you create on each server? To answer, drag the appropriate object types to the correct servers Each object type may be used once, more than once, or not at all You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 7
HOTSPOT
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com The domain contains a domain controller named Server1 and a member server named Server2.
Server1 has the DNS Server role installed Server2 has IP Address Management lPAM installed The IPAM server retrieves zones from Server1 as shown in the following table.
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QUESTION 8
HOTSPOT
You have a server named Served that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has the Windows Application Proxy role service installed. You are publishing an application named.
App1 that will use Integrated Windows authentication as shown in the following graphic.
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Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic.
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QUESTION 9
HOTSPOT
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso com. The domain contains a DNS server named Server1.
You enable Response Rate Limiting on Server1.
You need to prevent Response Rate Limiting from applying to hosts that reside on the network of 10.0.0.0/24.
Which cmdlets should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
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QUESTION 10
HOTSPOT
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016 Server1 is a Hyper-V host.
You have two network adapter cards on Server1 that are Remote Direct Memory Access (RDMA) -capable.
You need to aggregate the bandwidth of the network adapter cards for a virtual machine on Server1. 70-740 dumps
The solution must ensure that the virtual machine can use the RDMA capabilities of the network adapter cards.
Which command should you run first? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
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QUESTION 11
HOTSPOT
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) farm.
You install Windows Server 2016 on a server named Server2.
You need to configure Server2 as a node in the federation server farm.
Which cmdlets should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
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QUESTION 12
DRAG DROP
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The functional level of the forest and the domain is Windows Server 2008 R2. All servers in the domain.
Run Windows Server 2016 Standard. The domain contains 300 client computers that run either Windows 8.1 or Windows 10.
The domain contains nine servers that are configured as shown in the following table.
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The virtual machines are configured as follows:
– Each virtual machine has one virtual network adapter.
– VM1 and VM2 are part of a Network Load Balancing (NLB) cluster.
– All of the servers on the network can communicate with all of the virtual machines.
You need to install the correct edition of Windows Server 2016 to support the planned changes for Server2, Server3, Server4, and Server5.
Which edition or editions should you choose for each server? To answer, drag the appropriate editions to the correct servers. Each edition may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
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QUESTION 13
HOTSPOT
Your network contains an Active Directory forest The forest contains one domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two domain controllers named DC1 and DC2. DC1 holds all of the operations master roles.
During normal network operations, you run the following commands on DC2:
Move-ADDirectoryServerOperationMasterRole -Identity “DC2” -OperationMasterRole PDCEmulator.
Move-ADDirectoryServerOperationMasterRole -Identity “DC2” -OperationMasterRole’RIDMaster DC1 fails.
You remove DC1 from the network, and then you run the following command:
Move-ADDirectoryServerOperationMasterRole -Identity “DC2” -OperationMasterRole SchemaMaster.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
Hot Area:
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QUESTION 14
HOTSPOT
You have a Windows Server 2016 failover cluster that has a cluster network named ClusterNetwork1.
You need to ensure that ClusterNetwork1 is enabled for cluster communication only. 70-740 dumps
What command should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:
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QUESTION 15
HOTSPOT
You plan to deploy three servers named Server1, Server2, and Server3 that will run Windows Server 2016. The servers will have the following disk configurations:
– Server1 will have a C: drive of 2 TB.
– Server2 will have two disks. The C: drive will be 2 TB. The D: drive will be 1TB. D: must support file system-based compression.
– Server3 will have two disks. The C: drive will be 2 TB. The D: drive will be 1TB and must support file-system based quotas.
Which file system can you use for each drive? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
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QUESTION 16
HOTSPOT
You have four servers named Server1, Server2, Server3, and Server4 that run Windows Server 2016.
Server1 and Server2 are nodes in a failover cluster named FC1. Server3 and Server4 are nodes in a failover cluster named FC2.
You add the cluster roles show in the following table.
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You add a file share named Share1 to FS1. You add a file share named Share2 to FS2.
Which UNC paths can you use to access each share? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
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QUESTION 17
DRAG DROP
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
On Server1, you create a Nano Server image named Disk1.vhdx.
You need to start Server1 by using Disk1.vhdx.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
70-740 dumps
QUESTION 18
DRAG DROP
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
Server1 allows inbound connectivity from all computers in the contoso.com domain.
Server1 has an IP address of 192.168.0.10.
Server1 hosts a Windows container named Container1. Container1 hosts a website that is accessible on port 80.
You need to ensure that you can use the Docker(?) client to manage Container1 from any computer in the domain.
Which four cmdlets should you run in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate cmdlets from the list of cmdlets to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
70-740 dumps
QUESTION 19
HOTSPOT
You have a four-node Hyper-V cluster named Cluster1.
A virtual machine named VM1 runs on Cluster1. VM1 has a network adapter that connects to a virtual switch named Network1.
You need to prevent a network disconnection on VM1 from causing VM1 to move to another cluster node.
What command should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 20
DRAG DROP
You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 hosts a virtual machine named VM1. VM1 runs Windows Server 2016. VM1 uses a VHD for storage.
The disk configuration of VM1 is shown in the exhibit.
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You need to increase the size of volume D to 400 GB.
Which cmdlets should you run on Server1 and VM1? To answer, drag the appropriate cmdlets to the correct servers. Each cmdlet may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:
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The Best Cisco CCDP 300-101 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (Q13-Q40)

QUESTION 13
Which command denies the default route?
A. ip prefix-list deny-route seq 5 deny 0.0.0.0/32
B. ip prefix-list deny-route seq 5 deny 0.0.0.0/8
C. ip prefix-list deny-route seq 5 deny 0 0 0.0/0
D. ip prefix-list deny-route seq 5 deny 0.0.0.0/16
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
300-101 dumps
Base on the output, which option is the next hop to get to the 130.0.1.0/24 network?
A. 10.30.30.1
B. 10.0.11.1
C. 10.20.20.1
D. 10.10.10.1
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which feature can mitigate fragmentation issues within network segments that are between GRE endpoints?
A. PMTU
B. ICMP DF bit
C. TCP Flow Control
D. TCP MSS
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
300-101 dumps
The excerpt was taken from the routing table of router SATX. Which option ensures that routes from 51.51.51.1 are preferred over routes from 52.52.52.2?
A. SATX(config-router)#distance 90 51.51.51.10.0.0.0
B. SATX(config-router)#distance 89.52.52.52.2 0.0.0.0
C. SATX(config-router)#distance 90.52.52.52.2 0.0.0.0
D. SATX(config-router)#administrative distance 91 51.51.510.0.0.0
E. SATX(config-router)#distance 89 51.51.51.10.0.0.0
F. SATX(config-router)#administrative distance 91 52.52.52.2 0.0.0.0
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which Cisco Express Forwarding table or tables hold forwarding information?
A. FIB table only
B. adjacency tables only
C. FIB and adjacency tables only
D. FIB,RIB, and adjacency tables
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
router eigrp 65535
no auto-summary
network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255
router ospf 1
network 192.168.5.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
passive-interface loopback0
redistribute eigrp 65535
If this configuration is applied to a device that redistributes EIGRP routes into OSPF. Which two statements about the behavior of the device are true? (Choose two)
A. EIGRP routes appears in the routing table as E2 OSPF routes
B. The device router ID is set to Loopback0 automatically
C. The device redistributes all EIGRP networks into OSPF
D. EIGRP routes appears in the routing table as N2 OSPF routes
E. The device redistributes only classful EIGRP networks into OSPF.
F. EIGRP routes appears as type 3 LSAs in the OSPF database.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 19
300-101 dumps
A network engineer has configured NTP on a Cisco router, but the time on the router is still incorrect.
What is the reason for this problem?
A. The router is not syncing with the peer, even though the NTP request and response packets are being exchanged.
B. The router is not syncing with peer, and the NTP request and response packets are not being exchanged.
C. The router is syncing with the peer, and the NTP request and response packets are being exchanged.
D. The router is dropping all NTP packets.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which two technologies can encapsulate an IPv6 payload in an IPv4 packet for transmission across a network? (Choose two)
A. L2TPv3
B. trunking
C. AToM
D. ISATAP
E. NAT-PT
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 21
300-101 dumps Which command do you enter to filter only routing updates that are sent through interface GigabitEthemet0/0?
A. R1(config-if)#passive-interface GigabitEthemet0/0
B. R1(config-router)#no passive-interface GigabitHthemet0/0
C. R1config-router)#passrve-interface GigabitEthemet0/0
D. R1(conffg-router)passive-interface default
E. R1(config-if)#passive-interface default
F. R1(config-router)#distribute-list 1 GigabitEthemet0/0 out
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
300-101 dumps
A network engineer is unable to make VRF lite EIGRP adjacency work.There is nothing wrong with communication between R1 and R2. What command will eliminate the issue when executed on both routes?
A. (config-router-if)autonomous-system 100
B. (config)#ip-multicast-routing
C. (config-vrf)#route-target both 100:1
D. (config-router-af)#network 209.165.202.128 0.0.0.31
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
What does the number 16 in the following command represent?
Router(config)#snmp-server user abed public v2c access 16
A. the mask of the files that are allowed to use community string public
B. the standard named access list 16, which contains the access rules that apply to user abed.
C. the number of concurrent users who are allowed to query the SNMP community
D. the user ID that is allowed to use the community string public
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
Which value does a point-to-point GRE tjunnel use to identify a peer?
A. MAC address
B. configured multicast address.
C. DLCI
D. IP address
E. VC ID
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
Which two statements about uRPF are true? (Choose two)
A. The Keyword any can be used with both strict mode and loose mode
B. Strict mode may drop legitimate traffic.
C. tt is enabled globally.
D. Strict mode is most appropriate for networks with asymmetric routing.
E. Loose mode may drop traffic when asymmetric routing occurs on the network
F. It is enabled on a per interface basis.
Correct Answer: BF

QUESTION 26
A network engineer is configuring a DHCP server to support a specialized application. Which additional DHCP feature must be enabled to support the delivery of various additional parameters to DHCP clients?
A. modules
B. vendor extensions
C. options
D. Scopes
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
In SNMP v3, which security level provides encryption of the data?
A. authMember
B. noAuthNoPriv
C. authNoPriv
D. authPriv
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Which three functionalities are specific to stateful NAT64? (Choose Three)
A. It requires IPv4-transalable IPv6 address
B. It requires either manual or DHCPv6 based address assignment for IPv6 host.
C. It helps ensure end-to-end address transparency and scalability
D. A state or bindings are created on every unique translation
E. it conserves IPV4 addresses
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 29
Which two options are components of a dual stack?(choose two)
A. EIGRP
B. OSPF
C. IPV6 traffic
D. IPv4 traffic
E. layer 3 switch
F. layer 2 switch
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 30
Which technology uses the many-to-one method of mapping IP addresses?
A. static NAT
B. dynamic NAT
C. NAT-PT
D. PAT
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 31
Which three statements about IPv6 EIGRP are true? 300-101 dumps (Choose Three)
A. EIGRP neighbor relationships are formed using the link-local address
B. EIGRP neighbor relationships can be formed only on the configured IPv6 address.
C. It supports ELM-64 addresses only.
D. EIGRP route advertisement is configured under the interface configuration
E. An IPv6 EIGRP router ID is required.
F. EIGRP route advertisement is configured under the ipv6 router eigrp configuration
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 32
300-101 dumps
A network engineer is working on the network topology and executes the command no ip split- horizon on interface S0/0 of the hum router. What is the result of this command?
A. A routing loop is created.
B. Each of the spoke routers can see the routes that are advertised from the other spoke routers
C. The Spoke routers can see the routes that are advertised by the hub router
D. The hub router can see the routes that are advertised by the spoke routers
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 33
300-101 dumps
All interfaces on each router are participating in the EIGRP 100 process. Interface Loopback 2 on HQR2 is currently in shutdown mode. An engineer issues the eigrp stub command on router BR1.
Which statements about the query messages sent from router HQ-R2 for a route to reach the 12.12.12.12/32 network is true?
A. Router HQ-R2 sends a query message to the feasible successor for a route to 12.12.12.12/32 network.
B. BR1 receives query messages from HQ-R2 for a route to 12.12.12.12/32 network
C. Router HQ-R1 receives query messages from HQ-R2 for a route to 12.12.12.12/32 network.
D. Router HQ-R1 and BR1 receives query messages from HQ-R2 for a route to 12.12.12/32 network.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 34
Which set of actions does a network engineer perform to set the IPv6 address of a DHCP relay server at the VLAN interface level?
A. Enter the VLAN interface configuration mode and define the IPv6 address of a DHCP relay server
B. Enter the global configuration mode and enable the IPv6 DHCP relay
C. Enter the global configuration mode, enable IPv6 DHCP relay from interface configuration mode and define the IPv6 address of a DHCP relay server
D. Enter the VLAN interface configuration mode, enable IPv6 DHCP relay, and define the IPv6 address of a DHCP relay server
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 35
which two types of authentication dose EIGRP offer ?(choose two)
A. TKIP
B. MD5
C. WPA
D. Plain text
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 36
Refer to the following
Logging Console7
Which option is one of the effects entering this command on a Cisco IOS router, with no additional logging configuration?
A. Debug messages can be seen on the console by enabling “terminal monitor.”
B. Debug messages are logged only on active console connections.
C. A user that is connected via SSH sees level 7 messages
D. The router can experience high CPU utilization
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 37
Which two options can you use to configure an EIGRP stub router? (Choose two)
A. summary-only
B. receive-only
C. external
D. summary
E. totally-stubby
F. not-so-stubby
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 38
After configuring the routes, the network engineer executes the show ip route command. What is the expected results?
A. Gateway of last resort is 10.0.2.1 to network 0.0.0.0 10.0.0.0/24 is subnetted, 2 subnets C 10.0.2.0is directly connected, FastEthernetO/O 10.0.1.0 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/l S”0.0.0.0/0[1/0] via 10.0.2.1(1/0] via 10.0.1.1
Router#
B. Gateway of last resort is 10 0.2 1 to network 0 0 00 10 0.0 0/24 is subnetted, 1 subnet C 10.0.2 isdirectly connected, FastEthernetO/O S 0.0.0 0/0 [1/0] via 10.0.2.1
Router#
C. Gateway of last report is not set
Router #
D. Gateway of test resort is 10.0.1.1 to network 0.0.0.0 10.0.0.0/24 is subnetted 1 subnet C 10.0.1.0 is directly connected FastEthernetO/1 S” 0.0.0?/0 [1/0] via 10.0.1.1
Router#
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 39
Which two statements about NTP stratum are true? 300-101 dumps (Choose two )
A. Stratum 15 indicates a device that is not synchronized
B. Stratum 1 devices receive their time from a peer that is connected directly to an authoritative time source.
C. The highest stratum level a synchronized device can have is 16
D. Stratum 2 devices receive their time from a peer that is connected directly to an authoritative time source
E. Stratum 0 devices are connected directly to an authoritative time source
F. Stratum 1 devices are connected directly to an authoritative time source
Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 40
Which technology dose Easy virtual network use?
A. MP-BGP
B. DMVPN
C. MPLS
D. VRF-Lite
Correct Answer: D

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The Best Cisco CCNP Collaboration 300-075 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (Q11-Q30)

QUESTION 11
When device mobility mode is enabled or disabled for a cluster, to which does the cluster setting apply?
A. all phones in the cluster that support device mobility
B. all phones in the cluster that subscribed to device mobility
C. mobile phones in the cluster that support device mobility
D. mobile phones in the cluster that are in default mode
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.
300-075 dumps
To stream multicast MOH to the remote site across the WAN, what should the minimum value for the Max Hops be configured as?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
The Max Hops field in the Music On Hold (MOH) Server Configuration window indicates the maximum number of routers that an audio source is allowed to cross. If max hops is set to zero, the audio source must remain in its own subnet. If max hops is set to one, the audio source can cross up to one router to the next subnet. Cisco recommends setting max hops to two.

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.
300-075 dumps
The HQ site uses area code 650. The BR1 site uses area code 408. The long distance national code for PSTN dialing is 1. To make a long distance national call, an HQ or BR1 user dials access code 9, followed by 1, and then the 10-digit number.
Both sites use MGCP gateways. AAR must use globalized call routing using a single route pattern. Assume that all outgoing PSTN numbers are localized at the egress gateway as shown in the exhibit.
How many route lists and route groups should be configured for AAR at a minimum?
A. a single route list with a local route group for each site
B. two route lists and two route groups for each site
C. a single route list and four route groups for each sitea
D. None. The AAR CSS can point directly to the route pattern.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit.
300-075 dumps
What must be configured on the HQ Cisco Unified Communications Manager to allow HQ users to dial the SAF learned directory number pattern 3XXX?
A. Route pattern 3XXX should be configured and made available to HQ users through the phone CSS.
B. Route pattern 3XXX should be configured and made available to HQ phone users through the phone AAR CSS.
C. The SAF partition assigned to the SAF learned patterns must be available to the HQ phone users through the phone CSS.
D. The SAF partition assigned to the SAF learned patterns must be available to the HQ phone users through the phone AAR CSS.
E. The SAF directory number pattern 3XXX will be made available to all users automatically as soon as the SAF partition is selected.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Incorrect answer: ABD
By adopting the SAF network service, the call control discovery feature allows Cisco Unified Communications Manager to advertise itself along with other key attributes.

QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit.
300-075 dumps
All HQ phones are configured to use HQ_MRGL and all BR phones are configured to use BR_MRGL. 300-075 dumps For the HQ phones always to use the hardware conference bridge as a first choice, which configuration should be implemented?
A. Ensure that both the hardware and software conference bridges are listed in the HQ_MRG. Ensure that the instance ID for the hardware conference bridge is 0.
B. Ensure that both the hardware and software conference bridges are listed in the HQ_MRG. The hardware conference bridge must be configured first.
C. Assign the hardware conference bridge to HQ_MRG. Configure a second HQ_MRG_2 and assign the software conference bridge to it. Add both the HQ_MRG and HQ_MRG_2 to the HQ_MRGL and list the HQ_MRG first.
D. Assign the hardware conference bridge to HQ_MRG. Configure a second HQ_MRG_2 and assign the software conference bridge to it. Configure an additional HQ_MRGL_2. Add the HQ_MRG to HQ_MRGL. Add HQ_MRG_2 to HQ_MRGL_2. The HQ_MRGL should be assigned to the HQ phones. The HQ_MRGL_2 should be assigned to the HQ device pool.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
To ensure that the hardware bridge is utilized first with all its resources BEFORE the software bridge is used … you need to have two separate MRG’s and list the hardware MRG 1st in the MRGL …

QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.
300-075 dumps
Which pattern will be advertised try the Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. 3XXX and the ToDID will be 0:.
B. 3XXX and the TnOID will be 0:44228822.
C. 3XXX and the ToDID will be 44228822.
D. 3XXX and the ToDID will be 0:+44228822.
E. 3XXX and the ToDID will be 0:+
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Incorrect answer: BCD
the number of digits that want stripped from the hosted DN if the call fails over to the PSTN.
Value can enter 0 and 16. Here 0 is defined.

QUESTION 17
Which task must you perform before deleting a transcoder?
A. Delete the dependency records.
B. Unassign it from a media resource group.
C. Use the Reset option.
D. Remove the device pool.
E. Remove the subunit.
F. Delete the common device configuration.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
What command is used to map internal extensions to the corresponding E.164 PSTN number when using Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express in SRST mode?
A. ephone-dn
B. dialplan-pattern
C. number
D. number-e.164
E. ephone-transnumber
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit.
300-075 dumps
The exhibit shows a SAF Forwarder configuration attached to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
Which minimum configuration for a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express SAF Forwarder is needed to establish a SAF neighbor relationship with this SAF Forwarder?
A. router eigrp SAF
i
service-family ipv4 autonomous-system 1
!
topology base
exit-sf-topology
exit-service-family
voice service saf
profile trunkroute 1
session protocol sip interface Loopback1 transport tcp port 5060 !
B. router eigrp SAF
!
service-family ipv4 autonomous-system 1
!
topology base
exit-sf-topology
exit- service-family
!
voice service saf
profile trunk-route 1
session protocol sip interface Loopback1 transport tcp port 5060 !
profile dn-block 1 alias-prefix 1972555
pattern 1 type extension 4xxx
!
profile callcontrol 1
dn-service
trunk-route 1
dn-block 1
dn-block 2
!
channel 1 vrouter SAF asystem 1
subscribe callcontrol wildcarded
publish callcontrol 1
!
C. router eigrp SAF
!
service-family ipv4 autonomous-system 1
!
topology base
exit-sf-topology
exit-service-family
!
D. None of above configurations contain sufficient information.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Incorrect answer: ABD
only following configuration is enough
router eigrp SAF
service-family ipv4 autonomous-system 1
exit-service-family

QUESTION 20
When multiple Cisco Extension Mobility profiles exist, which actions take place when a user tries to log in to Cisco Extension Mobility?
A. The login will fail because only a single Cisco Extension Mobility profile is allowed.
B. The user must select the desired profile.
C. The user must login to both profiles in the order they are presented.
D. The user may login to both profiles in any order.
E. Login will only be allowed to multiple profiles if the service parameter Allow Multiple Logins is enabled.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit.
300-075 dumps
300-075 dumps
300-075 dumps
When a call is placed from Phone 1 to Phone 2 and RSVP Agent 2 is not registered to Cisco Unified Communications Manager, what happens?
A. The caller hears a busy tone.
B. The call proceeds as normal since the location setting for the BR site is unlimited.
C. An RSPV call is attempted but fails. The call will fall back to local QoS.
D. the call fails.
E. The phone displays a message that advises the user that the call has been queued.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
Which configuration command disables the secondary dial tone on the branch office ISR for users calling from the PSTN into the branch office during a WAN failure? 300-075 dumps
A. direct-inward-dial
B. voice translation-rule
C. incoming called-number
D. application
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
What is the fastest way for an engineer to test the implementation of SRST in a production environment?
A. Shut down the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Servers.
B. Shut down the switch ports connected to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Servers.
C. Add a null route to the publisher Cisco Unified Communications Manager at the remote router. Remove the null route when the operation is verified.
D. Unplug the IP phones from their switch ports.
E. Verification is not needed.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
What is an advantage of TEHO?
A. TEHO implemented with ISRs eliminates PSTN toll charges.
B. TEHO implemented with ISRs can reduce PSTN toll charges.
C. TEHO implemented with AAR reduces toll charges.
D. TEHO implemented with CFUR reroutes calls.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit.
300-075 dumps
Assuming the regions configuration to BR only permits G.729 codec, how many calls are allowed for the BR location?
A. Total of four calls; two incoming and two outgoing.
B. Total of two calls in either direction.
C. Total of four calls to the BR location. Outgoing calls are not impacted by the location configuration.
D. Total of four calls in either direction.
E. Two outgoing calls. Incoming calls are unlimited.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
Incorrect answer: ABCE
In performing location bandwidth calculations for purposes of call admission control, Cisco Unified Communications Manager assumes that each G.729 call stream consumes 24 kb/s amount of bandwidth.

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.
300-075 dumps
What should the destination IP address be configured as on the HQ and BR1 SIP trunks?
A. The HQ SIP trunk destination IP address should be 10.1.6.10. The BR1 SIP trunk destination IP address should be 10.1.5.10.
B. The destination IP address is not configurable. Each cluster will learn about the remote trunk IP address through SAF learned routes.
C. The destination IP address will be learned automatically and configured on the SIP trunks after the Cisco Unified Communications Managers discover themselves.
D. The HQ SIP trunk destination IP address should be the HQ SAF Forwarder IP address. The BR1 SIP trunk destination IP address should be the BR1 SAF Forwarder IP address.
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
Incorrect answer: ACD
The gatekeeper changes the IP address of this remote device dynamically to reflect the IP address of the remote device.

QUESTION 27
How do RSVP-enabled locations differ from Cisco Unified Communications Manager locations?
A. RSVP is configured in the ISR independent of Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
B. RSVP enables AAR within Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
C. RSVP is topology aware.
D. RSVP is configured in Cisco Unified Communications Manager independent of the ISR.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Which two options are effective mechanisms to restrict the maximum number of voice calls on a WAN link? (Choose two.)
A. Configure a gatekeeper with an SIP trunk.
B. Configure a gatekeeper and a gatekeeper-controlled trunk in Cisco Unified Communications Manager with bandwidth control.
C. Configure Cisco Unified Communications Manager regions.
D. Configure Cisco Unified Communications Manager locations.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 29
Which statement about RSVP is true?
A. MTP is typically used for RSVP agent configuration.
B. If the RSVP agent cannot reserve the required bandwidth on first effort, it enables low latency queuing and tries to connect the call again.
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager uses the RSVP-configured bandwidth between sites as a method of determining if there is sufficient bandwidth for the call.
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager uses an RSVP-enabled infrastructure and an RSVP-controlled agent to request a bandwidth reservation from the network in order to place a call.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
300-075 dumps How is the region assigned to a device such as an IP phone?
A. Regions are assigned directly in the device configuration page.
B. Regions can be assigned only through a device pool.
C. Regions can be assigned either directly on the device configuration page or through the device pool. If both configurations exist, the device pool region configuration takes precedence.
D. Regions can be assigned either directly on the device configuration page or through the device pool. If both configurations exist, the device region configuration takes precedence.
Correct Answer: B

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The Best Cisco CCNP Collaboration 300-070 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (Q1-Q30)

QUESTION 1
Which statement about the relationship between gateways and route groups is true?
A. Each gateway can belong to only one route group and can be listed only once within that route group.
B. Each gateway can belong to only one route group and can be listed multiple times within that route group.
C. Each gateway can belong to multiple route groups and can be listed only once within each route group.
D. Each gateway can belong to multiple route groups and can be listed multiple times within each route group.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which dial plan function is used to restrict calls that are made by a lobby phone to internal extensions only?
A. Path selection.
B. Endpoint addressing.
C. Manipulation of dialed destination.
D. Calling privileges.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which two are enterprise parameters? (Choose two.)
A. User search limit
B. T302 parameter
C. Enable Call Detail Records
D. Enable Dependency Records
E. codecs parameters for voice media-streaming applications
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 4
A user’s phone Call Forward No Answer setting has been configured to forward to a hunt pilot. If all call hunting options have been exhausted and the Forward Hunt No Answer feature has been configured to use Personal Preference settings, to which of these will calls to this phone be forwarded?
A. the default destination configured under Service Parameters
B. any destination configured under the user’s DN Personal Settings configuration
C. the destination specified under the user’s Call Forward No Coverage settings
D. voice mail
E. no other destination; each call will continue to ring until the caller hangs up
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
You can implement the personal preferences option. To do so, configure a user phone so that the Forward No Answer field redirects the call to a hunt pilot, which searches for someone else to answer the call. If call hunting fails because all the hunting options are exhausted or because a timeout period expires, the call can be sent to a personalized destination for the person who was originally called. For example, if you set the Forward No Coverage field in the Directory Number Configuration page to a voice-mail number, the call will be sent to the voice mailbox of that person if hunting fails.

QUESTION 5
Which three are functions of Cisco Unified Border Element? 300-070 dumps (Choose three.)
A. client registration
B. H.323 and SIP interworking
C. Lync interworking
D. transcoding
E. phone proxy
F. mobile and remote access
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 6
Which configuration output indicates a properly configured T1 digital voice interface?
A. controller T1 0/0/0framing esflinecode b8zspri-group timeslots 1-24!
B. isdn switch-type primary-ni!controller T1 0/0/0framing esflinecode b8zs!
C. isdn switch-type primary-ni!controller T1 0/0/0framing esflinecode b8zspri-group timeslots 1-24isdn switch-type primary-ni!
D. isdn switch-type primary-ni!controller T1 0/0/0framing esflinecode b8zs!dial-peer voice 1 potsdestination-pattern 54….direction-inward.dialport 0/0/0:23
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
300-070 dumps
Which option is the most highly recommended option to install Cisco TelePresence Conductor on the virtual machine?
A. Thick Provision Eager Zeroed
B. Thick Provision Lazy Zeroed
C. Thick Provision
D. Thin Provision
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Callers inform you that they hear a second dial tone after dialing the number 4085550123. Which dial-peer configuration command resolves this issue?
A. answer-address 408555….
B. destination-pattern 91[2-9]..[2-9]…..
C. forwarddigits all
D. direct-inwarddial
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
An organization has built their video infrastructure to perform ad hoc video calls, but they also need to conduct managed video conference calls. Which hardware component is needed to conduct these calls?
A. VCS-E
B. IOS gateway
C. MCU
D. TelePresence server
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which command is used to enter the DSP farm profile configuration mode?
A. dspfarm-profile 100 transcode
B. dspfarmprofile 100 transcode
C. dspfarm profile 100 transcode
D. dspfarm 100 profile transcode
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Refer to Exhibit:
300-070 dumps
If the user at extension 1001 dials the user at extension 2002, which dial peer is used to route the call?
A. 3
B. 2
C. 4
D. 1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
You are a Network Engineer at ABC Company. You want to ensure that when the contact center agent for the company makes an external call, the extension 897 654 300 is displayed. How do you resolve this issue?
A. Configure a Line Text Label on the Directory Number configuration page.
B. Configure an external phone number mask on the Directory Number configuration page.
C. Configure a translation pattern with the pattern 897654300.
D. Configure an external phone number mask on the Device configuration page.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which three CLI commands allow you to verify the correct VoIP dial-peer matching? 300-070 dumps (Choose three.)
A. debug ccsip messages
B. debug voip ccapi inout
C. debug dialpeer match
D. debug voip dialpeer inout
E. show dialplan number
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit and configuration output.
300-070 dumps
A user in New York (5001) is trying to call a user in London (6001), but the call cannot be completed. Assuming that the WAN uplink is failing and the voice traffic has to go out toward the PSTN, which command do you need to add to dial peer to solve this issue?
dial-peer voice 3 pots
destination-pattern 6…
preference 1
port 0/0/0:23
dtmf-relay sip-notify
A. num-exp 512602 6001
B. prefix 757385
C. forward-digits 2
D. forward-digits 4
E. prefix 5126
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which two of these describe where phone services can appear on an IP phone and who can subscribe to phone services? (Choose two.)
A. end user
B. administrator
C. end user and administrator
D. Services button
E. Services and Directories buttons
F. Services, Directories, and Messages buttons
Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.
300-070 dumps
A Cisco Unified Communications Manager group is configured with the subscriber (10.1.5.3) listed first and the publisher (10.1.5.2) listed second. Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager is used for incoming calls through an MGCP gateway?
A. the publisher
B. both the publisher and subscriber in a round-robin format
C. the first server listed in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager group list
D. the subscriber
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which two of the following DSPs can be used in heterogeneous conferencing to achieve the required trans-sizing and transcoding functionality? (Choose two.)
A. PVDM3-256
B. PVDM2-256
C. PVDM-192
D. PVDM3-32
E. PVDM3-192
F. PVDM2-128
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 18
Managers have asked to be able to have an extension call them back if it is busy when they try to call it. In what two places can this feature be assigned to the Managers phone? (Choose two.)
A. Device Settings > Softkey Template
B. Device Settings > Default Device Profile Configuration
C. Device Settings > Phone Button Template
D. Device Settings > Device Profile
E. Device Settings > Device Defaults
F. Device Settings > Firmware Load Information
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 19
Which three elements are used to configure calling privileges? (Choose three)
A. Route pattern.
B. Calling search space.
C. Replica.
D. User.
E. Partition
F. Time schedule.
Correct Answer: BEF

QUESTION 20
Which two statements describe the function of the off-net option in a route pattern? (Choose two.)
A. The off-net option indicates that if a call is not routed through this route pattern, it is considered off the local network, or “off-net”.
B. This option could be used to block an external call from transferring to an internal party.
C. This option could be used to block an external call from transferring to an external party.
D. The off-net option indicates that if a call is routed through this route pattern, it is considered off the local network, or “off-net.”
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 21
What are two characteristics that are associated with the End User and User account types? (Choose two.)
A. They cannot use LDAP.
B. They are used to authorize applications.
C. They can utilize LDAP.
D. The Application is associated with the End User and User account types.
E. They can be listed in a directory.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 22
Refer to Exhibit:
300-070 dumps
If the user at extension 1001 dials the user at extension 2111, which dial peer is used to route the call?
A. 3
B. 2
C. 4
D. 1
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Refer to the exhibit. Bob has set his phone to forward calls to extension 5000. When a call is placed to extension 2000, which phone will ring?
300-070 dumps
A. Phone A
B. Phone B
C. Phone C
D. Phone D
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
Which two options are resources in a route list that route calls that match a defined route pattern? 300-070 dumps (Choose two.)
A. gateways
B. route groups
C. virtual machine servers
D. IP phones
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 25
Which statement about a partition is true?
A. A partition is a logical group of transformation patterns with similar accessibility characteristics.
B. A partition is a group of gateways with similar accessibility characteristics.
C. A partition is a logical group of directory numbers with similar accessibility characteristics.
D. A partition is a logical group of route patterns with similar accessibility characteristics.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
Which statement about translation patterns and transformation patterns is true?
A. Both transformation patterns and translations patterns support only numeric values.
B. Both transformation patterns and translations patterns support numeric and alphanumeric values.
C. Transformation patterns support numeric and alphanumeric values, whereas translations patterns supportonly numeric values.
D. Translation patterns support numeric and alphanumeric values, whereas transformation patterns supportonly numeric values.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
Which three Cisco Unified Communications Manager settings can be used to support IP phone services? (Choose three.)
A. Device Defaults
B. Enterprise Parameters
C. IP Phone Service Configuration window
D. Common Phone Profile
E. Service Parameters
F. Phone Configuration window
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 28
Refer to the exhibit.
300-070 dumps
A Network Administrator needs to create a SIP route pattern to communicate with Monterrey’s Gateway. The Administrator does not understand why this is not working properly. Which two statements explain the issue and resolve the problem? (Choose two.)
A. The Administrator needs to set up a SIP trunk between Monterrey’s Gateway and Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
B. The Administrator should type the reload command into Monterrey’s Gateway
C. The issue is caused by a failure of communication between the Monterrey’s Gateway and Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
D. The issue is caused by incorrect protocol integration between Monterrey’s Gateway and Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 29
If the route patterns 5XXX, 51XX, 513X and 5134 exist within a call route database, which pattern would be matched if the dialed number was 5324?
A. 5XXX
B. 51XX
C. 513X
D. 5134
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
You are a Voice Engineer at ABC Company. You want to provision a new voice gateway for a remote site, and you need to configure 24 channels of a T1 CAS interface. Which set is the correct set of commands for this configuration?
A. R1(config)# controller t1 1/0R1(config-controller)# framing esfR1(config-controller)# linecode b8zsR1(config-controller)# primary-group 1 timeslot 1-24 type fxo-loop-start
B. R1(config)# controller t1 1/0R1(config-controller)# linecode hdb3R1(config-controller)# framing crc4R1(config-controller)# clock source lineR1(config-controller)# ds0-group 1 timeslot 1-24 type fxo-loop-start
C. R1(config)# isdn switch-type primary-5essR1(config)# controller t1 t1/0R1(config- controller)# pri-group timeslots 1-24
D. R1(config)# controller t1 1/0R1(config-controller)# framing esfR1(config-controller)# linecode b8zsR1(config-controller)# clock source lineR1(config-controller)# ds0-group 1 timeslot 1-24 type fxo-loop-start
Correct Answer: D

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