Latest 200-301 Dumps & Free Online Practice | CCNA exam material

Latest 200-301 Dumps & Free Online Practice

The latest 200-301 dumps contain 1205 latest exam questions and answers, the Lead4Pass CCNA professional team has verified that it is actually effective and is the best exam material for the 2023 CCNA certification exam.

Use 200-301 Dumps with PDF and VCE: https://www.lead4pass.com/200-301.html (1205 Q&A), more portable and friendly to help candidates read and practice.

As well as sharing the latest 200-301 exam questions to help candidates practice their tests online.

CCNA Frequently Asked Questions (About, Value, Exam Material & labs) can view my past articles:

Other recommendations:

Candidates can also obtain CCNA certification exercises through Cisco official, you can click to view, his price is $79, 180 days of access rights, I believe it is useful, and he can help you improve.

2023 CCNA 200-301 Hot Topics

2023 CCNA 200-301 Hot Topics

From google, Quora, I found some new questions that everyone wants to ask in 2023

Will CCNA Change in 2023?

According to Cisco, the review, updates, and release dates for the new CCNA have been revealed. The updated CCNA exams are expected to be available from August 2023 to October 2023.

Can I pass CCNA in 3 months?

For a beginner, it’s possible to pass the CCNA within three months, but the question remains whether one’s studying merely to pass the exam or to build a strong foundation in networking and obtain CCNA certification, as these are two distinct goals.

Increasing your practice through study and practice is the best solution.

What are the career opportunities for CCNA certificate holders?

The holder of a CCNA certificate can enjoy numerous job benefits.

For instance, fresh graduates can increase their chances of being selected for interviews by human resources personnel by possessing a CCNA certificate.

Additionally, many companies either explicitly require or prioritize CCNA certificate holders when recruiting, which can provide a significant advantage during the interview process.

What is the salary of CCNA graduates?

Best Answer: (From Quora – Nikunj Krishna Rayal)

If you are CCNA certified and have only very basic knowledge, expect around 10K-12K per month if you have any small business.

15K-25K per month if you have any medium-sized company.

25K-35K per month if you have any larger companies.

200-301 online practice questions

The latest 200-301 online practice questions for 2023 are free to share:

TypeNumber of exam questionsExam nameExam codeAnswersLast updated
Free15Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions (CCNA)200-301View200-301 dumps
Question 1:
latest 200-301 online practice questions 1

Refer to the exhibit. What is the metric of the route to the 192.168.10.33/28 subnet?

A. 84

B. 110

C. 128

D. 192

E. 193


Question 2:

Refer to the exhibit.

latest 200-301 online practice questions 2

What does route 10.0.1.3/32 represent in the routing table?

A. the 10.0.0.0 network

B. a single destination address

C. the source 10.0.1.100

D. all hosts in the 10.0.1.0 subnet


Question 3:

Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?

A. local

B. mesh

C. flex connect

D. sniffer

In previous releases, whenever a FlexConnect access point disassociates from a controller, it moves to the standalone mode. The clients that are centrally switched are disassociated. However, the FlexConnect access point continues to serve locally switched clients. When the FlexConnect access point rejoins the controller (or a standby controller), all clients are disconnected and authenticated again. This functionality has been enhanced and the connection between the clients and the FlexConnect access points is maintained intact and the clients experience seamless connectivity. When both the access point and the controller have the same configuration, the connection between the clients and APs is maintained.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/wireless/controller/8-5/config-guide/b_cg85/flexconnect.html


Question 4:

Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol. SW1 is set to Dynamic Auto and SW2 is set to Dynamic Desirable. What is the result of this configuration?

A. The link becomes an access port.

B. The link is in an error-disabled state.

C. The link is in a down state.

D. The link becomes a trunk port.


Question 5:

An office has 8 floors with approximately 30-40 users per floor. What command must be configured on the router Switched Virtual Interface to use address space efficiently?

A. IP address 192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0

B. IP address 192.168.0.0 255.255.254.0

C. IP address 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.128

D. IP address 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.224

need IP count: 30-40 * 8 = 320 IP

255.255.254.0 – 510 IP


Question 6:

Refer to the exhibit. R1 has just received a packet from host A that is destined to host B. Which route in the routing table is used by R1 to reach host B?

latest 200-301 online practice questions 6

A. 10.10.13.0/25 [1/0] via 10.10.10.2

B. 10.10.13.0/25 [108/0] via 10.10.10.10

C. 10.10.13.0/25 [110/2] via 10.10.10.6

D. 10.10.13.0/25 [110/2] via 10.10.10.2


Question 7:

What is the purpose of using the First Hop Redundancy Protocol in a specific subnet?

A. Filter traffic based on destination IP addressing

B. Sends the default route to the hosts on a network

C. ensures a loop-free physical topology

D. forwards multicast hello messages between routers

FHRP is a layer 3 protocol whose purpose is to protect the default gateway by offering redundancy of the gateway in a subnet. This is achieved by allowing two or more routers to provide a backup for the first-hop IP router address. If a failure of an active router occurs, the backup router will take over the address. The routers negotiate their roles (Active/Standby) with each other by multicast hello messages to share the VIP (virtual IP address) between the FHRP routers. The terms Active/Standby vary between the different types of FHRP. The active router will act as the default gateway and the standby router acts as a backup to the active router.


Question 8:

Refer to the exhibit. All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. Which command sequence must be applied to complete the configuration?

latest 200-301 online practice questions 8

A. interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport trunk native vlan 10 switchport trunk allowed vlan 10,15

B. interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport mode trunk switchport trunk allowed vlan 10,15

C. interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport mode access switchport voice vlan 10

D. Interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport trunk allowed vlan add 10 vlan 10 private-vlan isolated


Question 9:

PC1 tries to send traffic to the newly installed PC2. The PC2 MAC address is not listed in the MAC address table of the switch, so the switch sends the packet to all ports in the same VLAN.

Which switching concept does this describe?

A. MAC addresses aging

B. MAC address table

C. frame flooding

D. spanning-tree protocol


Question 10:

Which two REST API status-code classes represent errors? (Choose two.)

A. 1XX

B. 2XX

C. 3XX

D. 4XX

E. 5XX


Question 11:
latest 200-301 online practice questions 11

Three switches must be configured for Layer 2 connectivity. The company requires only the designated VLANs to be configured on their respective switches and permitted across any links between switches for security purposes. Do not modify or delete VTP configurations.

The network needs two user-defined VLANs configured:

VLAN 110: MARKETING

VLAN 210: FINANCE

1.

Configure the VLANs on the designated switches and assign them as access ports to the interfaces connected to the PCs.

2.

Configure the e0/2 interfaces on Sw1 and Sw2 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

3.

Configure the e0/3 interfaces on Sw2 and Sw3 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

latest 200-301 online practice questions 11-1

See the below.

A. Check the below

B. Place Holder

C. Place Holder

D. Place Holder

Answer as below configuration:

Sw1

enbale config t Vlan 210 Name FINANCE Inter e0/1 Switchport access vlan 210 do wr

Sw2

Enable config t Vlan 110 Name MARKITING Int e0/1 Switchport acees vlan 110 do wr

Sw3

Enable config t Vlan 110 Name MARKITING Vlan 210 Name FINANCE Int e0/0 Switchport access vlan 110 Int e0/1 Switchport access vlan 210

Sw1

Int e0/1 Switchport allowed vlan 210

Sw2

Int e0/2 Switchport trunk allowed vlan 210

Sw3

Int e0/3 Switchport trunk allowed vlan 210 Switchport trunk allowed vlan 210,110


Question 12:

Refer to the exhibit. Which VLAN ID is associated with the default VLAN in the given environment?

latest 200-301 online practice questions 12

A. VLAN 1

B. VLAN 5

C. VLAN 10

D. VLAN 20


Question 13:

Which CRUD operation modifies an existing table or view?

A. read

B. create

C. replace

D. update


Question 14:

Refer to the exhibit. Which action is expected from SW1 when the untagged frame is received on the GigabitEthernet0/1 interface?

latest 200-301 online practice questions 14

A. The frame is processed in VLAN 1

B. The frame is processed in VLAN 11

C. The frame is processed in VLAN 5

D. The frame is dropped


Question 15:

Refer to the exhibit. The following must be considered:

1.

SW1 is fully configured for all traffic.

2.

The SW4 and SWS links to SW1 have been configured.

3.

The SW4 interface Gi0/1 and Gi0/0 on SW9 have been configured.

4.

The remaining switches have had all VLANs added to their VLAN database.

Which configuration establishes a successful ping from PC2 to PC7 without interruption to traffic flow between other PCs?

latest 200-301 online practice questions 15

A. SW4 interface Gi0/7 switchport mode trunk switchport trunk allowed vlan 108 ! interface Gi/0/2 switchport mode access switchport access vlan 14 SW11# interface Gi0/2 switchport mode trunk switchport trunk allowed vlan 14,108 ! interface Gi0/1 switchport mode trunk switchport trunk allowed vlan 14,108 SW9# interface Gi0/2 switchport mode access switchport access vlan 14

B. SW4 interface Gi0/2 switchport mode trunk

switchport trunk allowed vlan 14,108

SW11#

interface Gi0/2

switchport mode trunk

switchport trunk allowed vlan 14,108

!!

interface Gi0/1

switchport mode trunk

switchport trunk allowed vlan 14,108

SW9#

interface Gi0/2

switchport mode trunk

switchport trunk allowed vlan 14

C. SW4 interface Gi0/2 switchport mode trunk switchport trunk allowed vlan 14 SW11# interface Gi0/1 switchport mode trunk switchport trunk allowed vlan 14 SW9# interface Gi0/2 switchport mode trunk switchport trunk allowed vlan 108

D. SW4 interface Gi/0/2 switchport mode access switchport access vlan 14 SW11# interface Gi0/2 switchport mode trunk switchport trunk allowed vlan 14 ! interface Gi0/0 switchport mode access switchport access vlan 14 ! interface Gi0/1 switchport mode trunk SW9# interface Gi0/2 switchport mode access switchport access vlan 14

Verify answer:

NumberQ1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13Q14Q15
AnswersEACDBBDCADEAADCB

2023 Lead4Pass 200-301 dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/200-301.html, contains 1205 latest exam questions and answers, get exam materials, and practice all exam questions to ensure you pass the CCNA certification exam successfully.

Summarize:

This is the best solution for successfully passing the CCNA certification exam in 2023. The above answers the hot topics that candidates are most concerned about, provides the latest 200-301 dumps help materials, and free online practice questions, so that candidates can really solve their worries.

300-420 DUMPS 2023 UPDATE | CISCO 300-420 ENSLD EXAM MATERIALS

The 300-420 Dumps have been updated and are currently the most valid Cisco 300-420 ENSLD exam material.

Lead4Pass 300-420 dumps page https://www.lead4pass.com/300-420.html, you can find the Cisco 300-420 ENSLD exam information and download methods provided on the website,
You can choose PDF or VCE study tools, and choose according to your habits, this is the most popular way to study, help you improve your study progress, and successfully pass the Cisco 300-410 ENSLD Exam.

The Cisco 300-420 ENSLD Exam is a very good option to help you advance your career path, use the Lead4Pass 300-420 dumps to help you achieve your dreams.

300-420 exam details you should know:

Next, I will share some Cisco 300-420 ENSLD Exam basics that you must know.

ENSLD is the abbreviation of the Designing Cisco Enterprise Networks exam name, and 300-420 is the exam code. For specific information, see:

Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 300-420
Exam Name: Designing Cisco Enterprise Networks (ENSLD)
Certification: CCNP
Duration: 90 minutes
Languages: English and Japanese
Price: $300 USD

Share the latest 300-420 dumps exam questions and answers for 2023

TypeNumber of exam questionsExam nameExam codeLast updated
Free15Designing Cisco Enterprise Networks (ENSLD)300-420300-420 dumps
Question 1:

What is the advantage of designing an out-of-band network management solution?

A. In the event of a production network outage, network devices can still be managed.

B. There is no separation between the production network and the management network.

C. In the event of a production network outage, it can be used as a backup network path.

D. It is less expensive than an in-band management solution

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

How are wireless endpoints registered in the HTDB in a Cisco SD-Access architecture?

A. Fabric edge nodes update the HTDB based on CAPPWAP messaging from the AP

B. Fabric WLCs update the HTDB as new clients connect to the wireless network

C. Border nodes first register endpoints and then update the HTDB

D. Fabric APs update the HTDB with the clients\’ ElD and RLOC

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/CVD/Campus/cisco-sda-design-guide.html


Question 3:

Refer to the exhibit. Area 10 is a regular OSPF area and networks 10.1.1.0/24 and 172.16.1.0/24 are internal. Which design provides optimal routing between both networks when the link between routers C and E fails?

latest 300-420 dumps questions 3 for 2023

A. Move the link between routers C and D to area 10.

B. Create an OSPF virtual link between routers E and F.

C. Create a tunnel between routers E and F in area 10.

D. Make area 10 a not-so-stubby area.

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

At which layer does Cisco Express Forwarding use adjacency tables to populate addressing information?

A. Layer4

B. Layer 2

C. Layer 1

D. Layer 3

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

A company with multiple service providers wants to speed up BGP convergence time in the event a failure occurs with their primary link. Which approach achieves this goal and does not impact router CPU utilization?

A. Utilize BFD and tune the multiplier to 50

B. Lower the BGP hello interval

C. Decrease the BGP keepalive timer

D. Utilize BFD and keep the default BGP timers

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

Which component is part of the Cisco SD-Access overlay architecture?

A. border node

B. spine node

C. leaf node

D. Cisco DNA Center

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

Which consideration must be taken into account when using the DHCP relay feature in a Cisco SD-Access Architecture?

A. DHCP-relay must be enabled on fabric edge nodes to provide the correct mapping of DHCP scope to the local anycast gateway.

B. A DHCP server must be enabled on the border nodes to allow subnets to span multiple fabric edges.

C. DHCP servers must support Cisco SD-Access extensions to correctly assign IPs to endpoints in an SD-Access fabric with anycast gateway.

D. DHCP Option-82 must be enabled to map the circuit IP option to the access fabric node where the DHCP discovery originated.

Correct Answer: D

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/cloud-systems-management/network-automation-and-management/dna-center/tech_notes/sda_dhcp/b_cisco_sda_dhcp.html


Question 8:

Refer to the exhibit. The distribution switches serve as the layer 3 boundaries. HSRP preemption is enabled. When the primary switch comes back after a failure, traffic is initially dropped. Which solution must be implemented to improve the design?

latest 300-420 dumps questions 8 for 2023

A. Increase the hello timers on both HSRP devices

B. Use the preempt delay feature on the primary HSRP device.

C. Use the preempt delay feature on the backup HSRP device

D. Configure a higher mac-refresh interval on both HSRP devices

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

An organization plans to deploy multicast across two different autonomous systems. Their solution must allow RPs to:

1.

discover active sources outside their domain

2.

use the underlying routing information for connectivity with other RPs

3.

announce sources joining the group Which solution supports these requirements?

A. SSM

B. MSDP

C. PIM-DM

D. PIM-SM

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst9500/software/release/16-10/configuration_guide/ip_mcast_rtng/b_1610_ip_mcast_rtng_9500_cg/b_1610_ip_mcast_rtng_9500_cg_chapter_010001.pdf


Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

latest 300-420 dumps questions 10 for 2023

A network engineer is designing a network for AS100. The design should ensure that all traffic enters AS100 via link 1 unless there is a network failure. In the event of a failure, link 2 should function as the path for incoming traffic. Which solution should the design include?

A. Modify the next-hop attribute on R3.

B. Use AS-Path prepending on R3.

C. Modify the next-hop attribute on R4.

D. Use AS-Path prepending on R4.

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

An architect is working on a design to connect a company\’s main site to several small to medium-sized remote branches. The solution must include redundant WAN links, but the customer has a limited budget and wants the ability to increase the link speed easily in the future. QoS will not be on the branch routers so there is no need for consistent end-to-end QoS. Which solution does the architect propose?

A. dual-homed WAN MPLS with single-edge router

B. dual-homed Internet with a single edge router running a site-to-site VPN topology

C. dual-homed WAN MPLS and Internet links via dual-edge routers

D. dual-homed Internet with dual edge routers running a hub-and-spoke VPN topology

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

Which two statements about VRRP object tracking are true? (Choose two)

A. The priority of a VRRP device can change in accordance with the up or down status of a VRRP object

B. The VRRP interface priority must be manually configured by the administrator

C. A VRRP group can track only one object at a time

D. VRRP can track the status of interfaces and routes

E. VRRP supports only internal tracking

Correct Answer: AD

https://www.ciscolive.com/c/dam/r/ciscolive/emea/docs/2019/pdf/BRKCRS-2821.pdf


Question 13:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the elements from the left onto the YANG models where they and used on the right.

Select and Place:

latest 300-420 dumps questions 13 for 2023

Correct Answer:

latest 300-420 dumps questions 13-1 for 2023

Question 14:

An engineer must design a VPN solution for a company that has multiple branches connecting to a main office. What are the two advantages of using DMVPN instead of IPsec tunnels to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

A. support for AES 256-bit encryption

B. greater scalability

C. support for anycast gateway

D. lower traffic overhead

E. dynamic spoke-to-spoke tunnels

Correct Answer: BE


Question 15:

An engineer is upgrading a company\’s main site to include a connection to a second ISP. The company will receive full Internet routing tables from both ISPs via BGP. The engineer must ensure that the company does not become a transit autonomous system. Which solution should be included in this design?

A. Tag incoming routes from both ISPs with BGP community no-export.

B. Lower the MED for updates sent to the secondary ISP.

C. Use a route map to prevent all prefixes from being advertised to either ISP.

D. Modify the local preference for routes incoming from the primary ISP.

Correct Answer: A

The latest 300-420 dumps for 2023 contain 225 exam questions and answers, download 300-420 dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/300-420.html, and practice the target exam questions to help you pass the exam successfully.

Summarize:

Cisco certification is one of the highest gold content in the world, and it is very exciting to be a member of Cisco.

Cisco certification includes many core technologies, and Cisco 300-420 Designing Cisco Enterprise Networks (ENSLD) is one of them.

The content of Cisco certification has been upgraded and is committed to the forefront of the industry. It is not easy to obtain Cisco certification.

The new Cisco 300-420 dumps for 2023 cover new core exam questions and answers designed to help candidates practice and succeed on the exam.

Lead4Pass 700-755 dumps for 700-755 SBTO exam preparation material in 2022-2023

Lead4Pass 700-755 dumps are fully updated with the 50 latest exam questions and answers and are the best preparation material for the 2022-2023 700-755 SBTO certification exam.

Download the Lead4Pass 700-755 dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/700-755.html, use the PDF and VCE to study the complete exam questions and answers to ensure you pass the exam.

latest 700-755 exam questions and answers

Read some Lead4Pass 700-755 dumps exam questions and answers for free:

Number of exam questionsExam nameExam codeLast updated
15Cisco Small Business Technical Overview700-755700-755 dumps
Question 1:

Which approach describes the high-velocity Cisco Meraki sales cycle?

A. POC, QandA. Rollout

B. Compete Pilot, Support

C. Discover Design Demo

D. See, Try, Buy

Correct Answer: D

Question 2:

In which two ways can the Cisco Catalyst 1000 series of switches be managed? (Choose two )

A. Command-Line Interface

B. Mobile App

C. Cisco Prime

D. Cloud Managed E. On-box web Ul

Correct Answer: AE

Question 3:

Which Cisco-designed portfolio solution is best for a business of 50 users or less?

A. Meraki MX

B. Meraki Go

C. Firepower 10-10

D. Cisco Umbrella

E. Cisco AnyConnect

Correct Answer: B

Question 4:

How do Cisco Meraki devices behave if they are unable to contact the Meraki Cloud server?

A. The network devices continue to function normally (traffic flows at full line rate), but management and configuration functions are interrupted

B. The devices may be re-initiated into a backup mode if an administrator manually intervenes using a direct local connection

C. The network devices will attempt to establish a connection to a locally hosted database server that has been configured for high availability

D. The network stops passing traffic across all devices and their interfaces including any connected non-Cisco Meraki devices

Correct Answer: A

Question 5:

Which two features are included in every licensed MX security appliance as part of its unified threat management solution? (Choose two )

A. Stateless L3/L7 firewalls

B. OA (change of authorization)

C. SD-WAN

D. Umbrella integration (DNS firewall)

E. Auto VPN (site-to-site VPN)

Correct Answer: CE

Question 6:

Which two types of traffic does the Cisco UCS VIC card converge on a single adapter? (Choose two )

A. VXLAN

B. SAN

C. NVGRE

D. WAN

E. LAN

Correct Answer: AC

Question 7:

Which two products are considered a part of the Cisco Meraki full stack? (Choose two.)

A. MX security appliances

B. MR wireless access points

C. Catalyst switches

D. UCS servers

E. Aironet wireless access points

Correct Answer: AB

Question 8:

What are the three primary operating principles for the entire Webex platform? (Choose three ) A. Security

B. Satisfaction

C. Integration

D. Simplicity

E. Transparency

F. Privacy

Correct Answer: AEF

Question 9:

What are two customer benefits of Cisco Catalyst SMB switches? (Choose two )

A. logical upgrade and replacement for the Cisco Catalyst 2960-Plus. at the same price point

B. built for large-scale deployments

C. contains advanced encryption functionality

D. niche business functionality

E. cool, quiet fan-less design ideal for labs open spaces and the workplace

Correct Answer: CE

Question 10:

In the event an entire site went down: which activity does Cisco\’s HyperFlex Stretched Cluster still enable a user to do?

A. continue VM replication synchronously

B. access the entire cluster

C. access only the remaining node or nodes in the cluster

D. recover lost data

Correct Answer: B

Question 11:

What are the two most frequent attack vectors used in cyber attacks against small businesses? (Choose two.)

A. malware

B. viruses

C. social engineering

D. phishing

E. pop-ups

Correct Answer: BC

Question 12:

Which Cisco Catalyst 9800 controller supports the SD-Access deployment mode only?

A. Cisco Catalyst 9800-CL

B. Embedded Wireless on a Switch

C. Cisco Catalyst 9800-L

D. Embedded Wireless Controller on Access Points

Correct Answer: B

Question 13:

Which two firewalls form part of Cisco\’s SMB offering? (Choose two ) A. Cisco Firepower 1000

B. Cisco ISA

C. Cisco ISE

D. Cisco ASAv

E. Cisco Meraki MX

Correct Answer: AE

Question 14:

What are the primary functions of the Network Topology feature in the Meraki Dashboard?

A. It provides an intelligent mapping of physical links, dynamic device searching, and overall usage statistics and health status

B. It provides administrators optimization recommendations based on what has been detected in the existing topology

C. It is a diagramming and vector graphics application that consolidates Cisco Meraki-only devices into a summary document

D. It compiles a report presenting a variety of statistics broken out across product-specific sections based on the current network

Correct Answer: A

Question 15:

Which layout can Cisco Webex flexible video conference support?

A. active speaker video view where the participant talking will have the most prominent view on the screen

B. active-active video view where two participants can engage on-screen at the same time

C. presenter video view where the meeting host shares their desktop on the screen

D. grid view where the active speaker is visible and other participants show on the bottom strip

Correct Answer: A


2022-2023 700-755 dumps for Cisco 700-755 SBTO certification exam: https://www.lead4pass.com/700-755.html, is really effective preparation material to pass the 700-755 SBTO exam.
Complete the exercises to guarantee 100% success.

[Update Dec 2022] LEAD4PAS NEW UPDATE REAL AND EFFECTIVE MICROSOFT MS-740 DUMPS

ms-740 Update Dec 2022

MS-740 Dumps Latest Updates December 2022! Verified by the Lead4Pass team of Microsoft experts to be authentic and effective.

Lead4Pass MS-740 dumps have two modes dumps pdf and dumps vce, which are 100% true and effective to help you pass the exam – MS-740 dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/ms-740.html (67 Q&A dumps)

And, Share some of the latest updated MS-740 dumps pdf for candidate verification: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1iAv3vLeE7ViBAp_UJ1hxxM4bJawHq_nz/

Read some of the latest updated MS-740 Dumps exam questions and answers online

Number of exam questionsExam nameFromRelease timeLast updated
15Troubleshooting Microsoft TeamsLead4PassDec 01, 2022MS-740 dumps
New Question 1:

You need to resolve the issue for the legal department employees. What should you do?

A. Set external sharing to Only people in your organization.

B. Set external sharing to Anyone.

C. Grant the org-wide Teams Member group unique permission to the document library.

D. Grant the org-wide Teams Member group permissions to the parent site of the Team.

Correct Answer: C

New Question 2:

You need to resolve the partner company communication issue.

Which two PowerShell commands should you run? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Get-CsExternalAccessPolicy | Set-CsExternalAccessPolicy -EnableFederationAccess $True

B. Set-CsTenantFederationConfiguration -allowed domains

C. Set-CsAccessEdgeConfiguration -AllowFederatedUsers

D. New-CsAllowedDomain -identity

E. Get-CsOnlineUser | Set-CsExternalAccessPolicy -EnableFederationAccess $True

Correct Answer: AC

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/skype/set-csexternalaccesspolicy?view=skype-ps https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/skype/new-csalloweddomain?view=skype-ps

New Question 3:

You need to resolve the chat notification issue.

Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Reinstall Microsoft Teams.

B. On the Microsoft Teams Settings Notifications page, enable notifications.

C. In Registry Editor, navigate to Computer\HKEY_CURRENT_USER\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Office\Teams. Create a registry key named ChatNotifications and set the value to 1.

D. In the Windows settings Notifications and Actions menu, enable notifications.

E. Update Microsoft Teams to the latest version.

Correct Answer: BDE

Reference: https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/office/manage-notifications-in-teams-1cc31834-5fe5-412b-8edb-43fecc78413d https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/change-notification-and-action-settings-in-windows-10-8942c744-6198-fe56-4639-34320cf9444e

New Question 4:

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen.

A user works from a remote location and has a LAN connection and a mobile internet connection. Each connection is provided by a different internet service provider.

The user can make and receive calls by using the LAN connection. The user cannot make or receive calls by using a mobile connection.

You need to determine the cause of the issue.

Solution: Confirm whether the user can communicate with external users.

Does the solution meet the goal?

A. No

B. Yes

Correct Answer: B

New Question 5:

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen.

A Lead4Pass company has a Microsoft 365 subscription.

The company has a main office in one region. The company opens a new office in another region. You must relocate 400 users to the new office.

Solution: Create a configuration profile with the emergency address and assign the profile to the device for each user.

Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoftteams/assign-change-emergency-location-user

New Question 6:

You are managing a Microsoft Teams environment for a company. You are setting up direct routing on a partner-hosted session border controller (SBC).

The SIP proxy does not receive SIP options from the SBC.

You need to resolve the issue.

What are two possible ways to achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Ensure that the Secure Real-Time Transport Protocol (SRTP) is enabled.

B. Replace the partner-hosted SBC with a self-deployed SBC.

C. Ensure that the SBC certificate is from a trusted Certificate Authority (CA).

D. Modify the FQDN in the SIP profile to match the SBC certificate.

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoftteams/troubleshoot/phone-system/direct-routing/sip-options-tls-certificate-issues

New Question 7:

HOTSPOT

You are managing a Microsoft Teams environment.

Users report the following audio quality issues:

1.

Voices sound robotic or garbled.

2.

Attendees cannot hear other participants well or at all.

You need to troubleshoot the issues.

What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Hot Area:

new ms-740 dumps questions 7

Correct Answer:

new ms-740 dumps questions 7-1

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoftteams/quality-of-experience-review-guide

New Question 8:

A company has Microsoft 365 E5 licenses. The company uses phone numbers that are provided by Microsoft.

An auto attendant is not able to forward calls to external numbers.

What should you do?

A. Assign a new auto-attendant number.

B. Purchase and assign an international calling plan to the associated resource account.

C. Assign a phone system license to the associated resource account.

D. Configure external sharing settings from Azure Active Directory.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoftteams/plan-auto-attendant-call-queue#prerequisites

New Question 9:

DRAG DROP

You manage the Microsoft Teams environment for a company.

A private channel is deleted. After 20 days, the channel owner restores the channel to retrieve a file. A user reports that they cannot access the SharePoint site for the channel.

You need to restore the SharePoint site that is associated with the private channel.

Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

new ms-740 dumps questions 9

Correct Answer:

new ms-740 dumps questions 9-1

New Question 10:

A Lead4Pass company has a Microsoft 365 subscription. The company implements a new security policy that has the following requirements:

1.

Guest users from specific domains must be allowed to collaborate by using Microsoft Teams.

2.

Guest users must be prevented from inviting other guests.

You need to recommend a solution to meet the security policy requirements.

What should you recommend?

A. Run the following PowerShell cmdlets: New-AzureADPolicy | Set-AzureADPolicy

B. From the Microsoft Teams admin center, modify external collaboration settings.

C. From Azure Active Directory, modify external collaboration settings.

D. From the Microsoft Teams admin center, modify the Communicate with Skype users option.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.thatlazyadmin.com/2019/07/09/how-to-prevent-microsoft-teams-guest-users-from-inviting-guests/

New Question 11:

DRAG DROP

You manage the Microsoft Teams environment for a tenant.

Users report authentication issues. In the Azure AD admin center, you view many sign-in error codes.

You need to manually reset the Seamless Single Sign-on (SSO).

Which five actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Select and Place:

new ms-740 dumps questions 11

Correct Answer:

new ms-740 dumps questions 11-1

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/tshoot-connect-sso

New Question 12:

You need to resolve the issue reported by User3. What should you do?

A. Ensure that the date and time for the user\’s device are correct.

B. Ensure that the user is connected to the internet and that the firewall and other apps are not preventing access.

C. Confirm that the organization complies with Azure Active Directory configuration policy.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://support.microsoft.com/en-us/office/why-am-i-having-trouble-signing-in-to-microsoft-teams-a02f683b-61a3-4008-9447-ee60c5593b0f

New Question 13:

You are managing the Teams environment for a tenant with Microsoft Cloud App Security (MCAS) enabled. All users of the tenant can share and download files via Microsoft Teams person-to-person (P2P) private chat.

User1 can share files but when trying to download files shared by colleagues, the notification The files didn’t download. appears in the bottom right corner of the screen.

You need to determine the cause of this issue.

What is the cause of this issue?

A. User1 has a Microsoft Information Protection policy in place.

B. User1 has a Conditional Access session policy in place.

C. User1 has a Conditional Access session policy in place.

D. User1 has a data loss prevention (DLP) policy in place.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/information-protection?view=o365-worldwide

New Question 14:

A user sets up a Microsoft Teams meeting on a device that runs macOS.

The user reports that they are disconnected from calls and meetings when they start sharing content.

You need to export the media logs to investigate the issue.

Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Review the ~/Library/Application Support/Microsoft/Teams/media-stack/*.bloglog file.

B. Turn on media logging and restart the Teams app.

C. Review the ~/Library/Application Support/Microsoft/Teams/skylib/*.bloglog file.

D. Use the keyboard shortcut: Option + Command + Shift + 1 and review files at the location ~/Downloads.

E. Review the ~/Library/Application Support/Microsoft/Teams/logs.txtlog file.

Correct Answer: ABC

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoftteams/log-files#media-logs

New Question 15:

UserA works at CompanyA and UserB works at CompanyB. CompanyA configures Microsoft Teams to use Islands mode. the company configures Teams to use TeamsOnly mode. UserA sends a Teams message to UserB. User B receives the message. The following notification displays:

new ms-740 dumps questions 15

UserB selects the Continue your conversation here link. The following message displays in the new chat window: You need to provide a solution so that the two users can successfully communicate with each other.

new ms-740 dumps questions 15-1

What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Ask UserA to use Skype for Business to chat with UserB.

B. Ask UserA to change their coexistence mode to TeamsOnly.

C. Add the UserB domain to the allowed list.

D. Ask UserB to sign out and sign in to Teams.

E. Ask UserB to use Skype for Business to chat with UserA.

Correct Answer: BE

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoftteams/teams-and-skypeforbusiness-coexistence-and-interoperability


Lead4Pass MS-740 Exam Dumps Updated December 2022, guaranteed to be true and valid, and get complete Microsoft MS-740 dumps to ensure 100% pass the exam: https://www.lead4pass.com/ms-740.html (67 Q&A dumps)

BTW, download some of the latest updated MS-740 dumps pdf for candidate verification: https://drive.google.com/file/d/1iAv3vLeE7ViBAp_UJ1hxxM4bJawHq_nz/

[Nov 2022] New update CCNP Security 350-701 dumps with PDF and VCE

new update 350-701 dumps

Candidates can use New update CCNP Security 350-701 dumps with PDF and VCE: https://www.lead4pass.com/350-701.html (562 Q&A), and successfully pass the “Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR)” exam.

The new Update 350-701 Dumps covers virtually all exam content for the complete implementation and operation of core security techniques: Network security, Cloud security, Content security, Endpoint protection and detection, Secure network access Visibility, and enforcement.

Download the free CCNP Security 350-701 PDF:https://drive.google.com/file/d/1DATVJjpi0ElO_GWcQRr2TVnWpa_sgSdu/

Read the free CCNP Security 350-701 exam questions and answers online:

Number of exam questionsExam NameFromRelease timePrevious issue
13Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR)Lead4PassNov 15, 2022350-701 dumps questions
NEW QUESTION 1:

How does Cisco Umbrella archive logs to enterprise-owned storage?

A. by using the Application Programming Interface to fetch the logs

B. by sending logs via Syslog to an on-premises or cloud-based Syslog server

C. by the system administrator downloading the logs from the Cisco Umbrella web portal

D. by being configured to send logs to a self-managed AWS S3 bucket

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.umbrella.com/deployment-umbrella/docs/manage-logs

NEW QUESTION 2:

An administrator is configuring NIP on Cisco ASA via ASDM and needs to ensure that rogue NTP servers cannot insert themselves as the authoritative time source Which two steps must be taken to accomplish this task? (Choose two)

A. Specify the NTP version

B. Configure the NTP stratum

C. Set the authentication key

D. Choose the interface for syncing to the NTP server

E. Set the NTP DNS hostname

Correct Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 3:

Refer to the exhibit.

new 350-701 exam questions 3
new 350-701 exam questions 3-1

What is the function of the Python script code snippet for the Cisco ASA REST API?

A. adds a global rule into policies

B. changes the hostname of the Cisco ASA

C. deletes a global rule from policies

D. obtains the saved configuration of the Cisco ASA firewall

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 4:

An engineer notices traffic interruption on the network. Upon further investigation, it is learned that broadcast packets have been flooding the network.

What must be configured, based on a predefined threshold, to address this issue?

A. Bridge Protocol Data Unit Guard

B. embedded event monitoring

C. storm control

D. access control lists

Correct Answer: C

ExplanationStorm control prevents traffic on a LAN from being disrupted by a broadcast, multicast, or unicast storm on one of the physical interfaces.

A LAN storm occurs when packets flood the LAN, creating excessive traffic and degrading network performance. Errors in the protocol-stack implementation, mistakes in network configurations, or users issuing a denial-of-service attack can cause a storm.

By using the ” storm-control broadcast level [falling-threshold]” we can limit the broadcast traffic on the switch.

NEW QUESTION 5:

Which method is used to deploy certificates and configure the supplicant on mobile devices to gain access to network resources?

A. BYOD onboarding

B. Simple Certificate Enrollment Protocol

C. Client provisioning

D. MAC authentication bypass

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/ise/2- 4/admin_guide/b_ISE_admin_guide_24/
m_ise_devices_byod.html

NEW QUESTION 6:

Refer to the exhibit.

new 350-701 exam questions 6

When configuring a remote access VPN solution terminating on the Cisco ASA, an administrator would like to utilize an external token authentication mechanism in conjunction with AAA authentication using machine certificates.

Which configuration item must be modified to allow this?

A. Group Policy

B. Method

C. SAML Server

D. DHCP Servers

Correct Answer: B

In order to use AAA along with an external token authentication mechanism, set the “Method” as “Both” in the Authentication.

NEW QUESTION 7:

Refer to the exhibit.

new 350-701 exam questions 7

How does Cisco Umbrella manage traffic that is directed toward risky domains?

A. Traffic is provided through the intelligent proxy.

B. Traffic is managed by the security settings and blocked.

C. Traffic is managed by the application settings, unhandled and allowed.

D. Traffic is allowed but logged.

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 8:

What is the purpose of CA in a PKI?

A. To issue and revoke digital certificates

B. To validate the authenticity of a digital certificate

C. To create the private key for a digital certificate

D. To certify the ownership of a public key by the named subject

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://cheapsslsecurity.com/blog/understanding-the-role-of-certificate- authorities-in-pki/

NEW QUESTION 9:

What is the benefit of using Cisco Tetration?

A. It collects telemetry data from servers and then uses software sensors to analyze flow information.

B. It collects policy compliance data and process details.

C. It collects enforcement data from servers and collects interpacket variation.

D. It collects near-real-time data from servers and inventories the software packages that exist on servers.

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 10:

Which two fields are defined in the NetFlow flow? (Choose two)

A. type of service byte

B. class of service bits

C. Layer 4 protocol type

D. destination port

E. output logical interface

Correct Answer: AD

Cisco standard NetFlow version 5 defines a flow as a unidirectional sequence of packets that all share seven values which define a unique key for the flow:+ Ingress interface (SNMP ifIndex)+ Source IP address+ Destination IP address+ IP protocol+ Source port for UDP or TCP, 0 for other protocols+ Destination port for UDP or TCP, type and code for ICMP, or 0 for other protocols+ IP Type of

ServiceNow:
A flow is a unidirectional series of packets between a given source and destination.

NEW QUESTION 11:

An organization wants to secure data in a cloud environment. Its security model requires that all users be authenticated and authorized.

Security configuration and posture must be continuously validated before access is granted or maintained to applications and data.

There is also a need to allow certain application traffic and deny all other traffic by default.

Which technology must be used to implement these requirements?

A. Virtual routing and forwarding

B. Microsegmentation

C. Access control policy

D. Virtual LAN

Correct Answer: B

Zero Trust is a security framework requiring all users, whether in or outside the organization\’s network, to be authenticated, authorized, and continuously validated for security configuration and posture before being granted or keeping access to applications and data.

Zero Trust assumes that there is no traditional network edge; networks can be local, in the cloud, or a combination or hybrid with resources anywhere as well as workers in any location.

The Zero Trust model uses micro-segmentation — a security technique that involves dividing perimeters into small zones to maintain separate access to every part of the network — to contain attacks.

NEW QUESTION 12:

Which two characteristics of messenger protocols make data exfiltration difficult to detect and prevent? (Choose two)

A. Outgoing traffic is allowed so users can communicate with outside organizations.

B. Malware infects the messenger application on the user endpoint to send company data.

C. Traffic is encrypted, which prevents visibility on firewalls and IPS systems.

D. An exposed API for the messaging platform is used to send large amounts of data.

E. Messenger applications cannot be segmented with standard network controls

Correct Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 13:

What is the purpose of the My Devices Portal in a Cisco ISE environment?

A. to register new laptops and mobile devices

B. to request a newly provisioned mobile device

C. to provision userless and agentless systems

D. to manage and deploy antivirus definitions and patches on systems owned by the end-user

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/ise/2- 4/mydevices/b_mydevices_2x.html


Download the above CCNP Security 350-701 exam questions and answers:https://drive.google.com/file/d/1DATVJjpi0ElO_GWcQRr2TVnWpa_sgSdu/

New update CCNP Security 350-701 dumps have been verified to be real and effective, and 562 newly updated exam questions cover the complete 350-701 SCOR certification exam. Candidates click here for the latest 350-701 dumps https://www.lead4pass.com/350-701.html online to ensure they pass the 350-701 SCOR Certification Exam.

CyberOps Professional 350-201 DUMPS| CISCO CBRCOR EXAM MATERIAL

Cyber​​Ops Professional 350-201 Dumps is the Cisco CBRCOR exam material for core cybersecurity operations. Lead4Pass 350-201 Dumps Prepares Candidates for Cisco CBRCOR Exam Questions and Answers https://www.lead4pass.com/350-201.html helps you earn the Cisco CyberOps Professional Core Certification.

Cisco technology is spread all over the world. This means that CyberOps Professional certified professionals will continue to be sought after, as long as you ensure that you can successfully achieve the CyberOps Professional 350-201 certification. Use the CyberOps Professional 350-201 dumps to guarantee your success with the Cisco CyberOps Professional Core certification.

CyberOps Professional Core FAQs: About, Value, Exam Material

About 350-201 CBRCOR: What You Need to Know

Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 350-201
Exam Name: Performing CyberOps Using Cisco Security Technologies (CBRCOR)
Certification: CyberOps Professional
Languages: English
Price: $400 USD
Duration: 120 mins
Number of Questions: 90-110 questions
Passing score: 80% Approx
350-201 dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/350-201.html (CyberOps Professional core exam dumps maps to Cisco 350-201 CBRCOR exam objectives))
350-201 dumps (Number of Questions): 139 Q&A
Last update time: Sep 23, 2022

Is CyberOps Professional Core certification worth it?

As the complexity of cyberattacks continues to increase in size and scale, your organization needs highly qualified personnel to provide security expertise before, during, and after an attack. The demand is greater now than ever before for professionals with the knowledge and skills to detect and respond to cybersecurity threats, manage security incidents, automate security tasks, and secure the sensitive information of your organization.

Achieving the Cisco Certified CyberOps Professional certification proves your advanced skills as a senior analyst, in a security operation center (SOC), incident response, cloud security, and other active defense security roles.

–source:https://www.globalknowledge.com/en-gb/certifications/certification-training/cisco/cisco-cybersecurity-operations/cisco-certified-cyberops-professional

Free share of a portion of the CyberOps Professional 350-201 CBRCOR exam material

Number of exam questionsExam nameFromRelease time
15Performing CyberOps Using Cisco Security Technologies (CBRCOR)Lead4PassSep 30, 2022
New Question 1:

Refer to the exhibit. A threat actor behind a single computer exploited a cloud-based application by sending multiple concurrent API requests. These requests made the application unresponsive. Which solution protects the application from being overloaded and ensures more equitable application access across the end-user community?

CyberOps Professional 350-201 CBRCOR exam material q1

A. Limit the number of API calls that a single client is allowed to make

B. Add restrictions on the edge router on how often a single client can access the API

C. Reduce the amount of data that can be fetched from the total pool of active clients that call the API

D. Increase the application cache of the total pool of active clients that call the API

Correct Answer: A

New Question 2:

A threat actor attacked an organization\’s Active Directory server from a remote location, and in a thirty-minute timeframe, stole the password for the administrator account and attempted to access 3 company servers. The threat actor successfully accessed the first server that contained sales data, but no files were downloaded. A second server was also accessed that contained marketing information and 11 files were downloaded. When the threat actor accessed the third server that contained corporate financial data, the session was disconnected, and the administrator\’s account was disabled.

Which activity triggered the behavior analytics tool?

A. accessing the Active Directory server

B. accessing the server with financial data

C. accessing multiple servers

D. downloading more than 10 files

Correct Answer: C

New Question 3:
CyberOps Professional 350-201 CBRCOR exam material q3

Refer to the exhibit. Cisco Advanced Malware Protection installed on an end-user desktop has automatically submitted a low prevalence file to the Threat Grid analysis engine for further analysis. What should be concluded from this report?

A. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise do not justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the scores do not indicate the likelihood of malicious ransomware.

B. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise do not justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the scores are high and do not indicate the likelihood of malicious ransomware.

C. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the scores are high and indicate the likelihood that malicious ransomware has been detected.

D. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the scores are low and indicate the likelihood that malicious ransomware has been detected.

Correct Answer: C

New Question 4:

The physical security department received a report that an unauthorized person followed an authorized individual to enter a secured premises. The incident was documented and given to a security specialist to analyze. Which step should be taken at this stage?

A. Determine the assets to which the attacker has access

B. Identify assets the attacker handled or acquired

C. Change access controls to high-risk assets in the enterprise

D. Identify the movement of the attacker in the enterprise

Correct Answer: D

New Question 5:

A new malware variant is discovered hidden in pirated software that is distributed on the Internet. Executives have asked for an organizational risk assessment. The security officer is given a list of all assets. According to NIST, which two elements are missing to calculate the risk assessment? (Choose two.)

A. incident response playbooks

B. asset vulnerability assessment

C. report on staff members with asset relations

D. key assets and executives

E. malware analysis report

Correct Answer: BE

Reference: https://cloudogre.com/risk-assessment/

New Question 6:
CyberOps Professional 350-201 CBRCOR exam material q6

Refer to the exhibit. At which stage of the threat kill chain is an attacker, based on these URIs of inbound web requests from known malicious Internet scanners?

A. exploitation

B. actions on objectives

C. delivery

D. reconnaissance

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www2.deloitte.com/content/dam/Deloitte/sg/Documents/risk/sea-risk-cyber-101-july2017.pdf

New Question 7:
CyberOps Professional 350-201 CBRCOR exam material q7

Refer to the exhibit. Which two steps mitigate attacks on the webserver from the Internet? (Choose two.)

A. Create an ACL on the firewall to allow only TLS 1.3

B. Implement a proxy server in the DMZ network

C. Create an ACL on the firewall to allow only external connections

D. Move the webserver to the internal network

Correct Answer: BD

New Question 8:

According to GDPR, what should be done with data to ensure its confidentiality, integrity, and availability?

A. Perform a vulnerability assessment

B. Conduct a data protection impact assessment

C. Conduct penetration testing

D. Perform awareness testing

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://apdcat.gencat.cat/web/.content/03-documentacio/Reglament_general_de_proteccio_de_dades/documents/DPIA-Guide.pdf

New Question 9:

A payroll administrator noticed unexpected changes within a piece of software and reported the incident to the incident response team. Which actions should be taken at this step in the incident response workflow?

A. Classify the criticality of the information, research the attacker\’s motives, and identify missing patches

B. Determine the damage to the business, extract reports, and save evidence according to a chain of custody

C. Classify the attack vector, understand the scope of the event, and identify the vulnerabilities being exploited

D. Determine the attack surface, evaluate the risks involved, and communicate the incident according to the escalation plan

Correct Answer: B

New Question 10:

A company recently completed an internal audit and discovered that there is a CSRF vulnerability in 20 of its hosted applications. Based on the audit, which recommendation should an engineer make for patching?

A. Identify the business applications running on the assets

B. Update software to patch third-party software

C. Validate CSRF by executing exploits within Metasploit

D. Fix applications according to the risk scores

Correct Answer: D

New Question 11:

An engineer is analyzing a possible compromise that happened a week ago when the company? (Choose two.)

A. firewall

B. Wireshark

C. autopsy

D. SHA512

E. IPS

Correct Answer: AB

New Question 12:

An organization had a breach due to a phishing attack. An engineer leads a team through the recovery phase of the incident response process. Which action should be taken during this phase?

A. Host a discovery meeting and define configuration and policy updates

B. Update the IDS/IPS signatures and reimage the affected hosts

C. Identify the systems that have been affected and tools used to detect the attack

D. Identify the traffic with data capture using Wireshark and review email filters

Correct Answer: C

New Question 13:

An engineer is going through vulnerability triage with company management because of a recent malware outbreak from which 21 affected assets need to be patched or remediated. Management decides not to prioritize fixing the assets and accepts the vulnerabilities.

What is the next step the engineer should take?

A. Investigate the vulnerability to prevent further spread

B. Acknowledge the vulnerabilities and document the risk

C. Apply vendor patches or available hotfixes

D. Isolate the assets affected in a separate network

Correct Answer: D

New Question 14:

The incident response team receives information about the abnormal behavior of a host. A malicious file is found being executed from an external USB flash drive. The team collects and documents all the necessary evidence from the computing resource.

What is the next step?

A. Conduct a risk assessment of systems and applications

B. Isolate the infected host from the rest of the subnet

C. Install malware prevention software on the host

D. Analyze network traffic on the host\’s subnet

Correct Answer: B

New Question 15:

An organization had several attacks over the last 6 months and has tasked an engineer with looking for patterns or trends that will help the organization anticipate future attacks and mitigate them. Which data analytic technique should the engineer use to accomplish this task?

A. diagnostic

B. qualitative

C. predictive

D. statistical

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://insights.principa.co.za/4-types-of-data-analytics-descriptive-diagnostic-predictive-prescriptive

[Free Download] CyberOps Professional 350-201 CBRCOR exam material:

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1fVobEt59xzJeVskbkEVtYqiUvvYE3-Xn/
https://drive.google.com/file/d/1AWESvo5Beac9z16xeX9pw-cyNhDM0Cnc/

The above are free to share 15 350-201 CBRCOR exam material, click here to get more exam questions and answers.

Lead4Pass 200-901 dumps with PDF and VCE latest update

The latest updated Lead4Pass 200-901 dumps with PDF files and VCE exam engine, containing 294 exam questions and answers, serve all 200-901 DEVASC exam candidates to help them successfully pass the exam.

You are welcome to download the latest updated 200-901 dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/200-901.html, you will also enjoy 365 days of free updates and a 15% discount with discount code “Cisco”.

Check out the Lead4Pass 200-901 dumps PDF example image:

Check out the Lead4Pass 200-901 dumps VCE example image:

Download all free 2022 Cisco 200-901 dumps PDF online:

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1AkWXg5-Qk0gvCgce5S3eHXAZg3u5YeOy/
https://drive.google.com/file/d/1nz9bXXwRZmjYcNw5n-BdNgmIOoFoQRVu/
https://drive.google.com/file/d/1hqDUcvc1vHJMiDa15KhDD1Jjp3q8j0hA/

Free sharing of 15 Cisco 200-901 Dumps exam questions and answers:

New Question 1:

How does requesting a synchronous API operation differ from requesting an asynchronous API operation?

A. clients receive responses with a task id for further processing

B. clients subscribe to a webhook for operation results

C. clients poll for the status of the execution of operations

D. clients can access the results immediately

Correct Answer: C

New Question 2:

What are two advantages of YANG-based approaches for infrastructure automation? (Choose two.)

A. multi-platform vendor abstraction

B. compiles to executables that run on network devices

C. designed to reflect networking concepts

D. directly maps to JavaScript

E. command line is driven interface

Correct Answer: AC

New Question 3:

Which device is used to transport traffic from one broadcast domain to another broadcast domain?

A. layer 2 switch

B. proxy server

C. router

D. load balancer

Correct Answer: C

New Question 4:

Which service provides a directory lookup for IP addresses and host names?

A. DNS

B. NAT

C. SNMP

D. DHCP

Correct Answer: A

New Question 5:

Users cannot access a webserver and after the traffic is captured, the capture tool shows an ICMP packet that reports “time exceeded in-transit”. What is the cause of this webserver access issue?

A. A router along the path has the wrong time.

B. A router along the path is misrouting the packets in a wrong direction.

C. The server is too loaded and the connection could not be handled in time.

D. The server is too far away and the packets require too much time to reach it.

Correct Answer: B

New Question 6:

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the value of the node defined by this YANG structure?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: D

New Question 7:

What is used in Layer 2 switches to direct packet transmission to the intended recipient?

A. MAC address

B. IPv6 address

C. spanning tree

D. IPv4 address

Correct Answer: A

New Question 8:

Users cannot access a webserver and after the traffic is captured, the capture tool shows an ICMP packet that reports “communication administratively prohibited”.

What is the cause of this webserver access issue?

A. An access list along the path is blocking the traffic.

B. Users must authenticate on the webserver to access it.

C. A router along the path is overloaded and thus dropping traffic.

D. The traffic is not allowed to be translated with NAT and dropped.

Correct Answer: A

New Question 9:

What is an advantage of a version control system?

A. facilitates resolving conflicts when merging code

B. ensures that unit tests are written

C. prevents over-writing code or configuration files

D. forces the practice of trunk-based development

Correct Answer: A

New Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the result of executing this Ansible playbook?

A. The playbook copies a new start-up configuration to CISCO_ROUTER_01

B. The playbook copies a new running configuration to CISCO_ROUTER_01

C. The playbook backs up the running configuration of CISCO_ROUTER_01

D. The playbook backs up the start-up configuration of CISCO_ROUTER_01

Correct Answer: D

New Question 11:

A 401 HTTP response code is returned when calling a REST API. What is the error state identified by this response code?

A. The server cannot process the request as it has detected an issue in the request syntax or body.

B. The request has not been accepted because it requires authentication.

C. The sever accepted the request but the client is not authorized for this content.

D. The server cannot find the requested resource because the path specified is incorrect.

Correct Answer: B

New Question 12:

What is the first development task in test-driven development?

A. Write code that implements a desired function.

B. Write a failing test case for a desired function.

C. Reverse engineer the code for a desired function.

D. Write a passing test case for existing code.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://technologyconversations.com/2013/12/20/test-driven-development-tdd-example- walkthrough/

New Question 13:

What is the purpose of a firewall in application deployment?

A. adds TLS support to an application that does not support it natively

B. limits traffic to only ports required by the application

C. provides translation for an application\’s hostname to its IP address

D. forwards traffic to a pool of instances of the application

Correct Answer: B

New Question 14:

A small company has 5 servers and 50 clients. What are two reasons an engineer should split this network into separate client and server subnets? (Choose two.)

A. Subnets will split domains to limit failures.

B. A router will limit the traffic types between the clients and servers.

C. Subnets provide more IP address space for clients and servers.

D. A router will bridge the traffic between clients and servers.

E. Internet access to the servers will be denied on the router.

Correct Answer: AB

New Question 15:

How does a developer create and switch to a new branch called “my-bug-fix” to develop a product fix?

A. git checkout -b my-bug-fix

B. git branch -b my-bug-fix

C. git branch my-bug-fix

D. git checkout my-bug-fix

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.dnnsoftware.com/community-blog/cid/155105

Download all free 2022 Cisco 200-901 dumps PDF online:

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1AkWXg5-Qk0gvCgce5S3eHXAZg3u5YeOy/
https://drive.google.com/file/d/1nz9bXXwRZmjYcNw5n-BdNgmIOoFoQRVu/
https://drive.google.com/file/d/1hqDUcvc1vHJMiDa15KhDD1Jjp3q8j0hA/

Here candidates can enjoy free Cisco 200-901 exam questions and answers and free PDF download, which are historical exam questions to help you grow your experience. Welcome to the new 200-901 DEVASC exam, download Lead4Pass 200-901 dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/200-901.html, to help you successfully pass the exam and achieve a career leap.

More IT certification blogs: [Amazon]awsexamdumps.com, [Oracle]oraclefreedumps.com, [Cisco]ciscofreedumps.com, [Microsoft]examdumpsbase.com, [Citrix]citrixexamdumps.com
[CompTIA]comptiafreedumps.com, [VMware]vmwarefreedumps.com, [IBM]ibmexamdumps.com, [HP]hpexamdumps.com, [NetApp]NetAppexamdumps.com, [Juniper]juniperexamdumps.com
[Fortinet]fortinetexamdumps.com

Cisco 200-201 dumps: serves all 200-201 CBROPS exam candidates

The newly updated Cisco 200-201 dumps contain 264 exam questions and answers that candidates can study using the 200-201 dumps PDF and 200-201 dumps VCE to help you successfully pass the 200-201 CBROPS exam.

You are welcome to download the latest Cisco 200-201 dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/200-201.html, Lead4Pass 200-201 dumps serve all candidates taking the 200-201 CBROPS exam and guarantee you 100% Successfully passed the 200-201 CBROPS exam.

Download the Cisco 200-201 PDF for free sharing online:

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1NvgnmVOH2wzbAtjRlNnpN57M70GgdSeW/
https://drive.google.com/file/d/1Hq9tXhs7kyJzL3cTTXNNYoTOKZOld2X7/

Share the latest Cisco 200-201 dumps exam questions and answers for free

New Question 1:

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the potential threat identified in this Stealthwatch dashboard?

A. Host 10.201.3.149 is sending data to 152.46.6.91 using TCP/443.

B. Host 152.46.6.91 is being identified as a watchlist country for data transfer.

C. Traffic to 152.46.6.149 is being denied by an Advanced Network Control policy.

D. Host 10.201.3.149 is receiving almost 19 times more data than is being sent to host 152.46.6.91.

Correct Answer: D

New Question 2:

What does cyber attribution identify in an investigation?

A. cause of an attack

B. exploit of an attack

C. vulnerabilities exploited

D. threat actors of an attack

Correct Answer: D

New Question 3:

Refer to the exhibit.

An analyst received this alert from the Cisco ASA device, and numerous activity logs were produced. How should this type of evidence be categorized?

A. indirect

B. circumstantial

C. corroborative

D. best

Correct Answer: C

Indirect=circumstantail so there is no possibility to match A or B (only one answer is needed in this question). For sure it\’s not the BEST evidence – this FW data inform only of DROPPED traffic. If smth happened inside the network, presented evidence could be used to support other evidence or make our narration stronger but alone it\’s means nothing.

New Question 4:

What is a sandbox interprocess communication service?

A. A collection of rules within the sandbox that prevent communication between sandboxes.

B. A collection of network services that are activated on an interface, allowing for inter-port communication.

C. A collection of interfaces that allow for coordination of activities among processes.

D. A collection of host services that allow for communication between sandboxes.

Correct Answer: C

Inter-process communication (IPC) allows communication between different processes. A process is one or more threads running inside its own, isolated address space.

New Question 5:

A security specialist notices 100 HTTP GET and POST requests for multiple pages on the web servers. The agent in the requests contains PHP code that, if executed, creates and writes to a new PHP file on the web server. Which event category is described?

A. reconnaissance

B. action on objectives

C. installation

D. exploitation

Correct Answer: C

New Question 6:

What is the practice of giving an employee access to only the resources needed to accomplish their job?

A. principle of least privilege

B. organizational separation

C. separation of duties

D. need to know the principle

Correct Answer: A

New Question 7:

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the potential threat identified in this Stealthwatch dashboard?

A. A policy violation is active for host 10.10.101.24.

B. A host on the network is sending a DDoS attack to another inside host.

C. There are two active data exfiltration alerts.

D. A policy violation is active for host 10.201.3.149.

Correct Answer: C

New Question 8:

Which incidence response step includes identifying all hosts affected by an attack?

A. detection and analysis

B. post-incident activity

C. preparation

D. containment, eradication, and recovery

Correct Answer: D

3.3.3 Identifying the Attacking Hosts During incident handling, system owners and others sometimes want to or need to identify the attacking host or hosts. Although this information can be important, incident handlers should generally stay focused on containment, eradication, and recovery. https://nvlpubs.nist.gov/nistpubs/SpecialPublications/NIST.SP.800-61r2.pdf

The response phase, or containment, of incident response, is the point at which the incident response team begins interacting with affected systems and attempts to keep further damage from occurring as a result of the incident.

New Question 9:

Which metric in CVSS indicates an attack that takes a destination bank account number and replaces it with a different bank account number?

A. availability

B. confidentiality

C. scope

D. integrity

Correct Answer: D

New Question 10:

What is the difference between mandatory access control (MAC) and discretionary access control (DAC)?

A. MAC is controlled by the discretion of the owner and DAC is controlled by an administrator

B. MAC is the strictest of all levels of control and DAC is object-based access

C. DAC is controlled by the operating system and MAC is controlled by an administrator

D. DAC is the strictest of all levels of control and MAC is object-based access

Correct Answer: B

New Question 10:

What is vulnerability management?

A. A security practice focused on clarifying and narrowing intrusion points.

B. A security practice of performing actions rather than acknowledging the threats.

C. A process to identify and remediate existing weaknesses.

D. A process to recover from service interruptions and restore business-critical applications

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.brinqa.com/vulnerability-management-primer-part-2-challenges/ Vulnerability management is the “cyclical practice of identifying, classifying, prioritizing, remediating and mitigating” software vulnerabilities.[1] Vulnerability management is integral to computer security and network security, and must not be confused with Vulnerability assessment” source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vulnerability_management

New Question 12:

Which type of evidence supports a theory or an assumption that results from initial evidence?

A. probabilistic

B. indirect

C. best

D. corroborative

Correct Answer: D

Corroborating evidence (or corroboration) is evidence that tends to support a theory or an assumption deduced by some initial evidence. This corroborating evidence confirms the proposition. Cisco CyberOps Associate CBROPS 200-201 Official Cert Guide

New Question 13:

What is the difference between deep packet inspection and stateful inspection?

A. Deep packet inspection gives insights up to Layer 7, and stateful inspection gives insights only up to Layer 4.

B. Deep packet inspection is more secure due to its complex signatures, and stateful inspection requires less human intervention.

C. Stateful inspection is more secure due to its complex signatures, and deep packet inspection requires less human intervention.

D. Stateful inspection verifies data at the transport layer and deep packet inspection verifies data at the application layer

Correct Answer: B

New Question 14:

A company encountered a breach on its web servers using IIS 7 5 Dunng the investigation, an engineer discovered that an attacker read and altered the data on a secure communication using TLS 1 2 and intercepted sensitive information by downgrading a connection to export-grade cryptography. The engineer must mitigate similar incidents in the future and ensure that clients and servers always negotiate with the most secure protocol versions and cryptographic parameters. Which action does the engineer recommend?

A. Upgrade to TLS v1 3.

B. Install the latest IIS version.

C. Downgrade to TLS 1.1.

D. Deploy an intrusion detection system

Correct Answer: B

New Question 15:

During which phase of the forensic process is data that is related to a specific event labeled and recorded to preserve its integrity?

A. examination

B. investigation

C. collection

D. reporting

Correct Answer: C

Download the Cisco 200-201 PDF for free sharing online:

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1NvgnmVOH2wzbAtjRlNnpN57M70GgdSeW/
https://drive.google.com/file/d/1Hq9tXhs7kyJzL3cTTXNNYoTOKZOld2X7/

The above is only a part of Cisco 200-201 dumps exam questions and answers, you can use the above exam questions and answers to improve yourself, not only that, we welcome you to download the latest
Cisco 200-201 dumps exam questions: https://www.lead4pass.com/200-201.html (Total Questions: 264 Q&A), help you truly pass the 200-201 CBROPS exam.

More IT certification blogs: [Amazon]awsexamdumps.com, [Oracle]oraclefreedumps.com, [Cisco]ciscofreedumps.com, [Microsoft]examdumpsbase.com, [Citrix]citrixexamdumps.com
[CompTIA]comptiafreedumps.com, [VMware]vmwarefreedumps.com, [IBM]ibmexamdumps.com, [HP]hpexamdumps.com, [NetApp]netappexamdumps.com, [Juniper]juniperexamdumps.com
[Fortinet]fortinetexamdumps.com

Cisco CCIE Collaboration 350-801 dumps with PDF and VCE have been updated

Lead4Pass Cisco CCIE Collaboration 350-801 dumps have been updated to include the most popular PDF files and VCE practice exam engine to help you practice with the newly updated Cisco CCIE Collaboration 350-801 exam questions!

You are welcome to download the latest Lead4Pass Cisco CCIE Collaboration 350-801 dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/350-801.html (351 Q&A)

Supply: Download the latest Cisco CCIE Collaboration 350-801 dumps PDF:https://drive.google.com/file/d/19b-Nohof0qdstULphIaMT_yvI3Ssc4L0/

Cisco CCIE Collaboration 350-801 dumps exam questions and answers:

New Question 1:

An administrator executes the debug ISDN q931 command while debugging a failed call. After a test call is placed, the logs return a disconnect cause code of 1. What is the cause of this problem?

A. The dialed number is not assigned to an endpoint.
B. The destination number rejects the call.
C. The destination number is busy.
D. The media resource is unavailable.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/dial-access/integrated-services-digital-networks-isdn-channel-associated-signaling-cas/8607-isdn-disc-code.html

New Question 2:

An engineer configures a SIP trunk for MWI between a Cisco UCM cluster and Cisco Unity Connection. The Cisco UCM cluster fails to receive the SIP notification messages. Which two SIP trunk settings resolve this issue? (Choose two.)

A. transmit security status
B. accept unsolicited notification
C. allow charging header
D. accept out-of-band notification
E. accept out-of-dialog refer

Correct Answer: BE

New Question 3:

Which action enables Cisco MRA?

A. Cisco UCC Express clients can obtain VPN connectivity to Cisco UCC Enterprise.
B. VPN connectivity can be established to Cisco UCM.
C. Clients such as Cisco Jabber can use call control on Cisco UCM.
D. Internal SIP clients registered to Cisco UCM can call external companies

Correct Answer: C

New Question 4:

How can an administrator stop Cisco Unified Communications Manager from advertising the OPUS codec for recording-enabled devices?

A. Route recorded calls through Cisco Unified Border Element because it does not support OPUS.
B. Go to the phone\’s configuration page and set “Advertise OPUS Codec” to be “false”.
C. Integrate the Cisco Unified CM with 3 recording solution that does not support OPUS.
D. In CUCM Service Parameters set “Opus Codec Enabled” to “Enabled for all Devices Except Recording-Enabled Devices.”

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/unified-communications/unified-communications-manager-callmanager/211297-Configure-Opus-Support-on-Cisco-Unified.pdf

New Question 5:

A remote office has a less-than-optimal WAN connection and experiences packet loss, delay, and jitter.

Which VoIP codec should be used in this situation?

A. G.711ulaw
B. iLBC
C. G.722.1
D. G.729A

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/collaboration-voice-and-video/summary-of-cucm-supported-codecs/ta-p/3162905

New Question 6:

Refer to the exhibit.

The translation rule is configured on the voice gateway to translate DNIS.

What is the outcome if the gateway receives 0255-343-1234 as DNIS?

A. The translation is not matched because DNIS contains “-“.
B. The translation is not matched because DNIS does not end with a “$”.
C. The translation is matched and the translated number is 02553431234.
D. The translation is matched and the translated number is 025553431234.

Correct Answer: C

New Question 7:

Which type of greeting in the Call Handler configuration in Cisco Unity Connection overtimes all other greetings?

A. holidays
B. supervisory
C. alternate
D. priority

Correct Answer: C

New Question 8:

Which program is required to deploy the Cisco Jabber client on an on-premises Cisco collaboration solution?

A. Cisco Unity Connection
B. Cisco Expressway-C
C. Cisco UCM
D. Cisco UCM IM and Presence

Correct Answer: C

New Question 9:

What does average rate limiting allow?

A. transmits traffic bursts up to the Bc size
B. more traffic than the CIR to be sent when there is available bandwidth
C. bandwidth up to the Be size
D. traffic to burst to the Be size when there is available bandwidth

Correct Answer: D

New Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit. What is the registration state of the analog port in this debug output?

A. The MGCP Gateway is not communicating with the Cisco UCM.
B. The analog port failed to register to Cisco UCM with an error code 200.
C. The analog port is currently shut down.
D. The analog port is registered to Cisco UCM.

Correct Answer: D

New Question 11:

An engineer encounters third-party devices that do not support Cisco Discovery Protocol. What must be configured on the network to allow device discovery?

A. LACP
B. TFTP
C. LLDP
D. SNMP

Correct Answer: C

New Question 12:

Which two elements of a dial plan define the domains that are accessible and are assigned to an endpoint? (Choose two.)

A. Call Admissions Control
B. Route patterns
C. Calling Search Spaces
D. Translation patterns
E. partitions

Correct Answer: CE

New Question 13:

What is a characteristic of video traffic that governs QoS requirements for video?

A. Video is typically variable bit rate.
B. Voice and video traffic are different, but they have the same QoS requirements.
C. Video is typically constant bit rate.
D. Voice and video traffic are the same, so they have the same QoS requirements.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/collab11/collab11/cac.html

We strongly recommend that you download the latest Cisco CCIE Collaboration 350-801 dumps from Lead4Pass.com! Guaranteed to actually pass the exam.
Cisco CCIE Collaboration 350-801 PDf dumps and Cisco CCIE Collaboration 350-801 VCE dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/350-801.html (351 Q&A)
(All objectives of the exam are covered in depth, so you can prepare for any question on the exam)

Supply: Download the latest Cisco CCIE Collaboration 350-801 dumps PDF:https://drive.google.com/file/d/19b-Nohof0qdstULphIaMT_yvI3Ssc4L0/

More IT certification blogs: [Amazon]awsexamdumps.com, [Oracle]oraclefreedumps.com, [Cisco]ciscofreedumps.com, [Microsoft]examdumpsbase.com, [Citrix]citrixexamdumps.com
[CompTIA]comptiafreedumps.com, [VMware]vmwarefreedumps.com, [IBM]ibmexamdumps.com, [HP]hpexamdumps.com, [NetApp]netappexamdumps.com, [Juniper]juniperexamdumps.com
[Fortinet]fortinetexamdumps.com

Use the latest 350-401 dumps to help you pass the Cisco ENCOR certification exam

Using 350-401 dumps can help you successfully pass the Cisco ENCOR certification exam on your first attempt.

Because 350-401 dumps have many success advantages:

  1. Lightweight Learning Tool (PDF+VCE)
  2. More free usage time (365 days Free Update)
  3. Covers all Cisco ENCOR practical exam questions and answers, with explanations of difficult problems
  4. Have a professional Cisco technical team service

So why not use 350-401 dumps to help you easily and successfully pass the exam? And Lead4Pass, as the provider of 350-401 dumps, has many years of industry reputation, is the industry leader, and is trustworthy, what else do you have to worry about?

Therefore, it is strongly recommended that you use the 350-401 dumps exam material https://www.lead4pass.com/350-401.html, which is up to date throughout the year, to prepare you for a career leap.

More detailed 350-401 ENCOR certification information:

Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 350-401
Exam Name: Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR)
Certification: CCNP Enterprise
Duration: 120 minutes
Languages: English
Price: $400 USD
Number of Questions: about 100±
350-401 dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/350-401.html (Total Questions: 853 Q&A)

Cisco 350-401 exam questions online practice test:

Tips: Verify the answer at the end of the article

Question 1:

How does Cisco Trustsec enable more access controls for dynamic networking environments and data centers?

A. uses flexible NetFlow

B. assigns a VLAN to the endpoint

C. classifies traffic based on the contextual identity of the endpoint rather than its IP address

D. classifies traffic based on advanced application recognition

Question 2:

Which technology provides a secure communication channel for all traffic at Layer 2 of the OSI model?

A. MACsec

B. IPsec

C. SSL

D. Cisco Trustsec

Question 3:

What does Cisco DNA southbound APIs provide?

A. Interface between the controller and the network devices

B. NETCONF API interface for orchestration communication

C. RESful API interface for orchestrator communication

D. Interface between the controller and the consumer

The Southbound API is used to communicate with network devices.

Question 4:

Which NGFW mode block flows crossing the firewall?

A. Passive

B. Tap

C. Inline tap

D. Inline

Question 5:

Which two pieces of information are necessary to compute SNR? (Choose two.)

A. EIRP

B. noise floor

C. antenna gain

D. RSSI

E. transmit power

Question 6:

Which requirement for an Ansible-managed node is true?

A. It must be a Linux server or a Cisco device.

B. It must have an SSH server running.

C. It must support ad hoc commands.

D. It must have an Ansible Tower installed.

Question 7:

What is the difference between the enable password and the enable secret password when password encryption is enabled on an IOS device?

A. The enable password is encrypted with a stronger encryption method.

B. There is no difference and both passwords are encrypted identically.

C. The enable password cannot be decrypted.

D. The enabled secret password is protected via stronger cryptography mechanisms.

Question 8:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration establishes EBGP neighborship between these two directly connected neighbors and exchanges the loopback network of the two routers through BGP?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Question 9:

In which part of the HTTP message is the content type specified?

A. HTTP method

B. URI

C. header

D. body

Question 10:

Which behavior can be expected when the HSRP versions are changed from 1 to 2?

A. Each HSRP group reinitializes because the virtual MAC address has changed.

B. No changes occur because versions 1 and 2 use the same virtual MAC OUI.

C. Each HSRP group reinitializes because the multicast address has changed.

D. No changes occur because the standby router is upgraded before the active router.

Question 11:

A response code of 404 is received while using the REST API on Cisco UNA Center to POST to this URI.

/dna/intent/api/v1 /template-programmer/project

What does the code mean?

A. The client made a request for a resource that does not exist.

B. The server has not implemented the functionality that is needed to fulfill the request.

C. The request was accepted for processing, but the processing was not completed.

D. The POST/PUT request was fulfilled and a new resource was created, Information about the resource is in the response body.

Question 12:

What is the structure of a JSON web token?

A. three parts separated by dots header payload, and signature

B. header and payload

C. three parts separated by dots version header and signature

D. payload and signature

Question 13:

Which OSPF network types are compatible and allow communication through the two peering devices?

A. broadcast to nonbroadcast

B. point-to-multipoint to nonbroadcast

C. broadcast to point-to-point

D. point-to-multipoint to broadcast

Question 14:

At which Layer does Cisco DNA Center support REST controls?

A. EEM applets or scripts

B. Session layer

C. YMAL output from responses to API calls

D. Northbound APIs

Question 15:

Which statement about agent-based versus agentless configuration management tools is true?

A. Agentless tools require no messaging systems between master and slaves.

B. Agentless tools use proxy nodes to interface with slave nodes.

C. Agent-based tools do not require a high-level language interpreter such as Python or Ruby on slave nodes.

D. Agent-based tools do not require the installation of additional software packages on the slave nodes.

……

Verify answer:

Numbers:Answers:Explain:
Q1C
Q2A
Q3A
Q4DFirepower Threat Defense (FTD) provides six interface modes which are: Routed, Switched, Inline Pair, Inline Pair with Tap, Passive, Passive (ERSPAN).

When Inline Pair Mode is in use, packets can be blocked since they are processed inline When you use Inline Pair mode, the packet goes mainly through the FTD Snort engine When Tap Mode is enabled, a copy of the packet is inspected and dropped internally while the actual traffic goes through FTD unmodified
Q5BDsignal-to-noise ratio (SNR) A measure of received signal quality, calculated as the difference between the signal\’s RSSI and the noise floor. A higher SNR is preferred.
Q6B
Q7D
Q8A
Q9C
Q10A
Q11AThe 404 (Not Found) error status code indicates that the REST API can\’t map the client\’s URI to a resource but may be available in the future. Subsequent requests by the client are permissible.
Q12A
Q13AThe following different OSPF types are compatible with each other:

+ Broadcast and Non-Broadcast (adjust hello/dead timers) + Point-to-Point and

Point-to-Multipoint (adjust hello/dead timers) Broadcast and Non-Broadcast networks elect DR/BDR so they are compatible. Point-topoint/ multipoint do not elect DR/BDR so they are compatible.
Q14D
Q15A

CCNP Enterprise certification includes: Core exam and Concentration exams, Cisco ENCOR certification exam belong to the Core exam (350-401 ENCOR) and is unique.

Select Lead4Pass 350-401 dumps https://www.lead4pass.com/350-401.html,
Helping you 100% pass the Cisco 350-401 ENCOR certification exam. All CCNP Enterprise certification programs are available in Lead4Pass and can ensure that you pass the exam with a high score.