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Latest Free Cisco 200-125 Practice Exam Questions – micvce

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Free lead4pass CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA (v3.0) 200-125 exam dumps

QUESTION 1
Refer to the graphic
lead4pass 200-125 question-1
A static route to the 10.5.6.0/24 network is to be configured on the HFD router. Which commands will accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 0.0.0.255 fa0/0
B. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 0.0.0.255 10.5.4.6
C. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 255.255.255.0 fa0/0
D. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 255.255.255.0 10.5.4.6
E. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.4.6 0.0.0.255 10.5.6.0
F. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.4.6 255.255.255.0 10.5.6.0
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The simple syntax of static route:
ip route destination-network-address subnet-mask {next-hop-IP-address | exit-interface} + destination-network-address: destination network address of the remote network + subnet mask: subnet mask of the destination network + next-hop-
IP-address: the IP address of the receiving interface on the next-hop router + exit-interface: the local interface of this router where the packets will go out In the statement “ip route 10.5.6.0 255.255.255.0 fa0/0:
+ 10.5.6.0 255.255.255.0: the destination network
+fa0/0: the exit-interface

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.
lead4pass 200-125 exam question-2
What is the effect of the configuration that is shown?
A. It configures SSH globally for all logins.
B. It tells the router or switch to try to establish an SSh connection first and if that fails to use Telnet.
C. It configures the virtual terminal lines with the password 030752180500.
D. It configures a Cisco network device to use the SSH protocol on incoming communications via the virtual terminal ports.
E. It allows seven failed login attempts before the VTY lines are temporarily shutdown.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Secure Shell (SSH) is a protocol which provides a secure remote access connection to network devices. Communication between the client and server is encrypted in both SSH version 1 and SSH version 2. If you want to prevent non-SSH
connections, add the “transport input ssh” command under the lines to limit the router to SSH connections only.
Straight (non-SSH) Telnets are refused.
Reference: www.cisco.com/warp/public/707/ssh.shtml

QUESTION 3
Which three elements must be used when you configure a router interface for VLAN trunking? (Choose three.)
A. one physical interface for each subinterface
B. one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface
C. a management domain for each subinterface
D. subinterface encapsulation identifiers that match VLAN tags
E. one subinterface per VLAN
F. subinterface numbering that matches VLAN tags
Correct Answer: BDE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
This scenario is commonly called a router on a stick. A short, well written article on this operation can be found here:
http://www.thebryantadvantage.com/RouterOnAStickCCNACertificationExamTutorial.htm

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
lead4pass exam question-4
What can be determined about the router from the console output?
A. No configuration file was found in NVRAM.
B. No configuration file was found in flash.
C. No configuration file was found in the PCMCIA card.
D. Configuration file is normal and will load in 15 seconds.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
When no startup configuration file is found in NVRAM, the System Configuration Dialog will appear to ask if we want to enter the initial configuration dialog or not.

QUESTION 5
What information does a router running a link-state protocol use to build and maintain its topological database? (Choose two.)
A. hello packets
B. SAP messages sent by other routers
C. LSAs from other routers
D. beacons received on point-to-point links
E. routing tables received from other link-state routers
F. TTL packets from designated routers
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Neighbor discovery is the first step in getting a link state environment up and running. In keeping with the friendly neighbor terminology, a Hello protocol is used for this step. The protocol will define a Hello packet format and a procedure for
exchanging the packets and processing the information the packets contain.
After the adjacencies are established, the routers may begin sending out LSAs. As the term flooding implies, the advertisements are sent to every neighbor. In turn, each received LSA is copied and forwarded to every neighbor except the one
that sent the LSA.

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
lead4pass exam question-6
The technician wants to upload a new IOS in the router while keeping the existing IOS. What is the maximum size of an IOS file that could be loaded if the original IOS is also kept in flash?
A. 3 MB
B. 4 MB
C. 5 MB
D. 7 MB
E. 8 MB
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
In this example, there are a total of 8 MB, but 3.8 are being used already, so another file as large as 4MB can be loaded in addition to the original file.

QUESTION 7
Which command displays CPU utilization?
A. show protocols
B. show process
C. show system
D. show version
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The “show process” (in fact, the full command is “show processes”) command gives us lots of information about each process but in fact it is not easy to read. Below shows the output of this command (some next pages are omitted)

A more friendly way to check the CPU utilization is the command “show processes cpu history”, in which the total CPU usage on the router over a period of time: one minute, one hour, and 72 hours are clearly shown
lead4pass exam question-7
+ The Y-axis of the graph is the CPU utilization.
+ The X-axis of the graph is the increment within the period displayed in the graph. For example, from the last graph (last 72 hours) we learn that the highest CPU utilization within 72 hours is 37% about six hours ago.

QUESTION 8
A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from OSPF with a metric of 782. The last is from RIPv2 and
has a metric of 4. Which route or routes will the router install in the routing table?
A. the OSPF route
B. the EIGRP route
C. the RIPv2 route
D. all three routes
E. the OSPF and RIPv2 routes
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
When one route is advertised by more than one routing protocol, the router will choose to use the routing protocol which has lowest Administrative Distance. The Administrative Distances of popular routing protocols are listed below:
lead4pass exam question-8

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
lead4pass exam question-9
C-router is to be used as a “router-on-a-stick” to route between the VLANs. All the interfaces have been properly configured and IP routing is operational. The hosts in the VLANs have been configured with the appropriate default gateway.
What is true about this configuration?
A. These commands need to be added to the configuration:
C-router(config)# router eigrp 123
C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0
B. These commands need to be added to the configuration:
C-router(config)# router ospf 1
C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
C. These commands need to be added to the configuration:
C-router(config)# router rip
C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0
D. No further routing configuration is required.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Since all the same router (C-router) is the default gateway for all three VLANs, all traffic destined to a different VLA will be sent to the C-router. The C-router will have knowledge of all three networks since they will appear as directly
connected in the routing table. Since the C-router already knows how to get to all three networks, no routing protocols need to be configured.

QUESTION 10
If IP routing is enabled, which two commands set the gateway of last resort to the default gateway? (Choose two.)
A. ip default-gateway 0.0.0.0
B. ip route 172.16.2.1 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
C. ip default-network 0.0.0.0
D. ip default-route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1
E. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Both the “ip default-network” and “ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 (next hop)” commands can be used to set the default gateway in a Cisco router.

QUESTION 11
Which two statements about the OSPF Router ID are true? (Choose two.)
A. It identifies the source of a Type 1 LSA.
B. It should be the same on all routers in an OSPF routing instance.
C. By default, the lowest IP address on the router becomes the OSPF Router ID.
D. The router automatically chooses the IP address of a loopback as the OSPF Router ID.
E. It is created using the MAC Address of the loopback interface.
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
r120#show ip ospf data
OSPF Router with ID (10.0.0.120) (Process ID 1)
Next, who are the other routers in our area?
Router Link States (Area 1)
Link IDADV RouterAgeSeq#ChecksumLink count
10.0.0.11110.0.0.1116000x8000023A 0x0092B31
10.0.0.11210.0.0.11212460×80000234 0x009CAC1
10.0.0.11310.0.0.1131480x8000022C0x0043993
10.0.0.12010.0.0.1201520x800002400x0046CB1
We can see OSPF Router ID will be used as source of Type 1 LSA. Also the router will chose the highest loopback interface as its OSPF router ID (if available).

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit
lead4pass exam question-12
The speed of all serial links is E1 and the speed of all Ethernet links is 100 Mb/s. A static route will be established on the Manchester router to direct traffic toward the Internet over the most direct path available. What configuration on the
Manchester router will establish a route toward the Internet for traffic that originates from workstations on the Manchester LAN?
A. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.100.2
B. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 128.107.1.1
C. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.252 128.107.1.1
D. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.100.1
E. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.100.2
F. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 172.16.100.2
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
We use default routing to send packets with a remote destination network not in the routing table to the next-hop router. You should generally only use default routing on stub networks–those with only one exit path out of the network.
According to exhibit, all traffic towards Internet that originates from workstations should forward to Router R1.Syntax for default route is:
ip route <Remote_Network> <Netmask> <Next_Hop_Address>.

QUESTION 13
Which command reveals the last method used to powercycle a router?
A. show reload
B. show boot
C. show running-config
D. show version
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The “show version” command can be used to show the last method to powercycle (reset) a router
lead4pass exam question-13

QUESTION 14
Why do large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design? (Choose three.)
A. to decrease latency by increasing bandwidth
B. to reduce routing overhead
C. to speed up convergence
D. to confine network instability to single areas of the network
E. to reduce the complexity of router configuration
F. to lower costs by replacing routers with distribution layer switches
Correct Answer: BCD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
OSPF implements a two-tier hierarchical routing model that uses a core or backbone tier known as area zero (0). Attached to that backbone via area border routers (ABRs) are a number of secondary tier areas. The hierarchical approach is
used to achieve the following:
Rapid convergence because of link and/or switch failures ?
Deterministic traffic recovery
?
Scalable and manageable routing hierarchy, reduced routing overhead.

QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit.
lead4pass exam question-15
Which of these statements correctly describes the state of the switch once the boot process has been completed?
A. As FastEthernet0/12 will be the last to come up, it will be blocked by STP.
B. Remote access management of this switch will not be possible without configuration change.
C. More VLANs will need to be created for this switch.
D. The switch will need a different IOS code in order to support VLANs and STP.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Notice the line, which says “Interface VLAN1, changed state to administratively down”. This shows that VLAN1 is shut down. Hence remote management of this switch is not possible unless VLAN1 is brought back up. Since VLAN1 is the only
interface shown in the output, you have to assume that no other VLAN interface has been configured with an IP Address.

QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.
lead4pass exam question-16
Based on the exhibited routing table, how will packets from a host within the 192.168.10.192/26 LAN be forwarded to 192.168.10.1?
A. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1.
B. The router will forward packets from R3 to R1 to R2.
C. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1 AND from R3 to R1.
D. The router will forward packets from R3 to R1.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
From the routing table we learn that network 192.168.10.0/30 is learned via 2 equal-cost paths (192.168.10.9 &192.168.10.5) -> traffic to this network will be load-balancing.

QUESTION 17
What are two enhancements that OSPFv3 supports over OSPFv2? (Choose two.)
A. It requires the use of ARP.
B. It can support multiple IPv6 subnets on a single link.
C. It supports up to 2 instances of OSPFv3 over a common link.
D. It routes over links rather than over networks.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Here is a list of the differences between OSPFv2 and OSPFv3:
They use different address families (OSPFv2 is for IPv4-only, OSPFv3 can be used for IPv6-only or both protocols
OSPFv3 introduces new LSA types
OSPFv3 has different packet format
OSPFv3 uses different flooding scope bits (U/S2/S1) OSPFv3 adjacencies are formed over link-local IPv6 communications OSPFv3 runs per-link rather than per-subnet
OSPFv3 supports multiple instances on a single link, Interfaces can have multiple IPv6 addresses
OSPFv3 uses multicast addresses FF02::5 (all OSPF routers), FF02::6 (all OSPF DRs)
OSPFv3 Neighbor Authentication done with IPsec (AH) OSPFv2 Router ID (RID) must be manually configured, still a 32-bit number
Reference: http://www.networkworld.com/article/2225270/cisco-subnet/ospfv3-for-ipv4-and- ipv6.html

QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit.
lead4pass exam question-18
The company uses EIGRP as the routing protocol. What path will packets take from a host on the 192.168.10.192/26 network to a host on the LAN attached to router R1?
A. The path of the packets will be R3 to R2 to R1.
B. The path of the packets will be R3 to R1 to R2.
C. The path of the packets will be both R3 to R2 to R1 AND R3 to R1.
D. The path of the packets will be R3 to R1.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Host on the LAN attached to router R1 belongs to 192.168.10.64/26 subnet. From the output of the routing table of R3 we learn this network can be reach via 192.168.10.9, which is an IP address in 192.168.10.8/30 network (the network
between R1 & R3) -> packets destined for 192.168.10.64 will be routed from R3 -> R1 -> LAN on R1.

QUESTION 19
A Cisco router is booting and has just completed the POST process. It is now ready to find and load an IOS image. What function does the router perform next?
A. It checks the configuration register.
B. It attempts to boot from a TFTP server.
C. It loads the first image file in flash memory.
D. It inspects the configuration file in NVRAM for boot instructions.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Default (normal) Boot Sequence
Power on Router – Router does POST – Bootstrap starts IOS load – Check configuration register to see what mode the router should boot up in (usually 0x2102 to read startup- config in NVRAM / or 0x2142 to start in “setup-mode”) – check the
startup-config file in NVRAM for boot-system commands – load IOS from Flash.

QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit
lead4pass exam question-20
According to the routing table, where will the router send a packet destined for 10.1.5.65?
A. 10.1.1.2
B. 10.1.2.2
C. 10.1.3.3
D. 10.1.4.4
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The destination IP address 10.1.5.65 belongs to 10.1.5.64/28, 10.1.5.64/29 & 10.1.5.64/27 subnets but the “longest prefix match” algorithm will choose the most specific subnet mask -> the prefix “/29 will be chosen to route the packet.
Therefore the next-hop should be 10.1.3.3 ->.

QUESTION 21
Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup, when a dynamic protocol is also being used?
A. hop count
B. administrative distance
C. link bandwidth
D. link delay
E. link cost
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
By default the administrative distance of a static route is 1, meaning it will be preferred over all dynamic routing protocols. If you want to have the dynamic routing protocol used and have the static route be used only as a backup, you need to
increase the AD of the static route so that it is higher than the dynamic routing protocol.

QUESTION 22
Which command would you configure globally on a Cisco router that would allow you to view directly connected Cisco devices?
A. enable cdp
B. cdp enable
C. cdp run
D. run cdp
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
CDP is enabled on Cisco routers by default. If you prefer not to use the CDP capability, disable it with the no cdp run command. In order to reenable CDP, use the cdp run command in global configuration mode. The “cdp enable” command is
an interface command, not global.

QUESTION 23
Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers?
A. Bandwidth
B. Bandwidth and Delay
C. Bandwidth, Delay, and MTU
D. Bandwidth, MTU, Reliability, Delay, and Load
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The well-known formula to calculate OSPF cost is
Cost = 108 / Bandwidth

QUESTION 24
Refer to the graphic
lead4pass exam question-24
R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3. What are possible reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)
A. All of the routers need to be configured for backbone Area 1.
B. R1 and R2 are the DR and BDR, so OSPF will not establish neighbor adjacency with R3.
C. A static route has been configured from R1 to R3 and prevents the neighbor adjacency from being established.
D. The hello and dead interval timers are not set to the same values on R1 and R3.
E. EIGRP is also configured on these routers with a lower administrative distance.
F. R1 and R3 are configured in different areas.
Correct Answer: DF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
This question is to examine the conditions for OSPF to create neighborhood. So as to make the two routers become neighbors, each router must be matched with the following items:
1. The area ID and its types;
2. Hello and failure time interval timer;
3. OSPF Password (Optional).

QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit.
lead4pass exam question-25
A network administrator configures a new router and enters the copy startup-config running-config command on the router. The network administrator powers down the router and sets it up at a remote location. When the router starts, it enters
the system configuration dialog as shown. What is the cause of the problem?
A. The network administrator failed to save the configuration.
B. The configuration register is set to 0x2100.
C. The boot system flash command is missing from the configuration.
D. The configuration register is set to 0x2102.
E. The router is configured with the boot system startup command.Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The “System Configuration Dialog” appears only when no startup configuration file is found. The network administrator has made a mistake because the command “copy startup-config running-config” will copy the startup config (which is
empty) over the running config (which is configured by the administrator). So everything configured was deleted. Note: We can tell the router to ignore the start-up configuration on the next reload by setting the register to 0?142. This will make
the “System Configuration Dialog” appear at the next reload.

QUESTION 26
On a corporate network, hosts on the same VLAN can communicate with each other, but they are unable to communicate with hosts on different VLANs. What is needed to allow communication between the VLANs?
A. a router with subinterfaces configured on the physical interface that is connected to the switch
B. a router with an IP address on the physical interface connected to the switch
C. a switch with an access link that is configured between the switches
D. a switch with a trunk link that is configured between the switches
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Different VLANs can’t communicate with each other, they can communicate with the help of Layer3 router. Hence, it is needed to connect a router to a switch, then make the sub- interface on the router to connect to the switch, establishing
Trunking links to achieve communications of devices which belong to different VLANs.
When using VLANs in networks that have multiple interconnected switches, you need to use VLAN trunking between the switches. With VLAN trunking, the switches tag each frame sent between switches so that the receiving switch knows to
what VLAN the frame belongs. End user devices connect to switch ports that provide simple connectivity to a single VLAN each. The attached devices are unaware of any VLAN structure.
By default, only hosts that are members of the same VLAN can communicate. To change this and allow inter-VLAN communication, you need a router or a layer 3 switch.
Here is the example of configuring the router for inter-vlan communication RouterA(config)#int f0/0.1
RouterA(config-subif)#encapsulation ?
dot1Q IEEE 802.1Q Virtual LAN
RouterA(config-subif)#encapsulation dot1Q or isl VLAN ID RouterA(config-subif)# ip address x.x.x.x y.y.y.y

QUESTION 27
Which command would you use on a Cisco router to verify the Layer 3 path to a host?
A. tracert address
B. traceroute address
C. telnet address
D. ssh address
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
In computing, traceroute is a computer network diagnostic tool for displaying the route (path) and measuring transit delays of packets across an Internet Protocol (IP) network. The history of the route is recorded as the round-trip times of the
packets received from each successive host (remote node) in the route (path); the sum of the mean times in each hop indicates the total time spent to establish the connection. Traceroute proceeds unless all (three) sent packets are lost more
than twice, then the connection is lost and the route cannot be evaluated. Ping, on the other hand, only computes the final round-trip times from the destination point.

QUESTION 28
The network administrator cannot connect to Switch1 over a Telnet session, although the hosts attached to Switch1 can ping the interface Fa0/0 of the router
lead4pass exam question-28
Given the information in the graphic and assuming that the router and Switch2 are configured properly, which of the following commands should be issued on Switch1 to correct this problem?
A. Switch1(config)# line con0
Switch1(config-line)# password cisco
Switch1(config-line)#login
B. Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1
Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.24.3 255.255.255.0
C. Switch1(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.24.1
D. Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1
Switch1(config-if)# duplex full
Switch1(config-if)# speed 100
E. Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1
Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Since we know hosts can reach the router through the switch, we know that connectivity, duplex. Speed, etc. are good. However, for the switch itself to reach networks outside the local one, the ip default-gateway command must be used.

QUESTION 29
Which statements describe the routing protocol OSPF? (Choose three.)
A. It supports VLSM.
B. It is used to route between autonomous systems.
C. It confines network instability to one area of the network.
D. It increases routing overhead on the network.
E. It allows extensive control of routing updates.
F. It is simpler to configure than RIP v2.
Correct Answer: ACE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The OSPF protocol is based on link-state technology, which is a departure from the Bellman-Ford vector based algorithms used in traditional Internet routing protocols such as RIP. OSPF has introduced new concepts such as authentication
of routing updates, Variable Length Subnet Masks (VLSM), route summarization, and so forth. OSPF uses flooding to exchange link-state updates between routers. Any change in routing information is flooded to all routers in the network.
Areas are introduced to put a boundary on the explosion of link-state updates. Flooding and calculation of the Dijkstra algorithm on a router is limited to changes within an area.

QUESTION 30
A network administrator needs to allow only one Telnet connection to a router. For anyone viewing the configuration and issuing the show run command, the password for Telnet access should be encrypted. Which set of commands will
accomplish this task?
A. service password-encryption
access-list 1 permit 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255
line vty 0 4
loginpassword cisco
access-class 1
B. enable password secret
line vty 0
login
password cisco
C. service password-encryption
line vty 1
login
password cisco
D. service password-encryption
line vty 0 4
login
password cisco
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Only one VTY connection is allowed which is exactly what’s requested.
Incorrect answer: command.
line vty0 4
would enable all 5 vty connections.

QUESTION 31
What is the default administrative distance of OSPF?
A. 90
B. 100
C. 110
D. 120
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Administrative distance is the feature that routers use in order to select the best path when there are two or more different routes to the same destination from two different routing protocols. Administrative distance defines the reliability of a
routing protocol. Each routing protocol is prioritized in order of most to least reliable (believable) with the help of an administrative distance value.
Default Distance Value Table
This table lists the administrative distance default values of the protocols that Cisco supports:
Route Source
Default Distance Values
Connected interface
Static route
Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) summary route External Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)
Internal EIGRP
IGRP
OSPF
Intermediate System-to-Intermediate System (IS-IS) Routing Information Protocol (RIP)
Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP)
On Demand Routing (ODR)
External EIGRP
Internal BGP
Unknown*

QUESTION 32
Refer to the exhibit.
lead4pass exam question-32
The network administrator requires easy configuration options and minimal routing protocol traffic. What two options provide adequate routing table information for traffic that passes between the two routers and satisfy the requests of the
network administrator? (Choose two.)
A. a dynamic routing protocol on InternetRouter to advertise all routes to CentralRouter.
B. a dynamic routing protocol on InternetRouter to advertise summarized routes to CentralRouter.
C. a static route on InternetRouter to direct traffic that is destined for 172.16.0.0/16 to CentralRouter.
D. a dynamic routing protocol on CentralRouter to advertise all routes to InternetRouter.
E. a dynamic routing protocol on CentralRouter to advertise summarized routes to InternetRouter.
F. a static, default route on CentralRouter that directs traffic to InternetRouter.
Correct Answer: CF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The use of static routes will provide the necessary information for connectivity while producing no routing traffic overhead.

QUESTION 33
Refer to the exhibit
lead4pass exam question-33
What is the reason that the interface status is “administratively down, line protocol down”?
A. There is no encapsulation type configured.
B. There is a mismatch in encapsulation types.
C. The interface is not receiving any keepalives.
D. The interface has been configured with the shutdown command.
E. The interface needs to be configured as a DTE device.
F. The wrong type of cable is connected to the interface.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Interfaces can be enabled or disabled with shutdown/no shutdown command. If you interface is down, it will display administratively down status. You can bring up an interface having administratively down interface using no shutdown
command.

QUESTION 34
Drag each definition on the left to the matching term on the right.
Select and Place
lead4pass exam question-34
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 35
Drag the Cisco default administrative distance to the appropriate routing protocol or route. (Not all options are used.)
lead4pass exam question-35
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 36
Routing has been configured on the local router with these commands:
Local(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.1
Local(config)# ip route 10.1.0.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.2
Local(config)# ip route 10.1.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.3.3
Drag each destination IP address on the left to its correct next hop address on the right.
Select and Place:
lead4pass exam question-36
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
If we have many entries matching for next hop ip address then the router will choose the one with most specific path to send the packet. This is called the “longest match” rule, the route with the most bits in the mask set to “1 will be chosen to
route packet.

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QUESTION 1
Which three statements are reasons why customers consider Cisco as their collaboration solutions partner? (Choose three.)
A. The Cisco collaboration portfolio is built on open standards and stands for collaboration interoperability.
B. The Cisco collaboration portfolio is exclusive to software rather than hardware solutions.
C. The Cisco collaboration portfolio is creatively designed with a single solution model that fits all customer choices.
D. Cisco has the most comprehensive collaboration portfolio and flexible delivery model offerings in the market.
E. Cisco is the market leader with the best-in-class telephony, conferencing, and video solutions.
F. The Cisco comprehensive and flexible collaboration portfolio is lowest-priced option when compared to competitors
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 2
Where will an account manager find the largest source of case studies, whitepapers, demos, and verticaloriented Information around Cisco Collaboration?
A. Collaboration Use Case
B. QuickStart for Cisco Collaboration
C. Cisco Competitive Edge Portal
D. Steps to Success
E. Cisco Collaboration business case
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 3
Once you define the customer’s value chain, you will be able to identify departments managing core processes where the Cisco Collaboration Architecture will bring highest business value.
Which two of the following departments typically manage core processes? (Choose two.)
A. Procurement
B. Sales and Marketing
C. Logistics and Operations
D. HR Management
E. Research and Development
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
Which option leads to the development of high-level and detailed customer designs?
A. Mapping collaboration maps with the customer’s existing solutions
B. Mapping collaboration maps with the customer assessment procedure
C. Mapping collaboration maps with the customer business model
D. Mapping collaboration maps with the Cisco Collaboration Architecture solutions
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which two options represent the critical concerns of a desktop application manager regarding Cisco Collaboration Architecture? 700-039 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Implementing instant messaging can become a security threat. How secure is your Collaboration application?
B. I’m concerned about integration into our existing application infrastructure
C. Can your Collaboration application self-diagnose problems’?
D. I’m concerned about the reporting capabilities of your desktop collaboration application
E. Collaboration sounds sophisticated, but how does this support our sales force?
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 6
Which two statements indicate that the customer needs an infrastructure that can efficiently accommodate organizational changes? (Choose two.)
A. We need technology to dictate and lead business processes.
B. Collaboration applications must be flexible to quickly adapt to changes in user demand.
C. Collaboration equipment must be deployed at several locations and data centers.
D. The lifetime of any technology in our company is approximately two to three years
E. Future success of our company depends on operational agility.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 7
Security plays an essential role in the Cisco Collaboration Architecture In which layers of the Cisco Collaboration Architecture is security implemented?
A. Advanced Cisco security solutions are implemented in all layers of the Cisco Collaboration Architecture model.
B. Security is implemented in all the layers except in the medianet services interface layer.
C. Cisco security solutions are integrated into the infrastructure layer and partially into the collaboration services layer
D. Cisco provides advanced security solutions in the infrastructure and collaboration services layers while the collaboration applications layer security is ensured by third-party solutions.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which three statements are benefits of a financial analysis? (Choose three.)
A. It uses ROI measures that are always accepted by other stakeholders or the CFO.
B. It increases the size of the deal and the potential services revenue
C. It highlights strategic and tactical benefits.
D. It requires minimal resources and is risk-free
E. It encourages the customer to examine Cisco Unified Communications in more detail.
F. It is a simple process and it can be completed in time, well within the sales cycle.
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 9
Which two customer statements present business ROI? (Choose two)
A. With Cisco Collaboration, we can deploy Extension Mobility, which will allow employees to “touchdown” at any workspace
B. With Cisco Collaboration, we will engage quicker with third-party suppliers and will shorten go-tomarket time for innovative products globally
C. A Cisco Collaboration Architecture will improve our company’s morale
D. Cisco Telepresence can integrate with our existing video infrastructure
E. Cisco Collaboration helps us to increase the productivity of our sales force and to gain new revenue streams through new customers
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 10
Which two characteristics are differentiators for the Cisco ISR router compared to the competition? (Choose two.)
A. Decoupling the delivery of software from hardware on optional service modules
B. Integration of WLAN access points
C. Routes network traffic down alternative paths to avoid congestion, which switches cannot do
D. Support of analog voice connections
E. Operational simplicity through a single, universal Cisco IOS Software image. Services Ready Engine, EnergyWise innovations, and investment protection
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 11
Which two options apply when you have a meeting with the telecommunications manager of an organization? (Choose two.)
A. The telecommunications manager is concerned about how collaboration affects network management
B. The telecommunications manager is exclusively concerned with day-to-day issues, such as reporting, security, reliability, training, and processes.
C. The telecommunications manager could be resistant because the IT department gets authority over the new system.
D. The telecommunications manager’s major concern is the cost of the solution
E. The telecommunications manager may have a long-standing relationship with a PBX competitor
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 12
You are discussing Cisco Collaboration Architecture with the IT manager of an organization. Which three statements are effective responses that relate to the IT manager’s concerns? (Choose three)
A. Collaboration tools improve upon ways in which corporations can enforce employee accountability.
B. The Collaboration Architecture, by design, ensures the highest availability.
C. Improved collaboration tools improve the end-user experience and will make the IT manager more popular
D. A centralized Collaboration Architecture deployment will ease management and save money.
E. Initial costs may be higher, but comparing the Total Cost of Ownership over a five-year period will show that the Cisco product is less expensive.
F. A fully-deployed Collaboration Architecture supports efficient training in a variety of ways
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 13
Which three options are important selling points for Cisco against Microsoft? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco provides unparalleled value to the managed service provider.
B. Cisco routers represent a competitive edge in remote offices.
C. Cisco has the maturity both in technology development and empirical deployment to scale to the requirements of large enterprises.
D. Cisco is well respected and is the only serious choice in collaboration.
E. Cisco better enables for mobility and deskless workers.
F. Cisco Unified Presence can be integrated with Microsoft Office Communicator and Microsoft Lync.
Correct Answer: CEF

QUESTION 14
Which three options are ways that customers benefit from the Cisco Technology Developer Program? (Choose three.)
A. Opportunity to participate in Cisco research and development to develop next-generation Cisco Collaboration solutions
B. Exponentially expands the number and quality of rich, new business solutions
C. Display the Cisco Compatible logo in association with their product offering
D. Faster more successful deployments
E. Complete access to Cisco technologies and support resources
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 15
The Finance manager of an organization is concerned about switching their existing PBX to IP. Which response describes the value of the Collaboration Architecture?
A. Cisco and Cisco Partners have vast experience in smooth migration scenarios. Deployment has no risks
B. Collaboration Architecture is much more than just IP telephony. A fully-deployed solution optimizes business processes and enhances customer satisfaction.
C. Our competitors are sticking to PBX solution and are losing market share Collaboration is a risk-free approach.
D. Our solutions create a satisfied workforce, which results in higher productivity.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which two options are business requirements in the retail vertical market? (Choose two.)
A. Supply chain agility
B. Customer experience transformation
C. Customer intimacy
D. Increase employee productivity
E. Collaborative customer experience
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 17
Which of the following is the last step when mapping business requirements with Cisco Collaboration Architecture?
A. Map business model elements with the value chain.
B. Map important technical KPIs with customer process flow.
C. Map collaboration maps (diagrams) with Cisco Collaboration Architecture
D. Map process flow tasks with the collaboration map
E. Map value chain and value network with Cisco Collaboration Architecture applications
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Which digital signaling is correctly mapped to its functionality? 700-039 dumps
A. T1 PRI NFAS – Used to connect to the PSTN where caller ID is required and PRI is not an option
B. T1 CAS – Used widely in North America to connect to the PSTN or PBXs
C. T1 FGD – Uses a single D channel to control multiple spans of T1s with only B channels option
D. T1 and E1 PRI – Uses the Q Signaling variation of the basic ISDN specification
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Which statement about Cisco WebEx Meeting Center is true?
A. It is fully scalable, is delivered entirely over the public internet, and is optimized for security, performance, and reliability.
B. It is powered by Jabber XMPP and can be used for one-on-one or group chat and File transfers.
C. It is an award-winning flagship product that simulates a traditional live meeting in an online environment.
D. It displays life-size, remarkably clear video images, which provide a “face-to-face” meeting with remote customers, suppliers, and partners.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Which three statements describe Cisco Enterprise License Manager? (Choose three)
A. It enables customers to see whether they require additional licenses and how the purchased licenses are utilized.
B. It is centralized and free, and it manages licenses across multiple clusters through license management, reporting, and compliance systems.
C. It includes soft clients, applications server software, and licensing on a per-user basis.
D. It is available in Professional, Standard, and Entry Editions.
E. It is an enterprise-wide management tool for all Cisco Collaboration licenses
Correct Answer: ABE

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QUESTION 1
You deploy a website to Azure. When the website starts, it loads and caches common data.
Updates to the website must occur without downtime or performance degradation that is noticeable to users.
You need to upgrade to a new version of website code.
What should you do?
70-532 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
A small company with an in-house IT staff is considering implementing a new technology that their current IT staff is unfamiliar with. The company would like to implement the new technology as soon as possible but does not have the budget to hire new IT staff. Which of the following should the company consider?
A. Cloud computing
B. New hardware
C. Outsourcing
D. Virtualization
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
When using SaaS, the cloud computing vendor is responsible to maintain which of the following?
A. Client infrastructure
B. Client firewall
C. Updates and licenses.
D. Workstation OS version.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which of the following enables hardware independence?
A. In-sourcing
B. Outsourcing
C. Virtualization
D. Abstraction
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Virtualization is a conversion process that translates unique IT hardware into emulated and standardized software-based copies. Through hardware independence, virtual servers can easily be moved to another virtualization host, automatically resolving multiple hardware- software incompatibility issues. As a result, cloning and manipulating virtual IT resources is much easier than duplicating physical hardware.

QUESTION 5
You deploy an application as a cloud service in Azure.
The application consists of five instances of a web role.
You need to move the web role instances to a different subnet.
Which file should you update?
A. Service definition
B. Diagnostics configuration
C. Service configuration
D. Network configuration
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
You administer an Azure-based solution that performs image processing. You have four Standard D3 Azure Resource Manager (ARM) virtual machines (VMs). 70-532 dumps All VMs are deployed in a Virtual Machine Scale Set (VMSS).
The servers must scale up or down as the workload increases or decreases.
You need to configure auto-scaling to scale the VMSS when the server workload is above 95 percent or below 5 percent.
What should you do?
A. Navigate to the VM’s Size panel and increase the instance count.
B. Navigate to the VMSS Metric panel and add a new alert for the CPU Percentage Metric. Configure the alert to notify Via email.
C. Navigate to the VM’s Metric panel and enable diagnostics for basic metrics.
D. Navigate to the VMSS Metric panel and add a new alert for the CPU Percentage Metric. Configure the alert to notify via webhook.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which of the following cloud computing services requires the MOST involvement from a company’s in-house staff?
A. IaaS
B. MaaS
C. PaaS
D. SaaS
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) is an instant computing infrastructure, provisioned and managed over the Internet. Quickly scale up and down with demand, and pay only for what you use.
IaaS helps you avoid the expense and complexity of buying and managing your own physical servers and other datacenter infrastructure. Each resource is offered as a separate service component, and you only need to rent a particular one for as long as you need it. The cloud computing service provider manages the infrastructure, while you purchase, install, configure, and manage your own software–operating systems, middleware, and applications.

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is not a requirement for creating an online secondary for SQL Database?
A. The secondary database must have the same name as the primary.
B. They must be on separate servers.
C. They both must be on the different subscription.
D. The secondary server cannot be a lower performance tier than the primary.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
What are good recommendations for securing files in Blob storage? (Choose Three)
A. Always use SSL.
B. Keep your primary and secondary keys hidden and don’t give them out.
C. In your application, store them someplace that isn’t embedded in client-side code that users can see.
D. Make the container publicly available.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 10
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You administer an Azure environment that includes six Azure Resource Manager (ARM) virtual machines (VMs) that support development. The development team uses Azure SQL databases and Azure Queues for application storage. All Azure resources are grouped within a single subscription and resource group.
You need to reduce the recurring monthly Azure costs without degrading server performance. You must minimize the administrative effort involved.
What should you do?
A. Configure an auto-shutdown schedule for each VM by using the Azure Portal.
B. Update the development environment to use Azure Table storage.
C. Create an Azure Automation runbook that compresses unused virtual hard disk (VHD) files daily.
D. Create an Azure PowerShell script that backs up and deprovisions all Azure SQL databases daily.
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
You can set any ARM-based Virtual Machines to auto-shutdown with a few simple clicks. This was a feature originally available only to VMs in Azure DevTest Labs: your self-service sandbox environment in Azure to quickly create Dev/Test environments while minimizing waste and controlling costs. In case you haven’t heard it before, the goal for this service is to solve the problems that IT and development teams have been facing: delays in getting a working environment, timeconsuming environment configuration, production fidelity issues, and high maintenance cost. It has been helping our customers to quickly get “ready to test” with a worry-free self-service environment.

QUESTION 11
You are migrating an existing solution to Azure. The solution includes a user interface tier and a database tier. The user interface tier runs on multiple virtual machines (VMs). The user interface tier has a website that uses Node.js. The user interface tier has a background process that uses Python. This background process runs as a scheduled job. The user interface tier is updated frequently. The database tier uses a self-hosted MySQL database.
The user interface tier requires up to 25 CPU cores. You must be able to revert the user interface tier to a previous version if updates to the website cause technical problems. The database requires up to 50 GB of memory. The database must run in a single VM.
You need to deploy the solution to Azure.
What should you do first?
A. Deploy the entire solution to an Azure Web App. Use a web job that runs continuously to host the database.
B. Configure Microsoft Visual Team Services to continuously deploy the user interface tier to the Azure Web App service. Deploy the production builds and the staging builds of the user interface tier to separate slots.
C. Deploy the entire solution to an Azure Web App. Use a web job that runs continuously to host the user interface tier.
D. Deploy the user interface tier to a VM. Use multiple availability sets to continuously deploy updates from Microsoft Visual Studio Online.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
A company is designing a new web-based software application that must be highly available and resistant. Which of the following is the BEST environment for the application?
A. The primary instance of the application will be locally hosted with a weekly copy of the instance send to a cloud service provider.
B. The primary instance of the application will be locally hosted with a nightly file-level backup being performed to an off-site location.
C. The primary instance of the application will be running a cloud service provider’s hosted environment with a continuous backup to the company’s local infrastructure.
D. The primary instance of the application will be locally hosted with a nightly copy of the instance sent to a client service provider.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You develop an enterprise application that will be used only by the employees of a company. The application is not Internet-facing. You deploy instances of the application to Azure datacenters on two continents.
You must implement a load balancing solution that meets the following requirements:
Provide network-level distribution of traffic across all instances of the application.
Support HTTP and HTTPS protocols.
Manage all inbound and outbound connections.
Any back-end virtual machine (VM) must be able to service requests from the same user or client session.
Solution: You implement Application Gateway.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
Traffic Manager is also needed. It allows you to control the distribution of user traffic for service endpoints in different datacenters

QUESTION 14
You are developing a messaging solution to integrate two applications named WeatherSummary and WeatherDetails. The WeatherSummary application displays a summary of weather information for major cities. The WeatherDetails application displays weather details for a specific city.
You need to ensure that the WeatherDetails application displays the weather details for the city that the user selects in the WeatherSummary application.
What should you do?
A. Create an Azure Service Bus Queue communication. In the WeatherDetails application, implement the PeekLock method.
B. Create an Azure Service Bus Topics object. In the WeatherDetails application, create a filter.
C. Create an Azure Service Bus Relay object. In the WeatherDetails application, create a filter.
D. Create an Azure Service Bus Queue communication. In the WeatherDetails application, implement the ReceiveAndDelete method.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which of the following statements are correct for submitting operations in a batch? (Choose three.)
A. All operations have to be in the same partition.
B. Total batch size can’t be greater than 4 MB.
C. Max operation count is 100.
D. Minimum operation count is three
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 16
You administer an Access Control Service namespace named contosoACS that is used by a web application. ContosoACS currently utilizes Microsoft and Yahoo accounts.
Several users in your organization have Google accounts and would like to access the web application through ContosoACS.
You need to allow users to access the application by using their Google accounts.
What should you do?
A. Register the application directly with Google.
B. Edit the existing Microsoft Account identity provider and update the realm to include Google.
C. Add a new Google identity provider.
D. Add a new WS-Federation identity provider and configure the WS-Federation metadata to point to the Google sign-in URL.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Configuring Google as an identity provider eliminates the need to create and manage authentication and identity management mechanism. It helps the end user experience if there are familiar authentication procedures.

QUESTION 17
A graphic design company regularly runs out of storage space on its file servers due to the large size of its customer artwork files. The company is considering migrating to cloud computing to solve this problem. Which of the following characteristics of cloud computing is the MOST beneficial reason the company should implement a cloud solution?
A. Scalability
B. Security
C. Variable costs
D. Hardware independence
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
A company maintains an Azure storage account. The storage account uses blobs and tables.
Customers access the storage account by using shared access signatures (SASs). 70-532 dumps
You need to monitor the usage of the storage services. You need to do the following:
Which three data analysis tasks should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Use data from the logs of the storage services to find individual storage access attempts that do not comply with the SLA.
B. Use data from the logs of the storage services to calculate aggregate server latency across individual requests. Determine whether the results of this calculation indicate that the Azure Storage service is in compliance with the SLA.
C. Analyze the logs of the storage services to determine which storage services were inaccessible because of permissions issues.
D. Review the Azure documentation to determine which storage operations are billable. Then find records of those operations in the logs of the storage services.
E. Analyze the logs of the storage services to find records of operations that are marked as billable.
F. Correlate the data logged from the storage service with the permissions to store data in the individual blobs and containers. Determine which storage services were inaccessible because of permissions issues.
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 19
Which of the following should be measured with a direct cost chargeback method?
A. Power and cooling consumed
B. CPU cycles used
C. Technical staff
D. Square footage cost of the facility
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
CHARGEBACK METHODS
A range of approaches have been developed for implementing chargeback in an organization, as summarized in the figure below. The degree of complexity, degree of difficulty, and cost to implement decreases from the top of the chart [service-based pricing (SBP)], to the bottom [high-level allocation (HLA)]. HLA is the simplest method; it uses a straight division of IT costs based on a generic metric such as headcount. Slightly more effort to implement is low-level allocation (LLA), which bases consumer costs on something more related to IT activity such as the number of users or servers. Direct cost (DC) more closely resembles a time and materials charge but is often tied to headcount as well.

QUESTION 20
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have a web app that is deployed to Azure.
You need to download a compressed collection of the diagnostic logs.
What should you use?
A. Azure PowerShell
B. File Transfer Protocol (FTP)
C. Application Insights
D. Microsoft Visual Studio
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Diagnostic information stored to the web app file system can be accessed directly using FTP. It can also be downloaded as a Zip archive using Azure PowerShell or the Azure Command-Line Interface.

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QUESTION 7
Drag and drop the type of business case on the left to the business driver on the right.
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QUESTION 8
Drag and drop the steps of The Seven Elements framework on the left to the right in sequential order.
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QUESTION 9
Drag and drop the type of business case on the left to the business driver on the right.
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QUESTION 10
Drag and drop the financial benefits on the left to the direct and indirect spaces on the right.
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810-403 dumps
QUESTION 11
Cisco Internet of Everything connects people, processes, things, and data. Which two of its characteristics have an impact on businesses? (Choose two.)
A. Leveraging data into more useful information for decision-making
B. Connecting people for measuring services’ usage trends
C. Delivering the solutions and products to the right person at the right time
D. Having physical devices and objects connected to the Internet and to each other for intelligent decision making
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 12
How could IT as a Service help drive business outcomes?
A. By the fast technology acquisition options for the customers.
B. Providing an organization with the right to use the technology and service without the need for purchasing it.
C. Providing an organization with various options for the types of services to deploy.
D. Depending upon what the business is seeking, each type of service has different financial implications for business outcomes.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which two options are benefits of Cisco’s overall portfolio with respect to the set of buyers? (Choose two.)
A. increased business performance
B. enhanced accountability
C. real-time business intelligence
D. higher service availability
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 14
Which three options are examples of KPIs for Business Outcomes? (Choose three.)
A. Improved customer satisfaction
B. Increased IT service performance
C. Lower IT asset obsolescence
D. Revenue growth
E. Lower OPEX
F. Increased IT asset utilization
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 15
Which options are three examples of Critical Success Factors? (Choose three.)
A. Increasing manufacturing efficiency at a rate above increases in supplies
B. Attracting and retaining more highly qualified staff versus competitors
C. Providing a holistic perspective to the core business drivers and business outcomes
D. Matching customer retention rate to customer retention objective
E. Selling a greater share of profitable products to our customers
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 16
What is ROI?
A. It is defined as the financial benefits derived from services and solutions, and it is expressed as a percentage of dividing present value from a technology solution by the cost of that technology solution.
B. It is defined as the financial benefits derived from services and solutions, and it is expressed as a percentage of dividing total investment from a technology solution by the cost of that technology solution.
C. It is defined as the financial benefits derived from services and solutions, and it is expressed as a percentage of dividing net return from a technology solution by the margin of that technology solution.
D. It is defined as the financial benefits derived from services and solutions, and it is expressed as a percentage of dividing net return from a technology solution by the cost of that technology solution.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Which categories can collaboration help achieve business goals for the customer?
A. Innovation, Industries, Incentives.
B. Line of Business, Vertical, Business Outcome.
C. Industry markets, Business Outcome, Technology Innovation.
D. Line of Business, Vertical, Business Value.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Which options are two benefits of understanding the customer’s business model? (Choose two.)
A. Understanding the customer’s business model changes the way you interact with your customer.
B. Understanding the customer’s business model provides control and assessment of project challenges.
C. Understanding the customer’s business model helps track progress through outcomes.
D. Understanding the customer’s business model is used to address the sales force mindset.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 19
KPIs are quantitative measurement of progress against the tactical goals of an organization. Which are three characteristics of KPIs? (Choose three.)
A. KPIs must be strategic and tactical in nature
B. KPIs can be financial, managerial, or operational
C. KPIs measure progress against goals
D. KPIs are set according to priorities: magnitude and urgency
E. KPIs define what needs to happen to achieve desired results in the time, budget, and level of expected quality
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 20
Which two options are features of Cisco SalesConnect? (Choose two.)
A. Ability to create personalized “briefcases” of content that you can save once, and access from any device.
B. Single place to find business proposals and instructor led training related to Cisco Partners.
C. Access to kits of bundled content including IOS images and more.
D. Trusted, up-to-date, and relevant content displayed using comprehensive, powerful search capabilities.
Correct Answer: AD

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The Best Cisco Proctored Exams for Validating Knowledge 700-505 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (Q1-Q30)

QUESTION 1
Which option is an online conferencing solution that allows participants to see; hear and share content and applications in real time?
A. Cisco Unity
B. Cisco ISR with Conferencing service module
C. Borderless Networks
D. WebEx meetings
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which two Cisco ISR series are needed to support a Cisco Services-Ready Engine to deploy services on demand? (Choose two.)
A. 3900 Series
B. 2900 Series
C. 2800 Series
D. 800 Series
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
Which three business challenges do customers face that are addressed by Cisco architectural solutions? (Choose three.)
A. Guarantee reliability.
B. Improve workforce productivity.
C. Hire more staff.
D. Increase cash flow.
E. Deliver first-class offerings and experience to their clients.
F. Reduce total cost of ownership while maximizing the contribution of IT.
Correct Answer: BEF

QUESTION 4
Your customer is considering migrating to a Cisco Borderless Routing solution from their current vendor.
Which best practice can close the sale?
A. Show the customer a Cisco television commercial
B. Go through a check list and compare the performance capabilities between Cisco and the othervendor.
C. Mention that promotions and incentives are available through Cisco.
D. Demonstrate how the Cisco solution saves money by consolidating devices and integrating management.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which two product portfolios help make up the Cisco Office in a Box solution? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 3048
B. Cisco UCS C-Series Servers
C. Cisco UCS E-Series Servers
D. Cisco ISR 2900 and 3900 Series
E. Cisco Nexus 5000
F. Cisco ISR 1900, 2900 and 3900 Series
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 6
Which three options are considered common features of Cisco WebEx solutions? (Choose three.)
A. Document, application, and desktop sharing
B. Available in 226 languages
C. Scheduled and ad-hoc meetings
D. Consistent, cross-platform experience
E. Third-party voice included
F. Per-user attention status indicator
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 7
Which statement about the Cisco Meraki cloud architecture is true?
A. Devices are configured in the cloud on first use and then managed locally after they are set up.
B. All Meraki devices are managed locally by default.
C. Management data flows to the Cisco Meraki cloud and user traffic flows directly to its destination on the LAN or across the WAN.
D. All data flows through the Cisco Meraki cloud.
Correct Answer: CExplanation

QUESTION 8
Which two customer benefits can be realized with Cisco Unified Data Center? (Choose two.)
A. 50 percent faster disaster recovery
B. 50 percent less time in application deployment
C. 15 percent faster in application performance, 40 percent less in infrastructure costs
D. 60 percent less cost for cooling and power
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 9
Which two benefits will customers achieve if they upgrade to a properly configured Cisco Borderless Network? 700-505 dumps (Choose two.)
A. New application and service deployment is completely automated.
B. Network availability increases and downtime decreases
C. Security becomes less difficult to achieve
D. All potential failures will be eliminated.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 10
Which three options are business benefits of increased reliability? (Choose three.)
A. validates business decisions
B. protects revenue streams
C. reduces maintenance and network operation costs
D. increases business resilience
E. enhances career paths
F. promotes independence
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 11
Which two customer characteristics indicate an opportunity for Cisco Meraki cloud-managed networks? (Choose two.)
A. having networking experts on site
B. requiring a high degree of flexibility and customization
C. implementing data center or large campus deployments
D. having distributed sites and lean IT staff
E. moving applications to the cloud
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 12
Which resource should you use when you need to obtain current information about incentive programs and promotions?
A. Web search
B. Cisco Partner Central web site
C. 1-877-GO-CISCO
D. Your local Cisco sales engineer
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which three options are benefits to the partner in the Cisco Partner Program? (Choose three.)
A. drives growth and profitability
B. results in more individual Cisco career certifications (that is, CCNA, CCNP)
C. differentiates your business
D. provides access to promotions and incentives
E. partners receive free gear when they achieve certification
F. partner program enrollment increases
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 14
Which Cisco service is targeted for customers that want proactive monitoring?
A. SMARTnet
B. Small Business Support Service
C. SmartCare
D. Collaborative Professional Services
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Which statement about TrustSec is true?
A. It monitors all the devices on the network, and turns them off when they are not needed.
B. It provides a policy-based, scalable platform that offers integrated posture, profiling, and guest services to make context-aware access control decisions.
C. It provides secure rich-media and collaboration services to optimize real-time voice and video applications.
D. It provides defense against denial of service attacks.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which two options are benefits of the Cisco ASA 5500-X Series over the Cisco ASA 5500 Series? (Choose two.)
A. The Cisco IPS does not require an additional hardware module.
B. Cisco IPS throughput up to 650 Mb/s is provided.
C. The Cisco Content Security does not require an additional hardware module.
D. Firewall throughput up to 12 Gb/s is provided.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 17
Which two options are Cisco Telepresence multipurpose endpoint solutions for small and midsize business? (Choose two.)
A. Third-party videoconferencing endpoint
B. Cisco MX200
C. Cisco VCS
D. Cisco Profile 42
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 18
A customer wants to deploy a solution that requires high-quality video for full multimedia applications.
Which two Cisco Unified Communication endpoint solutions should you recommend? (Choose two.)
A. 8900 Series
B. 9900 Series
C. 3900 Series
D. 5900 Series
E. 6900 Series
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 19
Which three statements about the Cisco ISR G2 security solutions are true? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco ISR G2 security should only be deployed after a customer has rejected deploying Cisco ASA security.
B. Web Security Connected is delivered as a service module.
C. Software upgrades and reboots are needed to install security licenses.
D. Web Security Connected integrates with the Cisco ASA firewalls and the Cisco AnyConnect secure mobility client.
E. Cisco IPS network module can be added to the Cisco 2900 and 3900 Series routers.
F. Software licenses for security services include; IPsec/SSL VPN, Firewall, IPS.
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 20
Which statement about Cisco CleanAir technology is true?
A. It features chip-level proactive and automatic electronic beamforming.
B. It features automatic advanced radio frequency shaping.
C. It features chip-level proactive and automatic interference mitigation.
D. It is a feature of the Cisco Aironet 1600 Series AP 26
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
Which two product portfolios help make up the FlexPod Express solution? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco UCS C-Series Server
B. Cisco ISR 2900 and 3900 Series
C. Cisco Nexus 3048 Switch
D. Cisco UCS E-Series Servers
E. Cisco ISR 1900, 2900, and 3900 Series
F. Cisco Nexus 5000
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 22
Which Cisco Partner Sales Tool provides a single searchable location for sales guidance and technical details to help differentiate Cisco solutions from the competition?
A. Cisco Commerce Workspace
B. Competitive Portal
C. Quick Product Reference Guide
D. Cisco Discovery Service
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
Which three switching technology components distinguish Cisco from competing products? (Choose three.)
A. RSTP8021w
B. Universal PoE
C. medianet
D. Flexible NetFlow
E. Multiprotocol Label Switching
F. Gigabit Ethernet
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 24
Which four customer needs do Cisco architectures help solve? 700-505 dumps (Choose four.)
A. eliminate redundancy
B. guarantee business outcomes
C. increase ROID. reduce independence
E. provide reliability
F. slow staff growth
G. lower costs
H. boost productivity
Correct Answer: CEGH

QUESTION 25
In which two ways can Cisco solutions help resolve customer business challenges? (Choose two.)
A. by supporting BYOD and increased mobility
B. by providing a multisystem infrastructure that must be monitored and maintained by the IT staff
C. by providing improved collaboration and communication tools
D. by providing a complex borderless solution
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 26
Which three options are opportunities for partners to introduce Cisco Meraki products to existing or prospective customers? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Meraki roadshow
B. Webinars with a free AP for qualified attendees IE
C. Cisco Meraki equipment rental program
D. Free mobile device management with Systems Manager
E. Free product trials
F. Free Cisco Meraki refurbished equipment
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 27
Which four product categories have Cisco Meraki cloud-managed offerings? (Choose four.)
A. IP telephones
B. Cisco Telepresence
C. Mobile device management
D. Switches
E. Security appliances
F. Servers
G. Storage
H. Wireless access points
Correct Answer: CDEH

QUESTION 28
Which statement about the Threat Operations Center is true?
A. It provides insight into threat trends and outlook
B. It provides 24×7 coverage in three centers.
C. It provides business hours global coverage
D. It provides only automatic rule creation and quality control.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
Which three options are customer benefits of implementing a Cisco Borderless switching solution? (Choose three.)
A. Spanning Tree
B. Smart Install
C. AutoSmartPorts
D. Smart CallHome
E. Solar-powered
F. Uninterruptable power
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 30
Which two options are advantages of Cisco Data Center solutions over the competition? (Choose two.)
A. end-to-end optimization
B. seamless installation
C. scalability without complexity
D. embedded self service
Correct Answer: CD

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The Best Cisco APE 648-232 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (Q1-Q30)

QUESTION 1
Which two platforms are the first to be combined to make up the WebEx Meetings shared SaaS platform?
A. Cisco TelePresence Callway and WebEx Connect
B. Connect and WebEx
C. Quad and Cisco TelePresence Callway
D. WebEx Quad
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What is the maximum capacity of participants for a Cisco WebEx Meeting Center and Training Center meeting?
A. 250
B. 300
C. 400
D. 500
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Your primary site becomes unavailable. Which one of these features enables you to automatically and transparently move all collaboration activity to the backup site, ensuring a seamless user experience?
A. medianet
B. GSB
C. WebEx One-Click
D. GDM
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
With regard to conference node redundancy, if a region requires 2400 G.711 ports, then how many nodes should it include?
A. Two nodes, each with a capacity of 1200 G.711 ports
B. Three nodes, each with a capacity of 1200 G.711 ports
C. One node with a capacity of 2400 G.711 ports
D. One node with a capacity of 1200 G.711 ports
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which two of these factors should be considered when determining the size of a conference system? (Choose two.)
A. future growth
B. service levels
C. location of participants
D. CapEx
E. node capacity
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 6
Which feature in Cisco WebEx Meeting Center allows you to collaboratively brainstorm ideas and take notes?
A. integrated audio and VoIP
B. whiteboard
C. Network-Based Recording
D. WebEx One-Click
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Which three host capabilities are available on WebEx for iPad? (Choose three.)
A. schedule, start, or cancel a meeting
B. invite attendees
C. pass presenter control
D. stream media from a PC
E. chat privately with attendees
F. run WebEx in the background
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 8
Which new WebEx feature allows for the main video to switch automatically to the present speaker, using voice activation?
A. Cisco TelePresence
B. Cisco ActivePresence
C. multipoint video
D. WebEx One-Click
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
One of the challenges of online training is measuring class effectiveness. Which two tools does Cisco WebEx Training Center use to measure this? 648-232 dumps (Choose two.)
A. visual attention indicator
B. polling
C. self-check quizzes
D. application sharing
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 10
You are late for a meeting and you missed the first half of the conversation. Which feature allows you to never miss the contents of a meeting?
A. Cisco ActivePresence
B. Network-Based Recording
C. hands-on labs
D. breakout sessions
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
What does the global attentiveness meter monitor?
A. if the attendee has the correct audio equipment
B. whether or not attendees are using external applications during the event
C. pre- and post-event reporting
D. event success
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which two of these statements best describe the benefits of the immersive customer service experiences that are offered by WebEx Support Center? (Choose two.)
A. Customer service representatives can provide more personalized service.
B. Customers can interact with the customer service representative from a mobile device.
C. Customer service representatives can increase the time spent with customers.
D. Customers can instantly view information that the customer service representative is sharing.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 13
What is the number one customer complaint surveyed by technical support organizations?
A. cost of service
B. time that it takes to resolve issue
C. lack of resolution
D. time that it takes to reach a service representative
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
What are the three ways that the WebEx Support Center improves key performance metrics for a business? (Choose three.)
A. increases first-call resolution percentage
B. lengthens average call handling time
C. drives in-person sales
D. shortens average wait time
E. improves customer satisfaction rating
F. increases time to resolution
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 15
What is the difference between HQ and HD video?
A. HQ video is 360p, while HD video is 720p or higher.
B. The terms are interchangeable.
C. HQ video is 720p, while HD video is 1080p or higher.
D. HQ video is 360p, while HD video is 1080p or higher.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Which one of these groups uses a specific transport protocol, such as RSVP, for signaling the metadata attributes and storing the information in the database?
A. consumers
B. producers
C. solution components
D. meeting clients
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
In which category does the Domain setting appear in the WebEx Administration Tool?
A. Customization
B. Enterprise Edition
C. Configuration
D. System Settings
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
What are trusted domains external to WebEx Connect?
A. whitelist domains
B. CSV files
C. blacklist domains
D. XMPP domains
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Which task cannot be done by the site administrator, but must be done by opening a request with the WebEx support team?
A. Update user accounts.
B. Deactivate user accounts.
C. Delete users.
D. Add users.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
Why should policy groups be avoided when creating policies?
A. Policy groups are not supported.
B. There are possible performance impacts if not used correctly.
C. Policy groups keep the majority of users assigned to the top level group.
D. There is a limit to the number of users in a policy group.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
What should be enabled so that users do not have to enter their username and password?
A. SAML
B. IDP
C. Kerberos
D. Integrated Windows Authentication
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
If an Active Directory Federation Services customer chooses to enable IWA, what will WebEx Federated SSO use to take the Windows login from the PC directly, so that end users do not need to sign in at all?
A. WebEx One-Click
B. Kerberos integration method
C. SAML
D. IDM
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
Which group of administrative reports includes usage reports for Training Center, Support Center, and Event Center?
A. common usage reports
B. IM reports
C. Enterprise Edition reports
D. IM activity reports
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
Which issue should be escalated to Cisco Technical Support?
A. forgetting your login password
B. installing your WebEx client
C. troubleshooting UI configuration issues
D. new account request
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
648-232 dumps What should customers do to make a branding request?
A. Go into their account and fill out the specifications.
B. Call the WebEx support team.
C. Submit a support ticket.
D. Send the WebEx account manager an email message.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 26
How will the branding be displayed if you join a meeting on another company site?
A. It will show in text format only.
B. Branding will not be shown.
C. It will be shown by using two-level branding.
D. It will be shown using default settings.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
The WebEx event window has six principal interface areas. Drag and drop the area on the left to its function on the right.
Select and Place:
648-232 dumps
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
648-232 dumps
QUESTION 28
With encrypted audio conferencing, you can configure three different secure conferencing nodes. Drag the node on the left to its description on the right.
Select and Place:
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Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 29
Drag the implementation process on the left with its task on the right.
Select and Place:
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Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 30
Which description matches the steps involved in escalating WebEx issues? Drag the step on the left to its description on the right.
Select and Place:
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Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
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High Quality Microsoft MCSA Windows Server 2016 70-740 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q20)

QUESTION 1
HOTSPOT
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016 server.
Server1 has the Docker daemon configured and has a container named Container1.
You need to mount the folder C:\Folder1 on Server1 to C:\ContainerFolder in Container1.
Which command should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:
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QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
You have a physical server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016 Server1 is a Hyper-V host.
On Server1, you create a virtual machine named VM1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
You plan to install the Hyper-V server role on VM1.
You need to ensure that you can configure VM1 to host virtual machines.
How should you complete the Windows PowerShell script? To answer, drag the appropriate values to the correct targets. Each value may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 3
HOTSPOT
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series. 70-740 dumps
A company named Contoso, Ltd. has several servers that run Windows Server 2016.
Contoso has a Hyper-V environment that uses failover clustering and Windows Server Update Services (WSUS). The environment contains several Windows containers and several virtual machines.
The WSUS deployment contains one upstream server that is located on the company’s perimeter network and several downstream servers located on the internal network. A firewall separates the upstream server from the downstream servers.
You plan to deploy a human resources application to a new server named HRServer5.
HRServer5 contains a FAT32-formatted data volume.
The CIO of Contoso identifies the following requirements for the company’s IT department:
– Deploy a failover cluster to two new virtual machines.
– Store all application databases by using Encrypted File System (EFS).
– Ensure that each Windows container has a dedicated IP address assigned by a DHCP server.
– Produce a report that lists the processor time used by all of the processes on a server named Server1 for five hours.
– Encrypt all communication between the internal network and the perimeter network, including all WSUS communications.
– Automatically load balance the virtual machines hosted in the Hyper-V cluster when processor utilization exceeds 70 percent.
You need to create a Data Collector Set to meet the requirement for the processor time report.
What command should you run to create the Data Collector Set? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
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QUESTION 4
HOTSPOT
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016 Server1 has the Windows Application proxy role service installed.
You plan to deploy Remote Desktop Gateway (RD Gateway) services. Clients will connect to the RD Gateway services by using various types of devices including Windows, iOS and Android devices.
You need to publish the RD Gateway services through the Web Application Proxy.
Which command should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
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QUESTION 5
HOTSPOT
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016 Server1 has the Web Application Proxy role service installed.
You publish an application named App1 by using the Web Application Proxy.
You need to change the URL that users use to connect to App1 when they work remotely.
Which command should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:
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QUESTION 6
DRAG DROP
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso com The domain contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2016.
Server1 has IP Address Management (IPAM) installed Server2 has Microsoft System Center 2016 Virtual Machine Manager (VMM) installed.
You need to integrate IPAM and VMM.
Which types of objects should you create on each server? To answer, drag the appropriate object types to the correct servers Each object type may be used once, more than once, or not at all You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 7
HOTSPOT
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com The domain contains a domain controller named Server1 and a member server named Server2.
Server1 has the DNS Server role installed Server2 has IP Address Management lPAM installed The IPAM server retrieves zones from Server1 as shown in the following table.
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QUESTION 8
HOTSPOT
You have a server named Served that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has the Windows Application Proxy role service installed. You are publishing an application named.
App1 that will use Integrated Windows authentication as shown in the following graphic.
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Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic.
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QUESTION 9
HOTSPOT
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso com. The domain contains a DNS server named Server1.
You enable Response Rate Limiting on Server1.
You need to prevent Response Rate Limiting from applying to hosts that reside on the network of 10.0.0.0/24.
Which cmdlets should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:
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QUESTION 10
HOTSPOT
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016 Server1 is a Hyper-V host.
You have two network adapter cards on Server1 that are Remote Direct Memory Access (RDMA) -capable.
You need to aggregate the bandwidth of the network adapter cards for a virtual machine on Server1. 70-740 dumps
The solution must ensure that the virtual machine can use the RDMA capabilities of the network adapter cards.
Which command should you run first? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
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QUESTION 11
HOTSPOT
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com. The forest contains an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) farm.
You install Windows Server 2016 on a server named Server2.
You need to configure Server2 as a node in the federation server farm.
Which cmdlets should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 12
DRAG DROP
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series.
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The functional level of the forest and the domain is Windows Server 2008 R2. All servers in the domain.
Run Windows Server 2016 Standard. The domain contains 300 client computers that run either Windows 8.1 or Windows 10.
The domain contains nine servers that are configured as shown in the following table.
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The virtual machines are configured as follows:
– Each virtual machine has one virtual network adapter.
– VM1 and VM2 are part of a Network Load Balancing (NLB) cluster.
– All of the servers on the network can communicate with all of the virtual machines.
You need to install the correct edition of Windows Server 2016 to support the planned changes for Server2, Server3, Server4, and Server5.
Which edition or editions should you choose for each server? To answer, drag the appropriate editions to the correct servers. Each edition may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 13
HOTSPOT
Your network contains an Active Directory forest The forest contains one domain named contoso.com. The domain contains two domain controllers named DC1 and DC2. DC1 holds all of the operations master roles.
During normal network operations, you run the following commands on DC2:
Move-ADDirectoryServerOperationMasterRole -Identity “DC2” -OperationMasterRole PDCEmulator.
Move-ADDirectoryServerOperationMasterRole -Identity “DC2” -OperationMasterRole’RIDMaster DC1 fails.
You remove DC1 from the network, and then you run the following command:
Move-ADDirectoryServerOperationMasterRole -Identity “DC2” -OperationMasterRole SchemaMaster.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
Hot Area:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 14
HOTSPOT
You have a Windows Server 2016 failover cluster that has a cluster network named ClusterNetwork1.
You need to ensure that ClusterNetwork1 is enabled for cluster communication only. 70-740 dumps
What command should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
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QUESTION 15
HOTSPOT
You plan to deploy three servers named Server1, Server2, and Server3 that will run Windows Server 2016. The servers will have the following disk configurations:
– Server1 will have a C: drive of 2 TB.
– Server2 will have two disks. The C: drive will be 2 TB. The D: drive will be 1TB. D: must support file system-based compression.
– Server3 will have two disks. The C: drive will be 2 TB. The D: drive will be 1TB and must support file-system based quotas.
Which file system can you use for each drive? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:
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QUESTION 16
HOTSPOT
You have four servers named Server1, Server2, Server3, and Server4 that run Windows Server 2016.
Server1 and Server2 are nodes in a failover cluster named FC1. Server3 and Server4 are nodes in a failover cluster named FC2.
You add the cluster roles show in the following table.
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You add a file share named Share1 to FS1. You add a file share named Share2 to FS2.
Which UNC paths can you use to access each share? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:
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QUESTION 17
DRAG DROP
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
On Server1, you create a Nano Server image named Disk1.vhdx.
You need to start Server1 by using Disk1.vhdx.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 18
DRAG DROP
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.
Server1 allows inbound connectivity from all computers in the contoso.com domain.
Server1 has an IP address of 192.168.0.10.
Server1 hosts a Windows container named Container1. Container1 hosts a website that is accessible on port 80.
You need to ensure that you can use the Docker(?) client to manage Container1 from any computer in the domain.
Which four cmdlets should you run in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate cmdlets from the list of cmdlets to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 19
HOTSPOT
You have a four-node Hyper-V cluster named Cluster1.
A virtual machine named VM1 runs on Cluster1. VM1 has a network adapter that connects to a virtual switch named Network1.
You need to prevent a network disconnection on VM1 from causing VM1 to move to another cluster node.
What command should you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:
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Correct Answer:
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QUESTION 20
DRAG DROP
You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 hosts a virtual machine named VM1. VM1 runs Windows Server 2016. VM1 uses a VHD for storage.
The disk configuration of VM1 is shown in the exhibit.
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You need to increase the size of volume D to 400 GB.
Which cmdlets should you run on Server1 and VM1? To answer, drag the appropriate cmdlets to the correct servers. Each cmdlet may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:
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Correct Answer:
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The Best Cisco CCDP 300-101 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (Q13-Q40)

QUESTION 13
Which command denies the default route?
A. ip prefix-list deny-route seq 5 deny 0.0.0.0/32
B. ip prefix-list deny-route seq 5 deny 0.0.0.0/8
C. ip prefix-list deny-route seq 5 deny 0 0 0.0/0
D. ip prefix-list deny-route seq 5 deny 0.0.0.0/16
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
300-101 dumps
Base on the output, which option is the next hop to get to the 130.0.1.0/24 network?
A. 10.30.30.1
B. 10.0.11.1
C. 10.20.20.1
D. 10.10.10.1
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which feature can mitigate fragmentation issues within network segments that are between GRE endpoints?
A. PMTU
B. ICMP DF bit
C. TCP Flow Control
D. TCP MSS
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
300-101 dumps
The excerpt was taken from the routing table of router SATX. Which option ensures that routes from 51.51.51.1 are preferred over routes from 52.52.52.2?
A. SATX(config-router)#distance 90 51.51.51.10.0.0.0
B. SATX(config-router)#distance 89.52.52.52.2 0.0.0.0
C. SATX(config-router)#distance 90.52.52.52.2 0.0.0.0
D. SATX(config-router)#administrative distance 91 51.51.510.0.0.0
E. SATX(config-router)#distance 89 51.51.51.10.0.0.0
F. SATX(config-router)#administrative distance 91 52.52.52.2 0.0.0.0
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which Cisco Express Forwarding table or tables hold forwarding information?
A. FIB table only
B. adjacency tables only
C. FIB and adjacency tables only
D. FIB,RIB, and adjacency tables
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
router eigrp 65535
no auto-summary
network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255
router ospf 1
network 192.168.5.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
passive-interface loopback0
redistribute eigrp 65535
If this configuration is applied to a device that redistributes EIGRP routes into OSPF. Which two statements about the behavior of the device are true? (Choose two)
A. EIGRP routes appears in the routing table as E2 OSPF routes
B. The device router ID is set to Loopback0 automatically
C. The device redistributes all EIGRP networks into OSPF
D. EIGRP routes appears in the routing table as N2 OSPF routes
E. The device redistributes only classful EIGRP networks into OSPF.
F. EIGRP routes appears as type 3 LSAs in the OSPF database.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 19
300-101 dumps
A network engineer has configured NTP on a Cisco router, but the time on the router is still incorrect.
What is the reason for this problem?
A. The router is not syncing with the peer, even though the NTP request and response packets are being exchanged.
B. The router is not syncing with peer, and the NTP request and response packets are not being exchanged.
C. The router is syncing with the peer, and the NTP request and response packets are being exchanged.
D. The router is dropping all NTP packets.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which two technologies can encapsulate an IPv6 payload in an IPv4 packet for transmission across a network? (Choose two)
A. L2TPv3
B. trunking
C. AToM
D. ISATAP
E. NAT-PT
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 21
300-101 dumps Which command do you enter to filter only routing updates that are sent through interface GigabitEthemet0/0?
A. R1(config-if)#passive-interface GigabitEthemet0/0
B. R1(config-router)#no passive-interface GigabitHthemet0/0
C. R1config-router)#passrve-interface GigabitEthemet0/0
D. R1(conffg-router)passive-interface default
E. R1(config-if)#passive-interface default
F. R1(config-router)#distribute-list 1 GigabitEthemet0/0 out
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
300-101 dumps
A network engineer is unable to make VRF lite EIGRP adjacency work.There is nothing wrong with communication between R1 and R2. What command will eliminate the issue when executed on both routes?
A. (config-router-if)autonomous-system 100
B. (config)#ip-multicast-routing
C. (config-vrf)#route-target both 100:1
D. (config-router-af)#network 209.165.202.128 0.0.0.31
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
What does the number 16 in the following command represent?
Router(config)#snmp-server user abed public v2c access 16
A. the mask of the files that are allowed to use community string public
B. the standard named access list 16, which contains the access rules that apply to user abed.
C. the number of concurrent users who are allowed to query the SNMP community
D. the user ID that is allowed to use the community string public
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
Which value does a point-to-point GRE tjunnel use to identify a peer?
A. MAC address
B. configured multicast address.
C. DLCI
D. IP address
E. VC ID
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
Which two statements about uRPF are true? (Choose two)
A. The Keyword any can be used with both strict mode and loose mode
B. Strict mode may drop legitimate traffic.
C. tt is enabled globally.
D. Strict mode is most appropriate for networks with asymmetric routing.
E. Loose mode may drop traffic when asymmetric routing occurs on the network
F. It is enabled on a per interface basis.
Correct Answer: BF

QUESTION 26
A network engineer is configuring a DHCP server to support a specialized application. Which additional DHCP feature must be enabled to support the delivery of various additional parameters to DHCP clients?
A. modules
B. vendor extensions
C. options
D. Scopes
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
In SNMP v3, which security level provides encryption of the data?
A. authMember
B. noAuthNoPriv
C. authNoPriv
D. authPriv
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Which three functionalities are specific to stateful NAT64? (Choose Three)
A. It requires IPv4-transalable IPv6 address
B. It requires either manual or DHCPv6 based address assignment for IPv6 host.
C. It helps ensure end-to-end address transparency and scalability
D. A state or bindings are created on every unique translation
E. it conserves IPV4 addresses
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 29
Which two options are components of a dual stack?(choose two)
A. EIGRP
B. OSPF
C. IPV6 traffic
D. IPv4 traffic
E. layer 3 switch
F. layer 2 switch
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 30
Which technology uses the many-to-one method of mapping IP addresses?
A. static NAT
B. dynamic NAT
C. NAT-PT
D. PAT
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 31
Which three statements about IPv6 EIGRP are true? 300-101 dumps (Choose Three)
A. EIGRP neighbor relationships are formed using the link-local address
B. EIGRP neighbor relationships can be formed only on the configured IPv6 address.
C. It supports ELM-64 addresses only.
D. EIGRP route advertisement is configured under the interface configuration
E. An IPv6 EIGRP router ID is required.
F. EIGRP route advertisement is configured under the ipv6 router eigrp configuration
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 32
300-101 dumps
A network engineer is working on the network topology and executes the command no ip split- horizon on interface S0/0 of the hum router. What is the result of this command?
A. A routing loop is created.
B. Each of the spoke routers can see the routes that are advertised from the other spoke routers
C. The Spoke routers can see the routes that are advertised by the hub router
D. The hub router can see the routes that are advertised by the spoke routers
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 33
300-101 dumps
All interfaces on each router are participating in the EIGRP 100 process. Interface Loopback 2 on HQR2 is currently in shutdown mode. An engineer issues the eigrp stub command on router BR1.
Which statements about the query messages sent from router HQ-R2 for a route to reach the 12.12.12.12/32 network is true?
A. Router HQ-R2 sends a query message to the feasible successor for a route to 12.12.12.12/32 network.
B. BR1 receives query messages from HQ-R2 for a route to 12.12.12.12/32 network
C. Router HQ-R1 receives query messages from HQ-R2 for a route to 12.12.12.12/32 network.
D. Router HQ-R1 and BR1 receives query messages from HQ-R2 for a route to 12.12.12/32 network.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 34
Which set of actions does a network engineer perform to set the IPv6 address of a DHCP relay server at the VLAN interface level?
A. Enter the VLAN interface configuration mode and define the IPv6 address of a DHCP relay server
B. Enter the global configuration mode and enable the IPv6 DHCP relay
C. Enter the global configuration mode, enable IPv6 DHCP relay from interface configuration mode and define the IPv6 address of a DHCP relay server
D. Enter the VLAN interface configuration mode, enable IPv6 DHCP relay, and define the IPv6 address of a DHCP relay server
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 35
which two types of authentication dose EIGRP offer ?(choose two)
A. TKIP
B. MD5
C. WPA
D. Plain text
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 36
Refer to the following
Logging Console7
Which option is one of the effects entering this command on a Cisco IOS router, with no additional logging configuration?
A. Debug messages can be seen on the console by enabling “terminal monitor.”
B. Debug messages are logged only on active console connections.
C. A user that is connected via SSH sees level 7 messages
D. The router can experience high CPU utilization
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 37
Which two options can you use to configure an EIGRP stub router? (Choose two)
A. summary-only
B. receive-only
C. external
D. summary
E. totally-stubby
F. not-so-stubby
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 38
After configuring the routes, the network engineer executes the show ip route command. What is the expected results?
A. Gateway of last resort is 10.0.2.1 to network 0.0.0.0 10.0.0.0/24 is subnetted, 2 subnets C 10.0.2.0is directly connected, FastEthernetO/O 10.0.1.0 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/l S”0.0.0.0/0[1/0] via 10.0.2.1(1/0] via 10.0.1.1
Router#
B. Gateway of last resort is 10 0.2 1 to network 0 0 00 10 0.0 0/24 is subnetted, 1 subnet C 10.0.2 isdirectly connected, FastEthernetO/O S 0.0.0 0/0 [1/0] via 10.0.2.1
Router#
C. Gateway of last report is not set
Router #
D. Gateway of test resort is 10.0.1.1 to network 0.0.0.0 10.0.0.0/24 is subnetted 1 subnet C 10.0.1.0 is directly connected FastEthernetO/1 S” 0.0.0?/0 [1/0] via 10.0.1.1
Router#
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 39
Which two statements about NTP stratum are true? 300-101 dumps (Choose two )
A. Stratum 15 indicates a device that is not synchronized
B. Stratum 1 devices receive their time from a peer that is connected directly to an authoritative time source.
C. The highest stratum level a synchronized device can have is 16
D. Stratum 2 devices receive their time from a peer that is connected directly to an authoritative time source
E. Stratum 0 devices are connected directly to an authoritative time source
F. Stratum 1 devices are connected directly to an authoritative time source
Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 40
Which technology dose Easy virtual network use?
A. MP-BGP
B. DMVPN
C. MPLS
D. VRF-Lite
Correct Answer: D

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The Best Cisco CCNP Collaboration 300-075 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (Q11-Q30)

QUESTION 11
When device mobility mode is enabled or disabled for a cluster, to which does the cluster setting apply?
A. all phones in the cluster that support device mobility
B. all phones in the cluster that subscribed to device mobility
C. mobile phones in the cluster that support device mobility
D. mobile phones in the cluster that are in default mode
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.
300-075 dumps
To stream multicast MOH to the remote site across the WAN, what should the minimum value for the Max Hops be configured as?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
The Max Hops field in the Music On Hold (MOH) Server Configuration window indicates the maximum number of routers that an audio source is allowed to cross. If max hops is set to zero, the audio source must remain in its own subnet. If max hops is set to one, the audio source can cross up to one router to the next subnet. Cisco recommends setting max hops to two.

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.
300-075 dumps
The HQ site uses area code 650. The BR1 site uses area code 408. The long distance national code for PSTN dialing is 1. To make a long distance national call, an HQ or BR1 user dials access code 9, followed by 1, and then the 10-digit number.
Both sites use MGCP gateways. AAR must use globalized call routing using a single route pattern. Assume that all outgoing PSTN numbers are localized at the egress gateway as shown in the exhibit.
How many route lists and route groups should be configured for AAR at a minimum?
A. a single route list with a local route group for each site
B. two route lists and two route groups for each site
C. a single route list and four route groups for each sitea
D. None. The AAR CSS can point directly to the route pattern.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit.
300-075 dumps
What must be configured on the HQ Cisco Unified Communications Manager to allow HQ users to dial the SAF learned directory number pattern 3XXX?
A. Route pattern 3XXX should be configured and made available to HQ users through the phone CSS.
B. Route pattern 3XXX should be configured and made available to HQ phone users through the phone AAR CSS.
C. The SAF partition assigned to the SAF learned patterns must be available to the HQ phone users through the phone CSS.
D. The SAF partition assigned to the SAF learned patterns must be available to the HQ phone users through the phone AAR CSS.
E. The SAF directory number pattern 3XXX will be made available to all users automatically as soon as the SAF partition is selected.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Incorrect answer: ABD
By adopting the SAF network service, the call control discovery feature allows Cisco Unified Communications Manager to advertise itself along with other key attributes.

QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit.
300-075 dumps
All HQ phones are configured to use HQ_MRGL and all BR phones are configured to use BR_MRGL. 300-075 dumps For the HQ phones always to use the hardware conference bridge as a first choice, which configuration should be implemented?
A. Ensure that both the hardware and software conference bridges are listed in the HQ_MRG. Ensure that the instance ID for the hardware conference bridge is 0.
B. Ensure that both the hardware and software conference bridges are listed in the HQ_MRG. The hardware conference bridge must be configured first.
C. Assign the hardware conference bridge to HQ_MRG. Configure a second HQ_MRG_2 and assign the software conference bridge to it. Add both the HQ_MRG and HQ_MRG_2 to the HQ_MRGL and list the HQ_MRG first.
D. Assign the hardware conference bridge to HQ_MRG. Configure a second HQ_MRG_2 and assign the software conference bridge to it. Configure an additional HQ_MRGL_2. Add the HQ_MRG to HQ_MRGL. Add HQ_MRG_2 to HQ_MRGL_2. The HQ_MRGL should be assigned to the HQ phones. The HQ_MRGL_2 should be assigned to the HQ device pool.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
To ensure that the hardware bridge is utilized first with all its resources BEFORE the software bridge is used … you need to have two separate MRG’s and list the hardware MRG 1st in the MRGL …

QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.
300-075 dumps
Which pattern will be advertised try the Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. 3XXX and the ToDID will be 0:.
B. 3XXX and the TnOID will be 0:44228822.
C. 3XXX and the ToDID will be 44228822.
D. 3XXX and the ToDID will be 0:+44228822.
E. 3XXX and the ToDID will be 0:+
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Incorrect answer: BCD
the number of digits that want stripped from the hosted DN if the call fails over to the PSTN.
Value can enter 0 and 16. Here 0 is defined.

QUESTION 17
Which task must you perform before deleting a transcoder?
A. Delete the dependency records.
B. Unassign it from a media resource group.
C. Use the Reset option.
D. Remove the device pool.
E. Remove the subunit.
F. Delete the common device configuration.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
What command is used to map internal extensions to the corresponding E.164 PSTN number when using Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express in SRST mode?
A. ephone-dn
B. dialplan-pattern
C. number
D. number-e.164
E. ephone-transnumber
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit.
300-075 dumps
The exhibit shows a SAF Forwarder configuration attached to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
Which minimum configuration for a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express SAF Forwarder is needed to establish a SAF neighbor relationship with this SAF Forwarder?
A. router eigrp SAF
i
service-family ipv4 autonomous-system 1
!
topology base
exit-sf-topology
exit-service-family
voice service saf
profile trunkroute 1
session protocol sip interface Loopback1 transport tcp port 5060 !
B. router eigrp SAF
!
service-family ipv4 autonomous-system 1
!
topology base
exit-sf-topology
exit- service-family
!
voice service saf
profile trunk-route 1
session protocol sip interface Loopback1 transport tcp port 5060 !
profile dn-block 1 alias-prefix 1972555
pattern 1 type extension 4xxx
!
profile callcontrol 1
dn-service
trunk-route 1
dn-block 1
dn-block 2
!
channel 1 vrouter SAF asystem 1
subscribe callcontrol wildcarded
publish callcontrol 1
!
C. router eigrp SAF
!
service-family ipv4 autonomous-system 1
!
topology base
exit-sf-topology
exit-service-family
!
D. None of above configurations contain sufficient information.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Incorrect answer: ABD
only following configuration is enough
router eigrp SAF
service-family ipv4 autonomous-system 1
exit-service-family

QUESTION 20
When multiple Cisco Extension Mobility profiles exist, which actions take place when a user tries to log in to Cisco Extension Mobility?
A. The login will fail because only a single Cisco Extension Mobility profile is allowed.
B. The user must select the desired profile.
C. The user must login to both profiles in the order they are presented.
D. The user may login to both profiles in any order.
E. Login will only be allowed to multiple profiles if the service parameter Allow Multiple Logins is enabled.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit.
300-075 dumps
300-075 dumps
300-075 dumps
When a call is placed from Phone 1 to Phone 2 and RSVP Agent 2 is not registered to Cisco Unified Communications Manager, what happens?
A. The caller hears a busy tone.
B. The call proceeds as normal since the location setting for the BR site is unlimited.
C. An RSPV call is attempted but fails. The call will fall back to local QoS.
D. the call fails.
E. The phone displays a message that advises the user that the call has been queued.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
Which configuration command disables the secondary dial tone on the branch office ISR for users calling from the PSTN into the branch office during a WAN failure? 300-075 dumps
A. direct-inward-dial
B. voice translation-rule
C. incoming called-number
D. application
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
What is the fastest way for an engineer to test the implementation of SRST in a production environment?
A. Shut down the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Servers.
B. Shut down the switch ports connected to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Servers.
C. Add a null route to the publisher Cisco Unified Communications Manager at the remote router. Remove the null route when the operation is verified.
D. Unplug the IP phones from their switch ports.
E. Verification is not needed.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
What is an advantage of TEHO?
A. TEHO implemented with ISRs eliminates PSTN toll charges.
B. TEHO implemented with ISRs can reduce PSTN toll charges.
C. TEHO implemented with AAR reduces toll charges.
D. TEHO implemented with CFUR reroutes calls.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit.
300-075 dumps
Assuming the regions configuration to BR only permits G.729 codec, how many calls are allowed for the BR location?
A. Total of four calls; two incoming and two outgoing.
B. Total of two calls in either direction.
C. Total of four calls to the BR location. Outgoing calls are not impacted by the location configuration.
D. Total of four calls in either direction.
E. Two outgoing calls. Incoming calls are unlimited.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
Incorrect answer: ABCE
In performing location bandwidth calculations for purposes of call admission control, Cisco Unified Communications Manager assumes that each G.729 call stream consumes 24 kb/s amount of bandwidth.

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.
300-075 dumps
What should the destination IP address be configured as on the HQ and BR1 SIP trunks?
A. The HQ SIP trunk destination IP address should be 10.1.6.10. The BR1 SIP trunk destination IP address should be 10.1.5.10.
B. The destination IP address is not configurable. Each cluster will learn about the remote trunk IP address through SAF learned routes.
C. The destination IP address will be learned automatically and configured on the SIP trunks after the Cisco Unified Communications Managers discover themselves.
D. The HQ SIP trunk destination IP address should be the HQ SAF Forwarder IP address. The BR1 SIP trunk destination IP address should be the BR1 SAF Forwarder IP address.
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
Incorrect answer: ACD
The gatekeeper changes the IP address of this remote device dynamically to reflect the IP address of the remote device.

QUESTION 27
How do RSVP-enabled locations differ from Cisco Unified Communications Manager locations?
A. RSVP is configured in the ISR independent of Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
B. RSVP enables AAR within Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
C. RSVP is topology aware.
D. RSVP is configured in Cisco Unified Communications Manager independent of the ISR.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Which two options are effective mechanisms to restrict the maximum number of voice calls on a WAN link? (Choose two.)
A. Configure a gatekeeper with an SIP trunk.
B. Configure a gatekeeper and a gatekeeper-controlled trunk in Cisco Unified Communications Manager with bandwidth control.
C. Configure Cisco Unified Communications Manager regions.
D. Configure Cisco Unified Communications Manager locations.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 29
Which statement about RSVP is true?
A. MTP is typically used for RSVP agent configuration.
B. If the RSVP agent cannot reserve the required bandwidth on first effort, it enables low latency queuing and tries to connect the call again.
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager uses the RSVP-configured bandwidth between sites as a method of determining if there is sufficient bandwidth for the call.
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager uses an RSVP-enabled infrastructure and an RSVP-controlled agent to request a bandwidth reservation from the network in order to place a call.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
300-075 dumps How is the region assigned to a device such as an IP phone?
A. Regions are assigned directly in the device configuration page.
B. Regions can be assigned only through a device pool.
C. Regions can be assigned either directly on the device configuration page or through the device pool. If both configurations exist, the device pool region configuration takes precedence.
D. Regions can be assigned either directly on the device configuration page or through the device pool. If both configurations exist, the device region configuration takes precedence.
Correct Answer: B

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