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ENSLD is the abbreviation of the Designing Cisco Enterprise Networks exam name, and 300-420 is the exam code. For specific information, see:
Vendor:Cisco Exam Code: 300-420 Exam Name: Designing Cisco Enterprise Networks (ENSLD) Certification:CCNP Duration: 90 minutes Languages: English and Japanese Price: $300 USD
The 300-420 ENSLD Exam is just one step:
You must also know that the 300-420 ENSLD Exam is one of the Concentration exams. But if you want to get the CCNP Enterprise certification, you need to do it in two steps:
Step 1: Choose one of the following exams
Step 2: Take the Core exam, this step also includes your ticket to participate in the CCIE lab, provided you must pass the exam, but don’t worry, you can find the answer on the VCEcert 350-401 page.
Next, you can also get 300-420 free dumps of online exercises
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must design an automatic failover solution. The solution should allow HSRP to detect a WAN 1 failure and initiate an automatic failover, making router R2 the active HSRP router. Which two solutions should the engineer choose? (Choose two.)
A. Implement Enhanced Object Tracking on roster R1 B. use a floating static route C. Implement IP SLA on router R1 D. Implement PBR on router R1 E. use IP source routing
Correct Answer: AC
An engineer must design a VPN solution for a company that has multiple branches connecting to the main office. What are two advantages of using DMVPN instead of IPsec tunnels to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. support for AES 256-bit encryption B. greater scalability C. support for anycast gateway D. lower-traffic overhead E. dynamic spoke-to-spoke tunnels
Correct Answer: BE
Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is designing an OSPF network for a client. Requirements dictate that the routers in Area 1 should receive all routers belonging to the network, including EIGRP, except the ones originated in the RIP domain. Which action should the engineer take?
A. Make area 1 an NSSA. B. Make area 1 a stub. C. Make area 1 a standard OSPF area. D. Make the area 1 router part of area 0.
Correct Answer: A
Which NETCONF operation creates filtering that is specific to the session notifications?
A. B. C.
Correct Answer: A
A large chain of stores currently uses MPLS-based T1 lines to connect their stores to their data center. An architect must design a new solution to improve availability and reduce costs while keeping these considerations in mind:
1. The company uses multicast to deliver training to the stores. 2. The company uses dynamic routing protocols and has implemented QoS. 3. To simplify deployments, tunnels should be created dynamically on the hub when additional stores open. Which solution should be included in this design?
A. VPLS B. GET VPN C. DMVPN D. IPsec
Correct Answer: C
An organization is designing a detailed QoS plan that limits bandwidth to specific rates. Which two parameters are supported by the traffic policing feature? (Choose two.)
A. violating B. marking C. shaping D. bursting E. conforming
Correct Answer: BC
An engineer is creating a design to enable IPv6 to run on an existing IPv4 IS-IS network. The IPv4 and IPv6 topologies will match exactly, and the engineer plans to use the same IS-IS router levels for each protocol per interface. Which IS-IS design is required?
A. multi-topology without enabling transition feature B. multi-topology with transition feature enabled C. single topology without enabling transition feature D. single topology with transition feature enabled
A network engineer must improve the current IS-IS environment. The Catalyst switch is equipped with dual supervisors.
Each time a stateful switchover occurs, the network experiences unnecessary route recomputation. Which solution addresses this issue if the upstream router does not understand graceful restart messaging?
A. Enable IS-IS remote LFA FRR on both devices. B. Enable NSR on the switch. C. Enable NSF on the switch. D. Configure ISIS aggressive timers on both devices.
Correct Answer: C
An engineer must design a multicast network for a financial application. Most of the multicast sources also receive multicast traffic (many-to-many deployment model). To better scale routing tables, the design must not use source trees.
Which multicast protocol satisfies these requirements?
Bidir-PIM is designed to be used for many-to-many applications within individual PIM domains. Multicast groups in bidirectional PIM mode can scale to an arbitrary number of sources without incurring overhead due to the number of sources.
An engineer is working with NETCONF and Cisco NX-OS-based devices. The engineer needs a YANG model that supports a specific feature relevant only to Cisco NX-OS. Which model must the engineer choose?
A. Native B. IEEE C. OpenConfig D. IETF
Correct Answer: D
How is the sub-second failure of a transport link detected in a Cisco SD-WAN network?
A. Hellos are sent between the WAN Edge routers and the vSmart controller. B. BFD runs on the IPsec tunnels between WAN Edge routers. C. BGP is used between WAN Edge routers and the vSmart controller. D. Link state change messages are sent between vSmart controllers.
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Which Cisco Catalyst 9100 AP feature adds capacity by automatically changing the access points from 2.4 and 5GHz to Dual 5GHz?
Correct Answer: A
When enabled which two features will help extend the retention capacity of the Meraki MV smart cameras? (Choose two)
A. Direct stream-based retention
B. Schedule-based retention
C. Hybrid archives
D. Cloud archives
E. Motion-based retention
Correct Answer: BE
In the event an entire site went down: which activity does Cisco\’s HyperFlex Stretched Cluster still enable a user to do?
A. continue VM replication synchronously
B. access the entire cluster
C. access only the remaining node or nodes in the cluster
D. recover lost data
Correct Answer: B
What separates Cisco Meraki from its competitors?
A. kit obtained via promotional seminars can be added and integrated into the POC kit to enhance the service offering
B. the cloud architecture and product experience itself
C. testing the gear live by attending marketing webinars
D. dedicated team and the Cisco Meraki sales specialist attend every whiteboarding session to better illustrate complex topics
Correct Answer: B
Which two features are included in every licensed MX security appliance as part of its unified threat management solution? (Choose two )
A. Stateless L3/L7 firewalls
B. OA (change of authorization)
D. Umbrella integration (DNS firewall)
E. Auto VPN (site-to-site VPN)
Correct Answer: CE
Which two capabilities are included in the System Manager\’s robust enterprise mobility management (EMM) feature set? (Choose two )
A. Rapid provisioning (enrollment)
B. Emergency broadcast (alerts)
C. Remote troubleshooting
D. RFID tag tracking
E. OS version control
Correct Answer: AC
What is one of the mam functionalities of the Meraki Go mobile app?
A. used to manage and renew Meraki Go licenses
B. for opening support tickets with the Meraki Go support team
C. to assist with the fast onboarding of Meraki Go products
D. to help reduce the power consumption of network devices
Correct Answer: C
Using Cisco Security, what is the remediation time for a previously unknown threat?
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Which limitation applies to Cisco FMC dashboards in a multi-domain environment?
A. Child domains are able to view but not edit dashboards that originate from an ancestor domain. B. Child domains have access to only a limited set of widgets from ancestor domains. C. Only the administrator of the top ancestor domain is able to view dashboards. D. Child domains are not able to view dashboards that originate from an ancestor domain.
An engineer is implementing Cisco FTD in the network and is determining which Firepower mode to use. The organization needs to have multiple virtual Firepower devices working separately inside of the FTD appliance to provide traffic segmentation. Which deployment mode should be configured in the Cisco Firepower Management Console to support these requirements?
A. Multiple Deployment B. single-context C. Single deployment D. multi-instance
Correct Answer: D
A network administrator reviews the file report for the last month and notices that all file types, except exe. show a disposition of unknown. What is the cause of this issue?
A. The malware license has not been applied to the Cisco FTD. B. The Cisco FMC cannot reach the Internet to analyze files. C. A file policy has not been applied to the access policy. D. Only Spero file analysis is enabled.
Correct Answer: A
A network administrator needs to create a policy on Cisco Firepower to fast-path traffic to avoid Layer 7 inspection. The rate at which traffic is inspected must be optimized. What must be done to achieve this goal?
A. Enable the FXOS for multi-instance. B. Configure a prefilter policy. C. Configure modular policy framework. D. Disable TCP inspection.
Correct Answer: B
A network administrator is configuring SNORT inspection policies and is seeing failed deployment messages in Cisco FMC. What information should the administrator generate for Cisco TAC to help troubleshoot?
A. A “troubleshoot” file for the device in question. B. A “show tech” file for the device in question. C. A “troubleshoot” file for the Cisco FMC. D. A “show tech” for the Cisco FMC.
An engineer is configuring a Cisco IPS to protect the network and wants to test a policy before deploying it. A copy of each incoming packet needs to be monitored while traffic flow remains constant. Which IPS mode should be implemented to meet these requirements?
A. routed B. passive C. transparent D. inline tap
Correct Answer: D
Which two actions can be used in an access control policy rule? (Choose two.)
A. Block with Reset B. Monitor C. Analyze D. Discover E. Block ALL
An engineer is working on a LAN switch and has noticed that its network connection to the inline Cisco IPS has gone down. Upon troubleshooting, it is determined that the switch is working as expected. What must have been implemented for this failure to occur?
A. The upstream router has a misconfigured routing protocol. B. Link-state propagation is enabled. C. The Cisco IPS has been configured to be in fail-open mode. D. The Cisco IPS is configured in detection mode.
Correct Answer: D
Which function is the primary function of the Cisco AMP threat Grid?
A. flood attack detection. B. secure boot C. image signing D. DDoS mitigation E. SYN flood detection
Correct Answer: BC
Which policy rule is included in the deployment of a local DMZ during the initial deployment of a Cisco NGFW through the Cisco FMC GUI?
A. a default DMZ policy for which only a user can change the IP addresses. B. deny ip any C. no policy rule is included D. permit IP any
Correct Answer: C
Administrator is attempting to remotely log into a switch in the data center using SSH and is unable to connect. How does the administrator confirm that traffic is reaching the firewall?
A. by running Wireshark on the administrator\’s PC. B. by performing a packet capture on the firewall. C. by running a packet tracer on the firewall. D. by attempting to access it from a different workstation.
Correct Answer: B
Which command-line mode is supported by the Cisco Firepower Management Center CLI?
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QUESTION 1 What Cisco command shows you the status of an 802.1X connection on interface gi0/1? A. show authorization status B. show authen sess int gi0/1 C. show connection status gi0/1 D. show ver gi0/1 Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2 Under which two circumstances is a CoA issued? (Choose two.) A. A new authentication rule was added to the policy on the Policy Service node. B. An endpoint is deleted on the Identity Service Engine server. C. A new Identity Source Sequence is created and referenced in the authentication policy. D. An endpoint is profiled for the first time. E. A new Identity Service Engine server is added to the deployment with the Administration personA. Correct Answer: BD https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/security/ise/1.0/user_guide/ise10_prof_pol.html
QUESTION 5 Which function is the primary function of the Cisco AMP threat Grid? A. automated email encryption B. applying a real-time URI blacklist C. automated malware analysis D. monitoring network traffic Correct Answer: C
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QUESTION 1 Which policy is used to capture host information on the Cisco Firepower Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System? A. correlation B. intrusion C. access control D. network discovery Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 2 Which two prevention techniques are used to mitigate SQL injection attacks? (Choose two.) A. Check integer, float, or Boolean string parameters to ensure accurate values. B. Use prepared statements and parameterized queries. C. Secure the connection between the web and the app tier. D. Write SQL code instead of using object-relational mapping libraries. E. Block SQL code execution in the web application database login. Correct Answer: AB Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/SQL_injection
QUESTION 3 In which form of attack is alternate encoding, such as hexadecimal representation, most often observed? A. smurf B. distributed denial of service C. cross-site scripting D. rootkit exploit Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 4 An engineer wants to automatically assign endpoints that have a specific OUl into a new endpoint group. Which probe must be enabled for this type of profiling to work? A. NetFlow B. DHCP C. SNMP D. NMAP Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 Which two endpoint measures are used to minimize the chances of falling victim to phishing and social engineering attacks? (Choose two.) A. Patch for cross-site scripting. B. Perform backups to the private cloud. C. Protect against input validation and character escapes in the endpoint. D. Install a spam and virus email filter. E. Protect systems with an up-to-date antimalware program. Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 9 Which two capabilities does TAXII support? (Choose two.) A. exchange B. pull messaging C. binding D. correlation E. mitigating Correct Answer: BC
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AZ-303 Microsoft Azure Architect Technologies
AZ-304 Microsoft Azure Architect Design
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1. What should you include in the identity management strategy to support the planned changes?
A. Move all the domain controllers from corp.fabrikam.com to virtual networks in Azure.
B. Deploy domain controllers for the rd.fabrikam.com forest to virtual networks in Azure.
C. Deploy domain controllers for corp.fabrikam.com to virtual networks in Azure.
D. Deploy a new Azure AD tenant for the authentication of new RandD projects.
Directory synchronization between Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) and corp.fabrikam.com must not be affected by a link failure between Azure and the on-premises network. (This requires domain controllers in Azure) Users on the on-premises network must be able to authenticate to corp.fabrikam.com if an Internet link fails. (This requires domain controllers on-premises)
2. You need to recommend a solution to meet the database retention requirement. What should you recommend?
A. Configure geo-replication of the database.
B. Configure a long-term retention policy for the database.
C. Configure Azure Site Recovery.
D. Use automatic Azure SQL Database backups.
3. You need to recommend a strategy for migrating the database content of WebApp1 to Azure. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Use Azure Site Recovery to replicate the SQL servers to Azure.
B. Copy the BACPAC file that contains the Azure SQL database files to Azure Blob storage.
C. Use SQL Server transactional replication.
D. Copy the VHD that contains the Azure SQL database files to Azure Blob storage.
Before you upload a Windows virtual machine (VM) from on-premises to Azure, you must prepare the virtual hard disk (VHD or VHDX).
Scenario: WebApp1 has a web tier that uses Microsoft Internet Information Services (IIS) and a database tier that runs Microsoft SQL Server 2016. The web tier and the database tier are deployed to virtual machines that run on Hyper-V.
4. You need to recommend a notification solution for the IT Support distribution group. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. a SendGrid account with advanced reporting
B. Azure AD Connect Health
C. Azure Network Watcher
D. an action group
5. You need to recommend a strategy for the web tier of WebApp1. The solution must minimize. What should you recommend?
A. Create a runbook that resizes virtual machines automatically to a smaller size outside of business hours.
B. Configure the Scale Up settings for a web app.
C. Deploy a virtual machine scale set that scales out on a 75 percent CPU threshold.
D. Configure the Scale Out settings for a web app.
6. You need to recommend a data storage strategy for WebApp1. What should you include in in the recommendation?
A. an Azure SQL Database elastic pool
B. a vCore-baswl Azure SQL database
C. an Azure virtual machine that runs SQL Server
D. a fixed-size DTU AzureSQL database
7. You need to recommend a high-availability solution for the middle tier of the payment processing system. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. availability zones
B. an availability set
C. the Premium App Service plan
D. the Isolated App Server plan
8. You need to recommend a backup solution for the data store of the payment processing system.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Microsoft System Center Data Protection Manager (DPM)
B. Azure Backup Server
C. Azure SQL long-term backup retention
D. Azure Managed Disks
9. You need to recommend a solution for the network configuration of the front-end tier of the payment processing. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Azure Application Gateway
B. Traffic Manager
C. a Standard Load Balancer
D. a Basic load Balancer
Ensure that the number of compute nodes of the front-end and the middle tiers of the payment processing system can increase or decrease automatically based on CPU utilization.
Ensure that each tier of the payment processing system is subject to a Service Level Agreement (SLA) of 99.99 percent availability.
With Azure Load Balancer, you can scale your applications and create high availability for your services. Load Balancer supports inbound and outbound scenarios, provides low latency and high throughput, and scales up to millions of flows.
for all TCP and UDP applications.
Azure Load Balancer is available in two SKUs: Basic and Standard. There are differences in scale, features, and pricing. Standard SLA guarantees a 99.99% for data path with two healthy virtual machines. Basic SLA does not exist.
10. You need to recommend a backup solution for the data store of the payment processing. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Microsoft System Center Data Protection Manager (DPM)
B. long-term retention
C. a Recovery Services vault
D. Azure Backup Server
11. You need to recommend a compute solution for the middle tier of the payment processing system.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. virtual machine scale sets
B. availability sets
C. Azure Kubernetes Service (AKS)
D. Function App
12. You need to recommend a disaster recovery solution for the back-end tier of the payment processing system. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Always On Failover Cluster Instances
B. active geo-replication
C. Azure Site Recovery
D. an auto-failover group
13. You need to recommend a solution for protecting the content of the back-end tier of the payment processing system. What should you include in the recommendations?
A. Always Encrypted with deterministic encryption
B. Transparent Date Encryption (TDE)
C. Azure Storage Service Encryption
D. Always Encrypted with randomized encryption
14. You need to recommend a solution for the collection of security logs the middle tier of the payment processing system. What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Azure Notification Hubs
B. the Azure Diagnostics agent
C. Azure Event Hubs
D. the Azure Log Analytics agent
15. WebDev01 is used only for testing purposes. You need to reduce the costs to host WebDev01. What should you modify?
NOTE: To answer this question, sign in to the Azure portal and explore the Azure resource groups.
A. the disk type of WebDev01
B. the networking properties of WebDev01
C. the storage type of the storage account
D. the properties of the storage account
The storage type can be changed to Block blobs to save money.
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You need to resolve the partner company communication issue. Which two PowerShell commands should you run? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Get-CsExternalAccessPolicy | Set-CsExternalAccessPolicy -EnableFederationAccess $True B. Set-CsTenantFederationConfiguration -allowedDomains C. Set-CsAccessEdgeConfiguration -AllowFederatedUsers D. New-CsAllowedDomain -identity E. Get-CsOnlineUser | Set-CsExternalAccessPolicy -EnableFederationAccess $True
You need to resolve the emergency address issue. What should you do?
A. Add only the IPv6 public relay IP address to the trusted IP address list for the tenant. B. Add only the IPv4 public relay IP address to the trusted IP address list for the tenant. C. Add the IPv4 and IPv6 public relay addresses to the trusted IP address list for the tenant. D. Route HTTPS traffic to Microsoft Teams by using a proxy and the proxy IP address.
You manage a company\\’s Microsoft Teams environment. Members of a team cannot send emails to a channel\\’s email address. You need to determine the cause of the issue. What are two possible causes? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. The email has more than 10 file attachments. B. The channel\\’s associated SharePoint folder was renamed. C. The channel email address is part of a distribution list. D. Email integration is not enabled. E. The email contains more than 25 inline images.
A manager wants to review Microsoft Teams call quality metrics for all prepaway company employees. You need to grant the manager access to the Microsoft Teams Call Quality Dashboard. Which role should you assign to the manager?
A. Teams Communications Administrator B. Teams Communications Support Specialist C. Teams Communications Support Engineer D. Teams Service Administrator
A prepaway company has a Microsoft 365 subscription. The company implements a new security policy that has the following requirements: 1. Guest users from specific domains must be allowed to collaborate by using Microsoft Teams. 2. Guest users must be prevented from inviting other guests. You need to recommend a solution to meet the security policy requirements. What should you recommend?
A. Run the following PowerShell cmdlets: New-AzureADPolicy | Set-AzureADPolicy B. From the Microsoft Teams admin center, modify external collaboration settings. C. From Azure Active Directory, modify external collaboration settings. D. From the Microsoft Teams admin center, modify the Communicate with Skype users option.
HOTSPOT A company uses Microsoft Teams. A user reports that they are unable to sign in to Teams. The user is able to reproduce the issue on multiple devices. The user provides you with the following screenshot that shows the error message.
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that answers each question based on the information presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
An organization has E5 licenses without audio conferencing. When a user sends a chat message from the Microsoft Teams desktop app the messages are not delivered to recipients. When the user sends a chat message by using the Teams mobile app the messages are delivered. You need to resolve the issue. Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Deactivate and reactivate the user\\’s Teams license. B. Update the Teams desktop app to the latest version. C. Sign out of Teams and the sign back in to Teams. D. Clear the Teams app local cache and the Windows credentials cache.
DRAG DROP You manage the Microsoft Teams environment for a tenant. Users report authentication issues. In the Azure AD admin center, you view many sign in error codes. You need to manually reset Seamless Single Sign-on (SSO). Which five actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
A prepaway company uses Microsoft Teams. You need to prevent users from using a specific app within Teams. What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. On the Permission policies page of the Teams admin center, create a custom policy and assign the policy to users. B. On the Enterprise applications page in the Azure Active Directory admin center, disable the app. C. On the Users page of the Azure Active Directory admin center, disable the app. D. On the Manage apps page of the Teams admin center, disable the app. E. On the Setup policies page of the Teams admin center, create a custom policy and assign the policy to users.
A prepaway company limits users that are authorized to create Microsoft 365 groups. A user reports that they do not have the option to create new teams in the Microsoft Teams app. You need to ensure that the user can create teams. What should you do?
A. Disable Conditional Access policies. B. Clear the Teams cache for the user and restart the Microsoft Teams client app. C. Add the user to a security group. D. Add the user to a distribution group.
You are an administrator in an organization. You share files in chats with other users. The users report that they are unable to access the files. Users see an error message as shown in the image:
You need to resolve the issue by updating the OneDrive for Business settings for the users. You navigate to the settings page for the Team\\’s SharePoint site collection. What should you do?
A. Enable Limited-access user permission lockdown mode. B. Enable document sets. C. Disable Limited-access user permission lockdown mode. D. Disable site policy.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. A prepaway company has a Microsoft 365 subscription. The company has a main office in one region. The company opens a new office in another region. You must relocate 400 users to the new office. Solution: Create a configuration profile with the emergency address and assign the profile to the device for each user. Does the solution meet the goal?
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Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You plan to update the Azure DevOps strategy of your company. You need to identify the following issues as they occur during the company\\’s development process: 1. Licensing violations 2. Prohibited libraries Solution: You implement automated security testing. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes B. No
Instead use implement continuous integration. Note: WhiteSource is the leader in continuous open source software security and compliance management. WhiteSource integrates into your build process, irrespective of your programming languages, build tools, or development environments. It works automatically, continuously, and silently in the background, checking the security, licensing, and quality of your open source components against WhiteSource constantly-updated definitive database of open source repositories. Reference: https://azuredevopslabs.com/labs/vstsextend/whitesource/
SIMULATION You need to ensure that the https://contoso.com/statushook webhook is called every time a repository named az40010480345acr1 receives a new version of an image named dotnetapp. To complete this task, sign in to the Microsoft Azure portal. Correct Answer: See solution below. 1. Sign in to the Azure portal. 2. Navigate to the container registry az40010480345acr1. 3. Under Services, select Webhooks. 4. Select the existing webhook https://contoso.com/statushook, and double-click on it to get its properties. 5. For Trigger actions select image push Example web hook: Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/container-registry/container-registry-webhook
Your company uses Azure DevOps. Only users who have accounts in Azure Active Directory can access the Azure DevOps environment. You need to ensure that only devices that are connected to the on-premises network can access the Azure DevOps environment. What should you do?
A. Assign the Stakeholder access level all users. B. In Azure Active Directory, configure risky sign-ins. C. In Azure DevOps, configure Security in Project Settings. D. In Azure Active Directory, configure conditional access.
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You manage a project in Azure DevOps. You need to prevent the configuration of the project from changing over time. Solution: Implement Continuous Assurance for the project. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes B. No
The basic idea behind Continuous Assurance (CA) is to setup the ability to check for “drift” from what is considered a secure snapshot of a system. Support for Continuous Assurance lets us treat security truly as a \\’state\\’ as opposed to a \\’point in time\\’ achievement. This is particularly important in today\\’s context when \\’continuous change\\’ has become a norm. There can be two types of drift: 1. Drift involving \\’baseline\\’ configuration: This involves settings that have a fixed number of possible states (often predefined/statically determined ones). For instance, a SQL DB can have TDE encryption turned ON or OFF…or a Storage Account may have auditing turned ON however the log retention period may be less than 365 days. 2. Drift involving \\’stateful\\’ configuration: There are settings which cannot be constrained within a finite set of well-known states. For instance, the IP addresses configured to have access to a SQL DB can be any (arbitrary) set of IP addresses. In such scenarios, usually human judgment is initially required to determine whether a particular configuration should be considered \\’secure\\’ or not. However, once that is done, it is important to ensure that there is no “stateful drift” from the attested configuration. (E.g., if, in a troubleshooting session, someone adds the IP address of a developer machine to the list, the Continuous Assurance feature should be able to identify the drift and generate notifications/ alerts or even trigger \\’auto-remediation\\’ depending on the severity of the change). Reference: https://azsk.azurewebsites.net/04-Continous-Assurance/Readme.html
SIMULATION You need to create and configure an Azure Storage account named az400lod11566895stor in a resource group named RG1lod11566895 to store the boot diagnostics for a virtual machine named VM1. To complete this task, sign in to the Microsoft Azure portal. Correct Answer: See solution below.
You have a private project in Azure DevOps. You need to ensure that a project manager can create custom work item queries to report on the project\\’s progress. The solution must use the principle of least privilege. To which security group should you add the project manager?
A. Project Collection Administrators B. Reader C. Project Administrators D. Contributor
You have a containerized solution that runs in Azure Container Instances. The solution contains a frontend container named App1 and a backend container named DB1. DB1 loads a large amount of data during startup. You need to verify that DB1 can handle incoming requests before users can submit requests to Appl. What should you configure?
A. a Iiveness probe B. an Azure Load Balancer health probe C. a readiness probe D. a performance log
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. Your company has a project in Azure DevOps for a new web application. You need to ensure that when code is checked in, a build runs automatically. Solution: From the Triggers tab of the build pipeline, you select Enable continuous integration. Does this meet the goal?
DRAG DROP You are configuring Azure Pipelines for three projects in Azure DevOps as shown in the following table.
Which version control system should you recommend for each project? To answer, drag the appropriate version control systems to the correct projects. Each version control system may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Select and Place:
Project1:Git in Azure Repos Project2: Github Enterprise GitHub Enterprise is the on-premises version of GitHub.com. GitHub Enterprise includes the same great set of features as GitHub.com but packaged for running on your organization\\’s local network. All repository data is stored on machines that you control, and access is integrated with your organization\\’s authentication system (LDAP, SAML, or CAS). Project3: Bitbucket cloud One downside, however, is that Bitubucket does not include support for SVN but this can be easily amended migrating the SVN repos to Git with tools such as SVN Mirror for Bitbucket . Note: SVN is a centralized version control system. Incorrect Answers: Bitbucket: Bitbucket comes as a distributed version control system based on Git. Note: A source control system, also called a version control system, allows developers to collaborate on code and track changes. Source control is an essential tool for multi-developer projects. Our systems support two types of source control: Git (distributed) and Team Foundation Version Control (TFVC). TFVC is a centralized, client-server system. In both Git and TFVC, you can check in files and organize files in folders, branches, and repositories. References: https://www.azuredevopslabs.com/labs/azuredevops/yaml/ https://enterprise.github.com/faq
You have a multi-tier application. The front end of the application is hosted in Azure App Service. You need to identify the average load times of the application pages. What should you use?
A. Azure Application Insights B. the activity log of the App Service C. the diagnostics logs of the App Service D. Azure Advisor
Application Insights will tell you about any performance issues and exceptions, and help you find and diagnose the root causes. Application Insights can monitor both Java and ASP.NET web applications and services, WCF services. They can be hosted on-premises, on virtual machines, or as Microsoft Azure websites. On the client side, Application Insights can take telemetry from web pages and a wide variety of devices including iOS, Android, and Windows Store apps. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/app/web-monitor-performance
You have an Azure DevOps organization named Contoso and an Azure subscription. You use Azure DevOps to build a containerized app named App1 and deploy App1 to an Azure container instance named ACI1. You need to restart ACI1 when App1 stops responding. What should you do?
A. Add a liveness probe to the YAML configuration of App1. B. Add a readiness probe to the YAML configuration of App1. C. Use Connection Monitor in Azure Network Watcher. D. Use IP flow verify in Azure Network Watcher.
For containerized applications that serve traffic, you might want to verify that your container is ready to handle incoming requests. Azure Container Instances supports readiness probes to include configurations so that your container can\\’t be accessed under certain conditions. The readiness probe behaves like a Kubernetes readiness probe. For example, a container app might need to load a large data set during startup, and you don\\’t want it to receive requests during this time. YAML is used to setup a liveness probe. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/container-instances/container-instances-readiness-probe
Your company uses Azure DevOps to manage the build and release processes for applications. You use a Git repository for applications source control. You plan to create a new branch from an existing pull request. Later, you plan to merge the new branch and the target branch of the pull request. You need to use a pull request action to create the new branch. The solution must ensure that the branch uses only a portion of the code in the pull request. Which pull request action should you use?
A. Set as default branch B. Approve with suggestions C. Cherry-pick D. Reactivate E. Revert
Cherry-pick a pull request To copy changes made in a pull request to another branch in your repo, follow these steps: In a completed pull request, select Cherry-pick, or for an active pull request, select Cherry-pick from the … menu. Cherrypicking a pull request in this way creates a new branch with the copied changes. Merge into a target branch in a second pull request. In Target branch, enter the branch you want to merge the copied changes. In Case Study: branch name, enter a new branch to contain the copied changes, then select Cherry-pick. Select Create pull request to merge the topic branch into the target branch to complete the cherry-pick. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/devops/repos/git/pull-requests
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The latest update Cisco 350-801 dumps exam questions
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Endpoint A is attempting to call endpoint B. Endpoint A only supports G.711 ulaw with a packetization rate of 20 ms, and endpoint B supports packetization rate of 30 ms for G.711ulaw. Which two media are resources are allocated to normalize packetization rates through transrating?
A. Hardware MTP on Cisco IOS Software B. Software MTP on Cisco Unified Communication Manager C. Software MTP on Cisco IOS Software D. Software transcoder on Cisco unified Communications manager E. Hardware transcoder on Cisco IOS Software
An administrator with ID392116981 is receiving complaints of pixilation smearing, and pulsing of video calls between two offices that are connected by a WAN. Assuming that QoS is implemented on the WAN connection, which classification is used to mark the video traffic, according to the Cisco QoS baseline?
A. AF31 B. CS3 C. EF D. AF41
What causes poor voice quality and video pixelization in a video call?
A. The QoS is configured incorrectly. B. A firewall is blocking the RTP ports. C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager is configured to use G.711 instead of G.729. D. 1 Gbps network ports are used instead of 100 Mbps network ports.
Refer to the exhibit. Endpoint A calls endpoint B. What is the only audio codec that can be used for the call?
A. Telephone-event/8000 B. G7221/16000 C. PCMA/8000 D. G722/8000
Which DiffServ marking is the most likely to drop packets?
A. AF32 B. AF12 C. AF11 D. AF13
Regarding SIP integrations with Cisco Unified Communications Manager, if the Cisco Unity Connection is configured to listen for incoming IPv4 and IPv6 traffic, how should the addressing mode be set up in the Cisco Unity Connection?
A. Set up is not required. B. Set up for each group to use IPv4 and IPv6. C. Set up media ports for each port group to use IPv4. D. Set up IPv4 and IPv6 in Cisco Unified CM.
An engineer must manually register an analog port with cisco UCM using the MGCP protocol. Which commands are required?
A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D
Which access control group is required on an end user to allow Jabber to do deskphone mode?
A. Allow Control of Device from CTI B. Standard CTI Enabled C. Standard CTI Allow Reception of SRTP Key Material D. Standard CTI Secure Connection
Which three Cisco Unity Connection call handler greetings can be overridden by the internal greeting? (Choose three.)
A. holiday B. alternate C. error D. busy E. closed F. standard
This greeting overrides the Standard, Closed, and Holiday greetings but only for internal callers or users defined in Cisco Unity Connection.Because the mentioned three greetings are defined for externals users.
After an engineer runs the utils ntp status command on the Cisco Unified Communications Manager publisher, the stratum value is 16. Which issue can the Cisco Unified CM cluster experience?
A. Unified CM sends an NTPV4 packet. B. Database replication is not synchronized on the Unified CM nodes. C. The cluster loses access to port 124 at the firewall. D. The date/time group on all phones defaults to the time zone of the engineer.
Which attribute contains an XMPP stanza?
A. iq B. message C. type D. presence
An administrator needs to stop the leading 9 from outbound calls on an IOS Voice Gateway and ensure that the system handles 911 emergency calls Which configuration is needed to accomplish this task?
A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D
Refer to the exhibit.
Assume that the bottom logical partition policy entry in Cisco Unified Communications Manager was provisioned last. How is the call treated when an IP phone in the Bangalore GeoLocation places a call to a MGCP gateway with FXS ports in the San Jose GeoLocation?
A. The call is denied because the last added logical partition policy takes precedence when multiple matches exist. B. The call is allowed because the first listed logical partition policy takes precedence when multiple matches exist. C. The call is denied because the call flow matches neither policy entries. D. The call is allowed because the call flow matches neither policy entries. E. The call is allowed because only the top policy entry matches the call flow.
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The Cisco Implementing Cisco Collaboration Conferencing exam code is “300-825”. To obtain the 300-825 CLCNF exam certificate, you must pass the 300-825 exam. The exam is just a way to verify your learning results. You must master the corresponding knowledge to face the following work. The CCNP Collaboration 300-825 exam belongs to one of the CCNP Collaboration exam series. Facing the certification exam, you need to master a lot of corresponding knowledge:
Describe the Cisco conferencing architecture including cloud, hybrid, and on-premises conferencing
Describe the physical deployment options and deployment models for Cisco Meeting Server, including Cisco Meeting Server 1000, 2000, and virtual machine
Configure a Cisco Meeting Server single combined deployment for Web-Real Time Communications (WebRTC) endpoints within the enterprise
Yes! Obtaining 300-825 exam certification is not easy! Next, I will share some practical and effective exam questions to help you improve yourself.
Cisco 300-825 CLCNF free dumps
After the test is completed, compare the answers at the end of the article
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator troubleshoots an issue with Cisco Meeting Server. Endpoints that call from the remote site cannot connect, but endpoints that call from headquarters can connect. What should the administrator do to resolve this issue?
A. Add a route for 192.168.10.0/24 to interface b.
B. Set interface b as the default interface.
C. Remove the route for 192.168.0.0/16 from interface b.
D. Enable DHCP on interface a but not on interface b.
An engineer configures Cisco Meeting Server as a conference resource for Cisco UCM. Cisco UCM has a secure SIP trunk to Cisco Meeting Server, but the server does not register to Cisco UCM. Which configuration resolves this issue?
A. Ensure that the SIP trunk from Cisco UCM to Cisco Meeting Server is a secure trunk using port 5061.
B. Add Cisco Meeting Server to the Cisco UCM SIP trunk with an IP address and not an FQDN.
C. Set the Web Admin port on the Conference Bridge settings to match Cisco Meeting Server.
D. Configure an MRGL that contains Cisco Meeting Server to be associated with device pools.
Refer to the exhibit. Users report that they do not see a high-quality picture on the high-definition endpoints when they call into Cisco Meeting Server. An engineer must extract the SDP that is offered by Cisco Meeting Server from the SIP traces to troubleshoot. What is the cause of this issue?
A. Cisco Meeting Server is not configured for H.265 to support high-definition video calling.
B. The AES ciphers are not compatible with high-definition video calling.
C. The Content-Length value in the SDP does not support high-definition video calling.
D. The SIP call bandwidth is not at a value that supports high-definition video calling.
Refer to the exhibit. When a user dials 8001 to connect to a space that is hosted on Cisco Meeting Server, the user is prompted for a pin. The prompt says the user should press # to connect to a meeting without a pin, but guests and hosts must enter a pin before connecting to the meeting.
Which configuration change resolves this issue?
A. The secret value must be changed to be solely numeric instead of alpha-numeric.
B. The passcode must be changed to be longer than four digits.
C. All access methods that are associated with the space must be changed to include a pin.
D. A callLegProfile must be created and associated with the space so that pins are not optional.
In the Cisco TMS GUI, a Cisco UCM registered system shows these error details:
Provisioning mode is set to Cisco UCM for this system.
The system cannot be refreshed or scheduled.
To manage this system as a Cisco TMS system, the provisioning mode needs to be changed to Cisco TMS.
To add the system as Cisco UCM managed system, it must be added through the Cisco UCM that is provisioning the system.
What should be done to resolve this error?
A. Purge the system in Cisco TMS and add the system back directly to Cisco TMS using “Add by IP Address”.
B. Restart Microsoft IIS on the Windows server that hosts Cisco TMS and perform a “Force Refresh” on the system.
C. Delete the system and add the system back with the “Add from Cisco UCM or Cisco TMS” option.
D. Update the credentials for the system in Cisco TMS.
Refer to the exhibit. An administrator configures Expressway-C to act as a proxy for a Cisco Meeting Server web app. Which configuration must exist on the Cisco Meeting Server that runs the web app to complete this integration?
A. web app running on port 445 B. HTTP redirect disabled on the web app
C. matching authentication combinations on the web app and Expressway-C
D. Common Name of “_cms-web._tls.join.darmckin.local” on the certificate in use
After performing an upgrade of the Cisco Meeting Server cluster, an engineer sees an error message indicating that Cisco Meeting Server is not licensed. Also, no spaces or users show in the GUI. What should be done to resolve this issue?
A. The database cluster upgrade_schema command must be run on the new database cluster master.
B. The Cisco Meeting Server nodes must be re-upgraded using the same file to upgrade all nodes.
C. The Cisco Meeting Server nodes must be re-upgraded with the database master being first and then all peers.
D. New database certificates must be generated for each peer in the cluster.
An engineer configures Cisco Meeting Server with Expressway for external web app access and must enable participants to use the web app to join conferences that are hosted on the meeting server. Which service should be used in the Expressway-E accomplish this goal?
A customer has a collaboration solution on-premises and is considering a cloud solution for the enterprise. Which collaboration method should be deployed to protect the existing investment and extend collaboration to the cloud?
A. Continue to use the on-premises solution and add a cloud solution in parallel.
B. Refresh hardware and software with the latest releases.
C. Decommission on-premises equipment and flash cut to a cloud solution.
D. Move to a hybrid that integrates an existing solution with a cloud solution.
Cisco exams are not simple. To pass the exam, you must know more about the exam. Of course, getting the Cisco certification is also a very proud thing. The certificate can help you get more, improve your quality of life and gain glory. Finally, I wish you success! Good luck will always be with you.
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Above I have answered the Cisco exam process and methods, and then I will share some free Cisco 300-410 exam practice questions to help you understand your own strength.
Cisco 300-410 exam practice questions (Free test 13Q&A)
The answer is announced at the end of the article
An engineer configured two routers connected to two different service providers using BGP with default attributes. One of the links is presenting high delay, which causes slowness in the network. Which BGP attribute must the engineer configure to avoid using the high-delay ISP link if the second ISP link is up?
A. LOCAL_PREF B. MED C. WEIGHT D. AS-PATH
Refer to the exhibit. Users report that IP addresses cannot be acquired from the DHCP server. The DHCP server is configured as shown. About 300 total nonconcurrent users are using this DHCP server, but none of them are active for more than two hours per day. Which action fixes the issue within the current resources?
A. Modify the subnet mask to the network 192.168.1.0 255.255.254.0 command in the DHCP pool B. Configure the DHCP lease time to a smaller value C. Configure the DHCP lease time to a bigger value D. Add the network 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 command to the DHCP pool
Refer to the exhibit.
An engineer is troubleshooting BGP on a device but discovers that the clock on the device does not correspond to the time stamp of the log entries. Which action ensures consistency between the two times?
A. Configure the service timestamps log uptime command in global configuration mode. B. Configure the logging clock synchronize command in global configuration mode. C. Configure the service timestamps log datetime localtime command in global configuration mode. D. Make sure that the clock on the device is synchronized with an NTP server.
A DMVPN single hub topology is using IPsec + mGRE with OSPF. What should be configured on the hub to ensure it will be the designated router?
A. tunnel interface of the hub with ip nhrp ospf dr B. OSPF priority to 0 C. route map to set the metrics of learned routes to 110 D. OSPF priority greater than 1
By default, the priority is 1 on all routers so we can set the OSPF priority of the hub to a value which is greater than 1 to make sure it would become the DR.
DRAG DROP Drag and drop the OSPF adjacency states from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right. Select and Place:
This is the first OSPF neighbor state. It means that no information (hellos) has been received from this neighbor, but hello packets can still be sent to the neighbor in this state. During the fully adjacent neighbor state, if a router doesn\\’t receive
hello packet from a neighbor within the Router Dead Interval time (RouterDeadInterval = 4*HelloInterval by default) or if the manually configured neighbor is being removed from the configuration, then the neighbor state changes from Full to Down.
This state is only valid for manually configured neighbors in an NBMA environment. In Attempt state, the router sends unicast hello packets every poll interval to the neighbor, from which hellos have not been received within the dead interval.
This state specifies that the router has received a hello packet from its neighbor, but the receiving router\\’s ID was not included in the hello packet. When a router receives a hello packet from a neighbor, it should list the sender\\’s router ID in its hello packet as an acknowledgment that it received a valid hello packet.
This state designates that bi-directional communication has been established between two routers. Bi-directional means that each router has seen the other\\’s hello packet. This state is attained when the router receiving the hello packet sees its own Router ID within the received hello packet\\’s neighbor field. At this state, a router decides whether to become adjacent with this neighbor. On broadcast media and non-broadcast multiaccess networks, a router becomes full only with the designated router (DR) and the backup designated router (BDR); it stays in the 2-way state with all other neighbors.
On Point-to-point and Point-to-multipoint networks, a router becomes full with all connected routers. At the end of this stage, the DR and BDR for broadcast and non-broadcast multiacess networks are elected. For more information on the DR election process, refer to DR Election. Note: Receiving a Database Descriptor (DBD) packet from a neighbor in the init state will also a cause a transition to 2-way state.
Once the DR and BDR are elected, the actual process of exchanging link state information can start between the routers and their DR and BDR. (ie. Shared or NBMA networks). In this state, the routers and their DR and BDR establish a master-slave relationship and choose the initial sequence number for adjacency formation. The router with the higher router ID becomes the master and starts the exchange, and as such, is the only router that can increment the sequence number. Note that one would logically conclude that the DR/BDR with the highest router ID will become the master during this process of master-slave relation. Remember that the DR/BDR election might be purely by virtue of a higher priority configured on the router instead of highest router ID. Thus, it is possible that a DR plays the role of slave. And also note that master/slave election is on a per-neighbor basis.
In the exchange state, OSPF routers exchange database descriptor (DBD) packets. Database descriptors contain linkstate advertisement (LSA) headers only and describe the contents of the entire link-state database. Each DBD packet has a sequence number which can be incremented only by master which is explicitly acknowledged by slave. Routers also send link-state request packets and link-state update packets (which contain the entire LSA) in this state. The contents of the DBD received are compared to the information contained in the routers link-state database to check if new or more current link-state information is available with the neighbor.
In this state, the actual exchange of link state information occurs. Based on the information provided by the DBDs, routers send link-state request packets. The neighbor then provides the requested link- state information in link-state update packets. During the adjacency, if a router receives an outdated or missing LSA, it requests that LSA by sending a linkstate request packet. All link-state update packets are acknowledged.
In this state, routers are fully adjacent with each other. All the router and network LSAs are exchanged and the routers\\’ databases are fully synchronized. Full is the normal state for an OSPF router. If a router is stuck in another state, it is an indication that there are problems in forming adjacencies. The only exception to this is the 2-way state, which is normal in a broadcast network. Routers achieve the FULL state with their DR and BDR in NBMA/broadcast media and FULL state with every neighbor in the remaining media such as point-to- point and point-to-multipoint. Note: The DR and BDR that achieve FULL state with every router on the segment will display FULL/DROTHER when you enter the show ip ospf neighbor command on either a DR or BDR. This simply means that the neighbor is not a DR or BDR, but since the router on which the command was entered is either a DR or BDR, this shows the neighbor as FULL/DROTHER.
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/open-shortest-path-first-ospf/13685-13.html + Each router compares the DBD packets that were received from the other router: Exchange + Routers exchange information with other routers in the multiaccess network: Exstart + The neighboring router requests the other routers to send missing entries: Loading + The network has already elected a DR and a backup BDR: 2-way + The OSPF router ID of the receiving router was not contained in the hello message: Init + No hellos have been received from a neighbor router: Down
When OSPF adjacency is formed, a router goes through several state changes before it becomes fully adjacent with its neighbor.
The states are Down -> Attempt (optional) -> Init -> 2-Way -> Exstart -> Exchange -> Loading -> Full. Short descriptions about these states are listed below:
Down: no information (hellos) has been received from this neighbor. Attempt: only valid for manually configured neighbors in an NBMA environment. In Attempt state, the router sends unicast hello packets every poll interval to the neighbor, from which hellos have not been received within the dead interval.
Init: specifies that the router has received a hello packet from its neighbor, but the receiving router\\’s ID was not included in the hello packet
2-Way: indicates bi-directional communication has been established between two routers. Exstart: Once the DR and BDR are elected, the actual process of exchanging link state information can start between the routers and their DR and BDR.
Exchange: OSPF routers exchange and compare database descriptor (DBD) packets Loading: In this state, the actual exchange of link state information occurs. Outdated or missing entries are also requested to be resent.
What is the output of the following command: show ip vrf
A. Show\\’s default RD values B. Displays IP routing table information associated with a VRF C. Show\\’s routing protocol information associated with a VRF. D. Displays the ARP table (static and dynamic entries) in the specified VRF
Refer to the exhibits. A user on the 192.168.1.0/24 network can successfully ping 192.168.3.1, but the administrator cannot ping 192.168.3.1 from the LA router. Which set of configurations fixes the issue?
A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C D. Option D
Refer to the exhibit.Which routes from OSPF process 5 are redistributed into EIGRP?
A. E1 and E2 subnets matching access list TO-OSPF B. E1 and E2 subnets matching prefix list TO-OSPF C. only E2 subnets matching access list TO-OSPF D. only E1 subnets matching prefix listTO-OS1
DRAG DROP Drag and drop the packet types from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right. Select and Place:
Unlike legacy network technologies such as ISDN, Frame Relay, and ATM that defined separate data and control channels, IP carries all packets within a single pipe. Thus, IP network devices such as routers and switches must be able to distinguish between data plane, control plane, and management plane packets to treat each packet appropriately. From an IP traffic plane perspective, packets may be divided into four distinct, logical groups:
Data plane packets -End-station, user-generated packets that are always forwarded by network devices to other endstation devices. From the perspective of the network device, data plane packets always have a transit destination IP address and can be handled by normal, destination IP address- based forwarding processes.
Control plane packets -Network device generated or received packets that are used for the creation and operation of the network itself. From the perspective of the network device, control plane packets always have a receive destination IP address and are handled by the CPU in the network device route processor. Examples include protocols such as ARP, BGP, OSPF, and other protocols that glue the network together.
Management plane packets -Network device generated or received packets, or management station generated or received packets that are used to manage the network. From the perspective of the network device, management plane packets always have a receive destination IP address and are handled by the CPU in the network device route processor. Examples include protocols such as Telnet, Secure Shell (SSH), TFTP, SNMP, FTP, NTP, and other protocols used to manage the device and/or network.
Services plane packets -A special case of data plane packets, services plane packets are also user- generated packets that are also forwarded by network devices to other end-station devices, but that require high-touch handling by the network device (above and beyond normal, destination IP address-based forwarding) to forward the packet. Examples of high-touch handling include such functions as GRE encapsulation, QoS, MPLS VPNs, and SSL/IPsec encryption/decryption, etc. From the perspective of the network device, services plane packets may have a transit destination IP address, or may have a receive destination IP address (for example, in the case of a VPN tunnel endpoint).
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting OSPF adjacency issue by going through the console logs in the router, but due to an overwhelming log messages stream, it is impossible to capture the problem. Which two commands reduce console log messages to relevant OSPF neighbor problem details so that the issue can be resolved? (Choose two.)
A. debug condition ospf neighbor B. debug condition interface C. debug condition session-id ADJCHG D. debug condition all
Refer to the exhibit. What does the imp-null tag represent in the MPLS VPN cloud?
A. Pop the label B. Impose the label C. Include the EXP bit D. Exclude the EXP bit
The imp-null (implicit null) tag instructs the upstream router to pop the tag entry off the tag stack before forwarding the packet. Note: pop means remove the top MPLS label
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator redistributed the default static route into OSPF toward all internal routers to reach to Internet. Which set of commands restores reachability to the Internet by internal routers?
A. router ospf 1 default-information originate B. router ospf 1 network 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 area 0 C. router ospf 1 redistribute connected 0.0.0.0 D. router ospf 1 redistribute static subnets
Which configuration adds an IPv4 interface to an OSPFv3 process in OSPFv3 address family configuration?
A. router ospfv3 1 address-family ipv4 B. Router(config-router)#ospfv3 1 ipv4 area 0 C. Router(config-if)#ospfv3 1 ipv4 area 0 D. router ospfv3 1 address-family ipv4 unicast