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The Best CompTIA Cloud Essentials CV0-001 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (Q1-Q40)

QUESTION 1
An administrator is troubleshooting the cause of multiple VMs which are suddenly going offline. Which of the following is the FIRST step in troubleshooting the issue?
A. Review LUN configurations for errors
B. Review Fibre Channel zoning configuration
C. Review system logs on the host
D. Review VM OS multipathing software configuration
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A system administrator is planning storage infrastructure to store backup copies of virtual machines that are at least 5GB in size. Which of the following file systems can be used in this scenario? (Select TWO).
A. SMB
B. RAW
C. EXT
D. FAT
E. NTFS
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 3
Which of the following may be used prior to encryption of information stored in a database if only weak encryption algorithms are allowed?
A. LUN Masking
B. Obfuscation
C. Access Control Lists
D. Hashing
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which of the following provides a secure tunnel through the Internet?
A. DMZ
B. IDS
C. ACL
D. VPN
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which of the following describes the access control method where data owners authorize who is granted access to their files?
A. Mandatory access control
B. Role-based access control
C. Access control list
D. Discretionary access control
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
A storage system that retains data in a flat address space is known as:
A. A hierarchical file system.
B. A NAS.
C. A DAS.
D. An OSD.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Joe, an administrator, is experiencing connectivity problems with a new VM. Joe is able to ping the gateway, however he is unable to ping the hostname of another VM on the subnet. Which of the following tools should be used NEXT when troubleshooting?
A. ipconfig
B. packet sniffer
C. nslookup
D. netstat
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
CV0-001 dumps Which of the following is bridged and sends packets on the wire with its own unique MAC address?
A. Virtual PBX
B. Virtual Switches
C. VLAN
D. Virtual NIC
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which of the following components should be virtualized and added to cloud infrastructure to ensure virtual servers are only able to access the volumes assigned to them?
A. NAS
B. DAS
C. LUN
D. HBA
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
A user is notified that they will be terminated at the end of the day. As they start cleaning up their workstation, they try to FTP information from their workstation to a cloud-based, personal backup solution. Which of the following hardening techniques would be used to restrict their ability to transfer this information via FTP?
A. Antivirus
B. NIPS
C. NIDS
D. Host-based firewall
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which of the following detection controls can be used to identify an unauthorized individual who accessed a remote network share?
A. Obfuscation
B. Authentication
C. Log review
D. LUN masking
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
The corporate security department is recommending that the administrator deploys Type I hypervisor versus Type II.
Which of the following is a security concern in regards to deploying a Type II hypervisor?
A. Human error
B. Performance benchmarks
C. Additional software
D. Administration time
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
In order to enhance security on a SAN, which of the following should be configured?
A. ZFS
B. LUN
C. VSAN
D. Zoning
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
A JBOD is being monitored and an administrator notices that a high number of writes occur in short timeframes in the last 24 hours. Which of the following BEST describes this issue?
A. I/O bursting
B. I/O throttling
C. I/O threshold
D. I/O saturation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
The Chief Information Officer (CIO) tells the IT department that all non business critical production applications can be down for no more than 48 hours. Which of the following has the CIO defined?
A. Failback
B. RPO
C. RTO
D. Failover
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which of the following is the BEST means of ensuring resource utilization remains even across the hosts?
A. Resource pooling
B. VM affinity
C. Dynamic VM placement
D. VM high availability
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Which of the following are VM template hardening techniques? CV0-001 dumps (Select TWO).
A. Joining a domain
B. IP address configuration
C. Deactivating default accounts
D. OS patching
E. Disabling all ports and services
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 18
An administrator wants to repurpose server hardware to host hypervisors. The administrator must FIRST:
A. install the hypervisor on the bare metal servers.
B. check the server\’s configuration against the hardware vendor\’s HCL.
C. check the server\’s configuration against the hypervisor vendor\’s HCL.
D. install the OS and then enable the hypervisor function.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Encryption ensures which of the following? (Select TWO).
A. Access control
B. Data loss
C. Confidentiality
D. Authentication
E. Data integrity
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 20
Which of the following tables would an administrator use to find a list of paths to network nodes?
A. Port table
B. VPN tagging
C. ARP table
D. Route table
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
Which of the following is often used by a certificate to keep the contents of the page confidential?
A. 3DES
B. AES
C. RSA
D. RC4
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Which of the following is a subcomponent of a virtual machine?
A. Virtual switch
B. Virtual HBA
C. Virtual shield
D. Virtual OS
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
Which of the following, in conjunction with IPSec, can be configured to provide secure access to files on a NAS?
A. iSCSI
B. CIFS
C. FCoE
D. SSH
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
Several clients hosted on a cluster, is BEST referred to as:
A. IaaS.
B. PaaS.
C. multi-tenancy.
D. on-premise hosting.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
New servers were purchased specifically for virtualization capabilities. However, the hypervisor of choice cannot find compatible processors on the new servers. Which of the following would a system administrator MOST likely need to configure to enable virtualization features for these systems?
A. IPMI
B. RAM
C. BIOS
D. HBAs
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
Which of the following is a disk interface type that has the BEST performance?
A. NAS
B. SAN
C. SAS
D. SSD
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
An administrator has implemented a self-service provisioning portal in the company and has associated a cost to CPU, memory, storage, and OS type. Which of the following cloud computing options has been configured?
A. Cloud bursting
B. Chargeback
C. Multi-tenancy
D. Reservations
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 28
Which of the following is the BEST answer for implementing a feature that will remove a single point of failure between a SAN and host?
A. MPLS
B. MTBF
C. MTU
D. MPIO
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
An administrator has configured a cluster but one of the VMs returns an error when attempting to automatically fail-over to another host in the cluster. CV0-001 dumps Which of the following should be verified?
A. All VLANs have been tagged
B. Datacenter bridging has been configured
C. All hosts are in the same virtual network
D. Multipathing has been configured on the virtual network
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 30
Which of the following network terms describes the process of grouping similar traffic on a network?
A. VLAN tagging
B. Virtual switches
C. Supernetting
D. Route tables
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 31
A company has decided to reduce their datacenter size. An administrator for the company has been tasked to virtualize many of the company\’s servers. Which of the following should the administrator perform to accomplish this goal?
A. P2V
B. P2P
C. V2P
D. V2V
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 32
Which of the following protocols allows fibre channel to be transmitted over the network?
A. HBA
B. FCoE
C. NFS
D. iSCSI
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 33
Users have been reporting slow response times on a database server. The administrator noticed the server at any given time has between 30 to 50 users connected to various databases. Additional research shows disk metrics such as disk queuing and disk access rates are both around 10% to 15%. Which of the following can be the root cause of this slow performing server?
A. The CPU time reservation is small.
B. The swap disk space is small.
C. The server has fewer resources than required.
D. I/O tuning is disabled.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 34
An administrator is responsible for maintenance and support of servers in the cloud environment. There are over 500 virtual servers spanning across ten physical hosts. The administrator deploys a new application server. The administrator allocated the appropriate virtual resources for the application. Users report slow response after the new server was deployed. Which of the following is the cause of this issue?
A. Storage allocation on the guest OS
B. Resource pooling mis-configuration
C. Application licensing expiration
D. Data segregation on the host OS
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 35
Which of the following can be used to encrypt data at rest on a VM located in the cloud?
A. AES
B. SSL
C. TLS
D. VPN
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 36
A company has five servers and wishes to consolidate into a single physical server. Which of the following migration methods would accomplish this?
A. P2P
B. V2P
C. V2V
D. P2V
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 37
A new host has been bought to be a part of a new cluster. The purchase order specifies this server has four physical CPUs with eight cores each. After the administrator boots the host, there are only 24 logical processors available for VM allocation. Which of the following BEST describes this problem?
A. The server requires a firmware upgrade to version 8.2
B. The BIOS does not have virtualization support features completely enabled
C. The virtualization license is not the enterprise edition
D. A CPU is dead on arrival or disabled on the motherboard
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 38
A corporate office allows employees to work remotely, using their personal computers to access network resources through a browser-based gateway. Which of the following settings should be applied to the virtualized application running on the gateway to reduce the risk of company information being transferred to employees\’ personal machines?
A. Disable the ability to copy and paste
B. Encrypt the employees\’ personal computer hard drives and disable the ability to paste
C. Encrypt the employees\’ personal computer hard drives and disable the ability to print
D. Disable the ability to paste and read
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 39
CV0-001 dumps Which of the following is typically the BEST boundary controller in a private cloud implementation?
A. CSP security
B. VPN
C. SSL
D. Firewall
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 40
Which of the following cloud services would MOST likely be used to deliver web applications?
A. IaaS
B. DaaS
C. SaaS
D. PaaS
Correct Answer: C

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Vendor: CompTIA
Certifications: CompTIA Cloud Essentials
Exam Name: CompTIA Cloud Essentials Exam
Exam Code: CLO-001
Total Questions: 230 Q&As
CLO-001 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which of the following is a business reason for IT outsourcing and cloud computing?
A. Improving cost structure
B. Improving customer satisfaction
C. Increasing control over IT systems
D. Decrease of security issues
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
How can the internal IT department successfully react to cloud computing?
A. By becoming an external cloud provider
B. By becoming an internal cloud provider
C. By outsourcing all IT services
D. By solely focusing on security issues
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Why does hardware and operating system maintenance take less effort with SaaS?
A. Maintenance becomes irrelevant
B. Cloud provider takes care of it
C. Hardware vendor takes care of it
D. Operating system vendor takes care of it
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which of the following is an important skill for an organization wanting to adopt an IaaS strategy? CLO-001 dumps
A. Visualization technology
B. Application service procurement
C. Customer relations
D. Security and risk management
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
How do demand management processes change with the introduction of SaaS?
A. New vendors have to be accommodated
B. Users can procure SaaS solutions themselves
C. The number of virtual machines can fluctuate with demand
D. Maintenance will become easier
Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 6
Why do management tools introduce a risk?
A. The management tools present a vendor lock-in
B. The management tools are indispensible above a specific scale of operation
C. The migration may not be successful
D. Too many software licenses are needed
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which of the following is an example of a cloud-related security risk?
A. Losing network connectivity
B. Not having enough software licenses
C. Not knowing what the cloud provider will charge
D. Storing customer data at a provider
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is a unique characteristic of virtualization?
A. Security features
B. Federated identities
C. Shared hardware
D. Sourcing challenges
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which of the following describes the amount of data that can be sent across a link in a given time?
A. Network bandwidth
B. Network QoS
C. Network latency
D. Network speed
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
CLO-001 dumps How can an organization successfully implement a PaaS strategy?
A. Open up internal databases with Web service access.
B. Take inventory of the application portfolio and select external suppliers
C. Standardize on a limited set of virtual machines.
D. Continuously execute performance analytics to monitor providers
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which of the following is the MOST complex security provisioning problem in a cloud environment?
A. Handling credit cards for purchasing cloud services
B. Keeping track of cloud provider performance
C. Managing users and their rights across multiple providers
D. Software assets that are introduced and can expire
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which of the following applications is MOST suitable for a cloud computing pilot?
A. Applications that are currently expensive to maintain because of interconnections
B. Applications that are easy to migrate and have some business value
C. Applications with high risk and little business value
D. Legacy applications that are coupled to specific hardware and systems software
Correct Answer: B

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Vendor: Citrix
Certifications: CCP-V
Exam Name: Deploying Citrix XenDesktop 7.6 Solutions
Exam Code: 1Y0-301
Total Questions: 112 Q&As
1Y0-301 dumps
QUESTION 1
The IT department in an organization manages servers and network devices from an internal management subnet. A NetScaler device has recently been installed into the DMZ network. The intranet firewall allows TCP 443 from the management subnet to the NetScaler device.
How could the engineer ensure that only workstations in the management network are permitted to manage the NetScaler?
A. Create an Extended ACL based on the source IP address.
B. Create a restricted route from the internal network to the DMZ.
C. Enable the management access control option on the NSIP address.
D. Enable the management access control on the internal SNIP address.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
An engineer has three subnets configured on a NetScaler appliance. The engineer must only allow a certain group of users to access a virtual server on the appliance. 1Y0-301 dumps The IT Manager requires that all rules are flexible and can be easily modified for ease of administration.
How could the engineer allow certain groups to access the virtual server while still being able to modify the setting in the future?
A. Add a Simple ACL.
B. Disable USNIP Mode.
C. Create an Extended ACL.
D. Add a Host Route to the virtual server.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
A Citrix Engineer needs to migrate a virtual desktop pool from Machine Creation Services to Provisioning Services. The engineer updates the master image and recreates the virtual desktops by using Provisioning Services.
What should the engineer do next to publish the newly-created virtual desktops?
A. Create a new catalog of the static type and add the new virtual desktops to the catalog.
B. Create a new virtual Delivery Group and add the virtual desktops to the existing catalog.
C. Create a new catalog of the pooled type and add the new virtual desktops to the catalog.
D. Add the new virtual desktops to the existing catalog and change the catalog type to static.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Users have reported that they are receiving a confusing error message related to SSL sessions when connecting from older browsers.
How could the network engineer present this error to users in a customized format?
A. Enable the SSL v2 protocol.
B. Set a URL on the backup virtual server.
C. Add a redirect URL to the virtual server.
D. Configure SSL v2 Redirection for the virtual server.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
A network engineer needs to configure load balancing for an FTP site.
Which type of session persistence method can the engineer select for this scenario?
A. Rule
B. Source IP
C. Cookie Insert
D. Custom Server ID
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
An engineer is configuring services to allow load balancing of backend web servers on the internal network. The engineer bound multiple monitors to the first service, 1Y0-301 dumps but notices that the service is reporting as DOWN. The monitor threshold default has NOT been changed.
What could be causing this issue?
A. The service type is HTTP.
B. One of the monitors’ tests is failing.
C. Some of the monitors have a higher weight.
D. The monitors are both reporting an UP status.
Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 7
Example.com runs a dating service site that provides a service with videos of candidates. They want to use RTSP load balancing to stream the videos more effectively.
Which load balancing method should the engineer select?
A. Least packet
B. Round Robin
C. Least bandwidth
D. Least connection
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
A network engineer has configured a load balancing virtual server for an HTTP application. Due to the application architecture, it is imperative that a user’s session remains on a single server during the session. The session has an idle timeout of 60 minutes. Some devices are getting inconsistent application access while most are working fine. The problematic devices all have tighter security controls in place.
Which step should the engineer take to resolve this issue?
A. Set the cookie timeout to 60 minutes.
B. Configure a backup persistence of SourceIP.
C. Change the HTTP parameters to Cookie Version 1.
D. Utilize SSL offload to enable the application to use SSL.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
The network engineer has created a monitor and bound it to a service group containing four web servers to verify that the web application responds. During routine maintenance one of the web servers is shut down; however, the server state remains UP and user requests are still attempting to communicate with the server.
What could be causing this problem?
A. The server has been disabled.
B. The monitor is not bound at the correct bind point.
C. Health monitoring is disabled for the service group.
D. The NetScaler configuration has not been saved since before the monitor was bound.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
An engineer created a new test Web Interface site for the new XenDesktop farm that the IT Department is developing. Several weeks later the engineer finds out that several people across the company have been accessing the new test site. The engineer needs to ensure that only the IT Department subnets can access the test site. 1Y0-301 dumps
How could the engineer restrict access to the site so that only certain subnets can access this resource?
A. Add an Extended ACL to only allow specific subnets to the Web Interface Site.
B. Modify an existing simple ACL to allow specific subnets to the Web Interface Site.
C. Enable USNIP Mode on the appliance to allow specific subnets to the Web Interface Site.
D. Change the Access Method on the Web Interface Site to allow specific subnets to the Web Interface Site.
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following statements is correct about how the FortiGate unit verifies username and password during user authentication? NSE4 pdf
A. If a remote server is included in a user group, it will be checked before local accounts.
B. An administrator can define a local account for which the password must be verified by querying a remote server.
C. If authentication fails with a local password, the FortiGate unit will query the authentication server if the local user is configured with both a local password and an authentication server.
D. The FortiGate unit will only attempt to authenti ate against Action Directory if Fortinet Server Authentication Extensions are installed and configured.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What advantages are there in using a hub-and-spoke IPSec VPN configuration instead of a fully-meshed set of IPSec tunnels? (Select all that apply.)
A. Using a hub and spoke topology is required to achieve full redundancy.
B. Using a hub and spoke topology simplifies configuration because fewer tunnels are required.
C. Using a hub and spoke topology provides stronger encryption.
D. The routing at a spoke is simpler, compared to a meshed node.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the FortiGuard Services Web Filtering Override configuration as illustrated in the exhibit?      NSE4 dumps
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A. Any client on the same subnet as the authenticated user is allowed to access www.yahoo.com/images/.
B. A client with an IP of address 10.10.10.12 is allowed access to any subdirectory that is part of the www.yahoo.com web site.
C. A client with an IP address of 10.10.10.12 is allowed access to the www.yahoo.com/images/ web site and any of its offsite URLs.
D. A client with an IP address of 10.10.10.12 is allowed access to any URL under the www.yahoo.com web site, including any subdirectory URLs, until August 7, 2009.
E. Any client on the same subnet as the authenticated user is allowed to access www.yahoo.com/images/until August 7, 2009.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which of the following statements are correct about the HA diag command diagnose sys ha reset-uptime?(Select all that apply.)
A. The device this command is executed on is likely to switch from master to slave status if master override is disabled.
B. The device this command is executed on is likely to switch from master to slave status if master override is enabled.
C. This command has no impact on the HA algorithm.
D. This command resets the uptime variable used in the HA algorithm so it may cause a new master to become elected.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 5
When the SSL proxy inspects the server certificate for Web Filtering only in SSL Handshake mode, which certificate field is being used to determine the site rating? NSE4 dumps
A. Common Name
B. Organization
C. OrganizationalUnit
D. Serial Number
E. Validity
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the NAC Quarantine feature?
A. With NAC quarantine, files can be quarantined not only as a result of antivirus scanning, but also for other forms of content inspection such as IPS and DLP.
B. NAC quarantine does a client check on workstations before they are permitted to have administrative access to FortiGate.
C. NAC quarantine allows administrators to isolate clients whose network activity poses a security risk.
D. If you chose the quarantine action, you must decide whether the quarantine type is NAC quarantine or File quarantine.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which of the following Session TTL values will take precedence? NSE4 pdf
A. Session TTL specified at the system level for that port number
B. Session TTL specified in the matching firewall policy
C. Session TTL dictated by the application control list associated with the matching firewall policy
D. The default session TTL specified at the system level
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is an advantage of using SNMP v3 instead of SNMP v1/v2 when querying the FortiGate unit?
A. Packetencryption
B. MIB-based report uploads
C. SNMP access limits through access lists
D. Running SNMP service on a non-standard port is possible
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
The FortiGate unit can be configured to allow authentication to a RADIUS server. The RADIUS server can use several different authentication protocols during the authentication process. Which of the following are valid authentication protocols that can be used when a user authenticates to the RADIUS server? (Select all that apply.)
A. MS-CHAP-V2 (Microsoft Challenge-Handshake Authentication Protocol v2)
B. PAP (Password Authentication Protocol)
C. CHAP (Challenge-Handshake Authentication Protocol)
D. MS-CHAP (Microsoft Challenge-Handshake Authentication Protocol v1)
E. FAP (FortiGate Authentication Protocol)
Correct Answer: ABCD

QUESTION 10
Which of the following statements is not correct regarding virtual domains (VDOMs)? NSE4 dumps
A. VDOMs divide a single FortiGate unit into two or more virtual units that function as multiple, independent units.
B. A management VDOM handles SNMP, logging, alert email, and FDN-based updates.
C. A backup management VDOM will synchronize the configuration from an active management VDOM.
D. VDOMs share firmware versions, as well as antivirus and IPS databases.
E. Only administrative users with a super_admin profile will be able to enter all VDOMs to make configuration changes.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
You are a project manager in your organization. You have several activities that need to be completed within
the next thirty days for your project to reach its deadline on time. How can you view the available  resources
within the next 30 days to plan on task assignment based on resource availability?
A.  View the available resources through Project Web Access in the Resource Center.
B.  Create a filter in the Project Web Access Resource Center based on resource availability.
C.  Create a filter in the Project Web Access for available resources, groups, and availability.
D.  Create a view in the Project Web Access Resource Center based on availability in the next 30 days.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Project Server automatically creates four site groups within the project workspace. Which one of the
following is NOT a site group that is created automatically?
A.  Readers
B.  Web administrators
C.  Project managers
D.  Stakeholders
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
You are the Microsoft Project Server administrator for your organization and you need to perform a restore  to
the PSGHT SQL database. You have been using the differential model so you will need to restore from multiple
media. What clause will you need to include in your RESTORE DATABASE statement to restore  the full database
backup that comes before the differential backup to restore your SQL database?
A.  NORECOVERY
B.  RESTORE
C.  RECOVERY
D.  RESTORE_DIFF
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION4
You work as a Project Manager for company.com Inc. You would like to create a filter in order to view all  the
jobs submitted to the queue within the last seven days. How will you accomplish the task?

A.  This task is possible; you should use the filter “All jobs in the past week” through Project Web Access  and
the My Queued Jobs page.
B.  This task is not possible. Queue entries are processed and purged from the queue without a history of  the
action.
C.  This task is possible; the Project Administrator, however, will need to create the view for the project
manager and then assign the appropriate permission.
D.  This task is somewhat possible; queued jobs that fail are recorded, but all successful queued jobs are
purged from the queue history.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
You would like to change the Site Theme of your project workspace. How can you change the Site  Theme?

A.  Choose Site Actions, and then select Site Settings.
B.  Choose Site Settings, and then select Customize.
C.  Choose Site Customization, and then select Site Settings.
D.  Choose Site Details, and then select Options.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
You work as a project manager for company.com Inc. You need to develop a solution so that the project
manager, executives, and team members can review and discuss the risks of the company’s project online.
Which of the following is the most appropriate solution for the above task?

A.  Create a new workspace called Risk, and assign permissions to the project manager, executives, and  team
members.
B.  Use the existing project workspace but create an additional Web Part for the risk of the JHG Project.
C.  Create a new workspace, and assign the appropriate permissions to the project manager, executives,  and
team members.
D.  Use the existing Risk link in the project workspace that is already created using Microsoft Project
Server.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Gary is the Microsoft Project Server administrator for his company, and is configuring a restore method for his
SQL  Server. Gary would  like  to use  a  command  to  ensure  that  the backup operation  verifies  each page  for
checksum and torn page and for the entire backup. What command should Gary use?

A.  STOP_ON_ERROR
B.  NO_CHECKSUM
C.  CHECKSUM
D.  CONTINUE_AFTER_ERROR
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
You work as a Project Manager for company.com Inc. You along with your team need to level project  resources.
One of your team members is concerned about which project he should work on first. Which of  the following
attributes of the projects will determine which project your team should work on first when  resource leveling is
done?

A.  It depends upon the tasks that require the project manager to work on the critical path.
B.  It depends upon the project with the nearest defined milestone.
C.  It depends upon the project manager’s determination.
D.  It depends upon the project with the highest project priority set.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
There are three primary baselines in a project. Which one of the following is NOT a baseline that can be
captured in Microsoft Project Server?

A.  Schedule
B.  Cost
C.  Quality
D.  Scope
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
You work as a Project Manager for company.com Inc. The executive team has asked you to estimate the
labor costs for your project. How will you estimate the labor costs without assigning specific people to the
tasks?

A.  You should assign budget resources with corresponding skill sets and costs to tasks.
B.  You should create work resources that will act as placeholders, set their cost rates to an average
amount for the corresponding skill set, and assign the work resources to tasks.
C.  You should assign generic resources with corresponding skill sets and costs to tasks.
D.  You should assign costs resources to tasks.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
You work as a Project Administrator for company.com Inc. One of your team members, Ralph, reports that he
is trying to customize, through his Microsoft Project Professional, the Gantt Chart view but he receives  an
error when he tries to rename the view. What is the most likely problem in this scenario?

A.  Ralph cannot rename the Gantt Chart.
B.  Ralph cannot rename the Gantt Chart, as it is an EPM Global view used by all Microsoft Project users.
C.  Ralph cannot rename the Gantt Chart, as it is a project view.
D.  Ralph cannot rename the Gantt Chart, as it is an Enterprise Global default view.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
You work as a Project Administrator for company.com Inc. You have been assigned a task to maintain the
security of the Project Web Access and would like to create a security template for the server. Where can  you
create and apply a security template?

A.  In PWA, choose Server Settings, Security Templates, Manage Templates, and then choose New
Template.
B.  In PWA, choose Server Settings, Site Settings, Security Templates, Manage Templates, and then
choose New Template.
C.  In PWA, choose Site Settings, Security Templates, Manage Templates, and then choose New
Template.
D.  In PWA, choose Server Settings, choose Security Templates, and then choose New Template.
Correct Answer: A

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The Cisco Certified Network Associate v1.0 (CCNA 200-301) exam is a 120-minute exam associated with the CCNA certification. This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills related to network fundamentals, network access, IP connectivity, IP services, security fundamentals, and automation and programmability. The course, Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions (CCNA), helps candidates prepare for this exam.

Latest updates Cisco CCNA 200-301 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1

Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass cisco 200-301 exam practice questions q1

A network engineer must block access for all computers on VLAN 20 to the web server via HTTP All other computers
must be able to access the web server.

lead4pass cisco 200-301 exam practice questions q1-1

Which configuration when applied to switch A accomplishes this task?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
Drag and drop the descriptions of file-transfer protocols from the left onto the correct protocols on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass cisco 200-301 exam practice questions q2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass cisco 200-301 exam practice questions q2-1

 

QUESTION 3lead4pass cisco 200-301 exam practice questions q3

Refer to the exhibit. Users in your office are complaining that they cannot connect to the severs at a remote site. When
troubleshooting, you find that you can successfully reach the severs from router R2. What is the most likely reason that
the other users are experiencing connection failure?
A. interface ports are shut down on the remote servers
B. The DHCP address pool has been exhausted
C. The ip helper-address command is missing on the R2 interface that connects to the switch
D. VLSM is misconfigured between the router interface and the DHCP pool.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 4
Which design element is a best practice when deploying an 802.11b wireless infrastructure?
A. disabling TPC so that access points can negotiate signal levels with their attached wireless devices
B. setting the maximum data rate to 54 Mbps on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller
C. allocating nonoverlapping channels to access points that are in close physical proximity to one another
D. configuring access points to provide clients with a maximum of 5 Mbps
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 5
A Cisco IP phone receive untagged data traffic from an attached PC.
Which action is taken by the phone?
A. It allows the traffic to pass through unchanged.
B. It drops the traffic.
C. It tags the traffic with the default VLAN.
D. It tags the traffic with the native VLAN.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 6
Which two tasks must be performed to configure NTP to a trusted server in client mode on a single network device?
(Choose two)
A. Enable NTP authentication.
B. Verify the time zone.
C. Disable NTP broadcasts.
D. Specify the IP address of the NTP server.
E. Set the NTP server private key.
Correct Answer: DE


QUESTION 7
A user configured OSPF and advertised the Gigabit Ethernet interface in OSPF, by default, which type of OSPF network
does this interface belong to?
A. point-to-multipoint
B. point-to-point
C. broadcast
D. nonbroadcast
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass cisco 200-301 exam practice questions q8

What does router R1 use as its OSPF router-ID?
A. 10.10.1.10
B. 10.10.10.20
C. 172.16.15.10
D. 192.168.0.1
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass cisco 200-301 exam practice questions q9

Which prefix does Router 1 use for traffic to Host A?
A. 10.10.10.0/28
B. 10.10.13.0/25
C. 10.10.13.144/28
D. 10.10.13.208/29
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true about the loopback address that is configured on RouterB? (Choose
two.)

lead4pass cisco 200-301 exam practice questions q10

A. It ensures that data will be forwarded by RouterB.
B. It provides stability for the OSPF process on RouterB.
C. It specifies that the router ID for RouterB should be 10.0.0.1.
D. It decreases the metric for routes that are advertised from RouterB.
E. It indicates that RouterB should be elected the DR for the LAN.
Correct Answer: BC
Explanation:
A loopback interface never comes down even if the link is broken so it provides stability for the OSPF process (for
example we use that loopback interface as the router-id) – The router-ID is chosen in the order below:
+ The highest IP address assigned to a loopback (logical) interface.+ If a loopback interface is not defined, the highest
IP address of all active router\\’s physical interfaces will be chosen. -> The loopback interface will be chosen as the
router ID of RouterB ?


QUESTION 11
Which feature on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller when enabled restricts management access from specific
networks?
A. CPUACL
B. TACACS
C. Flex ACL
D. RADIUS
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 12
Router A learns the same route from two different neighbors, one of the neighbor routers is an OSPF neighbor and the
other is an EIGRP neighbor.
What is the administrative distance of the route that will be installed in the routing table?
A. 20
B. 90
C. 110
D. 115
Correct Answer: B

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What is the best way to prepare for the 642-889 exam? MicVCE shares the latest and effective Cisco 642-889 exam questions and answers, online practice tests, and the most authoritative Cisco exam experts update 642-889 exam questions throughout the year. Get the full 642-889 exam dumps selection: https://www.lead4pass.com/642-889.html (185 Q&As). Pass the exam with ease!

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The 642-889 SPEDGE Implementing Cisco Service Provider Next-Generation Edge Network Services tests a candidate’s knowledge of service provider VPN solutions through enabling point of presence to provide Layer 2 and Layer 3 VPNs.

This exam covers the Cisco IOS, IOS-XE, and IOS XR operating systems.

Latest updates Cisco 642-889 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
When implementing VPLS on Cisco routers, which data structure resembles a virtual switch and is used for learning the
MAC addresses?
A. VRF
B. VFI
C. SVI
D. BVI
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
An engineer is configuring an EoMPLS circuit on a Cisco IOS XR router interface that removes a VLAN from the
distribution layer. Which configuration accomplishes this configuration?
A. interface GigabitEthernet 0/10.10 l2transport encapsulation dot1q 10 l2vpn xconnect group 103588 p2p 103588
interface GigabitEthernet 2/10.10 neighbor ipv4 10.10.10.2 pw-id 103588
B. interface GigabitEthernet 0/10.10 encapsulation dot1q 10 rewrite ingress tag pop 1 symmetric l2vpn xconnect group
103588 p2p 103588 interface GigabitEthernet 0/10.10 neighbor ipv4 10.10.10.2 pw-id 103588
C. interface GigabitEthernet 0/10.10 l2transport encapsulation dot1q 10 rewrite ingress tag pop 1 symmetric l2vpn
xconnect group 103588 p2p 103588 interface GigabitEthernet 0/10.10 neighbor ipv4 10.10.10.2 pw-id 103588
D. interface GigabitEthernet 0/10.10 l2transport encapsulation dot1q 10 rewrite ingress tag translate 1-to-1 dot1ad 10
symmetric l2vpn xconnect group 103588 p2p 103588 interface GigabitEthernet 0/10.10 neighbor ipv4 10.10.10.2 pw-id
103588
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
With Layer 3 MPLS VPN implementations on Cisco IOS XR PE routers, an interface is assigned to a VRF using the vrf
command in which configuration mode?
A. RP/0/RP0/CPU0:PE(config-vrf)#
B. RP/0/RP0/CPU0:PE(config-if)#
C. RP/0/RP0/CPU0:PE(config-bgp)#
D. RP/0/RP0/CPU0:PE(config-bgp-af)#
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which type of VPN requires a full mesh of virtual circuits to provide optimal site-to-site connectivity?
A. MPLS Layer 3 VPNs
B. Layer 2 overlay VPNs
C. GET VPNs
D. peer-to-peer VPNs
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which VPN technology uses the Group Domain of Interpretation as the keying protocol and IPsec for encryption that is
often deployed over a private MPLS core network?
A. DMVPN
B. GET VPN
C. SSL VPN
D. L2TPv3
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 642-889 exam question q6

PE1 and PE2 are advertising the same subnet 10.10.10.0/24 to PE3. Which PE advertised subnet is installed at the
PE3 XYZ BGP table?
A. PE2 subnet because it has the same RD value as PE3
B. PE2 subnet because it has the same export RT value as export RT on PE3
C. PE1 subnet because it has the same RD value as PE3
D. PE1 subnet because it has the same export RT value as import RT on PE3
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Drag the standard on the left to match the correct description on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 642-889 exam question q7

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 642-889 exam question q7-1

QUESTION 8
What is an advantage of using the Cisco EVC infrastructure to implement carrier-class Ethernet services that are not
available on non-EVC-capable platforms?
A. PW redundancy
B. interworking support
C. PW stitching support
D. flexible frame-matching support and VLAN tag manipulation
E. local cross-connect support
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which option is the minimal configuration required inside the L2VPN section of a Cisco IOS XR PE router to activate
VPLS functionality?
A. l2vpn bridge group test bridge-domain test interface TenGigE0/0/0/1.30 ! vfi test vpn-id 600 autodiscovery bgp rd
10.10.10.1:30 route-target 1:300 signaling-protocol bgp ve-id 10
B. l2vpn bridge group test bridge-domain test interface TenGigE0/0/0/1.30 ! vfi test neighbor 10.10.10.2 pw-id 1400
mpls static label local 1400 remote 1500
C. l2vpn bridge group test bridge-domain test interface TenGigE0/0/0/1.30 ! vfi test neighbor 10.10.10.2 pw-id 1400
D. l2vpn bridge group test bridge-domain test interface TenGigE0/0/0/1.30 ! vfi test vpn-id 600 autodiscovery bgp rd
10.10.10.1:30 route-target 1:300 signaling-protocol bgp
E. l2vpn bridge group test bridge-domain test vfi test autodiscovery bgp rd 10.10.10.1:30 route-target 1:300 signaling-
protocol bgp ve-id 10
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which method can be used to discover targeted LDP neighbors dynamically when configuring VPLS between PE
routers?
A. BGP autodiscovery
B. VPLS peers under the VFI
C. VPWS
D. BGP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
When implementing MPLS Layer 3 VPN services, which CE-PE routing method does not require the use of the
redistribute command to enable the customer routes to be advertised through the MPLS cloud between the customer
sites?
A. EIGRP
B. OSPF
C. IS-IS
D. BGP
E. static routing
F. OSPF or IS-IS
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
When implementing a Layer 2 transport subinterface on a Cisco IOS XR router, which encapsulation option is used to
match any packets that are not matched by any other service instances?
A. default
B. untagged
C. any
D. tag
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
A Cisco IOS XR router is acting as a PE and is running EIGRP as the CE-PE routing protocol. SOO must be configured.
Under which subconfiguration mode should SOO be configured?
A. RP/0/0/CPU0:XR1(config-eigrp)
B. RP/0/0/CPU0:XR1(config-eigrp-vrf-af-if)
C. RP/0/0/CPU0:XR1(config-eigrp-vrf)
D. RP/0/0/CPU0:XR1(config-eigrp-vrf-af)
Correct Answer: B

Related 642-889 Popular Exam resources

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Cisco CCNP Service Provider lead4pass 642-889 dumps pdf lead4pass 642-889 youtube 642-889 SPEDGE – Cisco https://www.lead4pass.com/642-889.html 185 Q&A
lead4pass 642-883 dumps pdf lead4pass 642-883 youtube 642-883 SPROUTE – Cisco https://www.lead4pass.com/642-883.html 174 Q&A
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350-501 SPCOR – Cisco lead4pass 350-501 dumps 60 Q&A
300-510 SPRI – Cisco Implementing Cisco Service Provider Advanced Routing Solutions (SPRI) 60 Q&A
300-515 SPVI – Cisco Implementing Cisco Service Provider VPN Services (SVPI) 60 Q&A
300-535 SPAUTO – Cisco Automating and Programming Cisco Service Provider Solutions (SPAUTO) 60 Q&A

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This exam tests your knowledge and skills related to:

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  • IP services
  • Security fundamentals
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Latest updates Cisco 200-150 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1

Which Cisco WebEX product can be integrated in a CMR Cloud or CMR Hybrid deployment? 

A. Cisco WebEx Support Center 

B. Cisco WebEx Event Center 

C. Cisco WebEx Center 

D. Cisco WebEx Meeting Center 

Correct Answer: D 

 

QUESTION 2

Which statement is true regarding FIP in FCoE enabled Storage Area Networks?. 

A. It discovers and initializes converged network capable devices connected to an Ethernet cloud. 

B. it uses a dedicated EtherType of 0xFFFF. 

C. it reduces the number of network interface cards required to connect to disparate storage and IP networks. 

D. It reduces the number of cables and switches. 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 3

Which statement describes the use of zones in a VSAN? 

A. zones are configured at the fabric core. 

B. An HBA or storage device can belong to one zone. 

C. zones limit unicast, multicast, and broadcast traffic. 

D. zones are a group ports within a single VSAN. 

Correct Answer: C 

 

QUESTION 4

Which is an endpoint supported by Cisco Unified Communications Manager? 

A. Legacy H 323 endpoints 

B. CMA Clients 

C. immersive Telepresence endpoints 

D. Jabber Video 

Correct Answer: C 

 

QUESTION 5

Which two protocols can you use SAN storage that is accesses via low-latency, high-bandwidth networking? (Choose

two.) 

A. AFP 

B. CIFS 

C. NFS 

D. FCP 

E. iSCSI 

Correct Answer: BC 

 

QUESTION 6

Which two options are file-based storage protocols? (Choose two.) 

A. Telnet 

B. CIFS 

C. Fibre Channel 

D. NFS 

E. iSCSI 

Correct Answer: BD 

 

QUESTION 7

What native Fibre Channel technology facilitates connecting multiple Fibre devices behind a single FC address? 

A. Fiber Channel over Ethernet 

B. N-Port Virtualization 

C. Fibre Channel Arbitrated Loop 

D. N-Port Identification Virtualization 

Correct Answer: C 

 

QUESTION 8

Which router type is the most trustworthy for a Cisco routing device? 

A. EIGRP dynamic 

B. static 

C. BGP dynamic 

D. OSPF dynamic 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 9

For which reason would you implement a VSAN? 

A. to overcome the limitations of zoning 

B. to virtualize storage 

C. to segment the physical fabric into multiple logical fabrics 

D. to overcome the limitations of LUN masking 

Correct Answer: C 

 

QUESTION 10

Which two options are multicast addresses? (Choose two.) 

A. FD00::2 

B. 192.168.2.2 

C. FF05::2 

D. 226.10.10.10 

E. 240.1.0.1 

Correct Answer: CD 

 

QUESTION 11

A network engineer is changing the boot process of a router from its original state to one that boots from ROMMON.

Which option in Cisco IOS should be changed? 

A. config register number 

B. RMON 

C. bootflash settings 

D. terminal history 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 12

In which layer of the OSI model are TCP port numbers defined? 

A. session 

B. network 

C. data-link 

D. transport 

Correct Answer: D 

 

QUESTION 13

Which is used in both CMR Premises and CMR Hybrid solutions? 

A. Cisco CTS 

B. Cisco WebEx Meeting Center 

C. Cisco Meeting Server D. Cisco Conductor 

Correct Answer: B

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Latest updates Cisco 500-701 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Which is a feature available in Expressway version 8.9?
A. Global phone books
B. The ability to register desktop phones
C. The ability to register video endpoints
D. SRST redundancy
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 2
Which Cisco WebEx Products can support over 5000 attendees?
A. Cisco WebEx Training Center
B. Cisco WebEx Event Center
C. Cisco WebEx Support Center
D. Cisco WebEx Meeting Center
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which statement is true about Microsoft Skype for Business (S4B) interoperability with Cisco Meeting Server?
A. Chat can be used between S4B and Cisco Meeting App users.
B. Local Directories can always be used between S4B users and CMA.
C. Chat can be used between S4B and Cisco Meeting Server Spaces.
D. Calls can not be place between S4B and Cisco Meeting App (CMA) users.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which is an endpoint supported by Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. CMA Clients
B. Jabber Video
C. Immersive Telepresence endpoints
D. Legacy H.323 endpoints
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 5
What must be configured to setup a Directory connector for Cisco Spark Hybrid?
A. The administrator needs to configure AD to point to Cisco Spark Cloud
B. Configure the Directory Connector on the Expressway Core
C. The administrator only needs to configure AD settings in the Cisco Spark Management Portal
D. The administrator must log in to Cloud Collaboration Management and download the Directory Connector in the
Windows Server
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which statement is true regarding Subzones?
A. Subzones require the use of endpoint authentication.
B. Subzones are used for routing calls to peers in other parts of the network.
C. Endpoints require the use of other endpoints for authentication.
D. Endpoints are assigned to a particular Subzone by their alias or IP subnet.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which protocol is used for an immersive telepresence meeting?
A. Assent
B. TIP
C. H.323
D. H.239
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 8
Which statement is true regarding endpoint registration authentication?
A. When a Subzone is set for “Treat as Authenticated”, the endpoint is required to have the correct authentications
configured.
B. Expressways and Endpoints do not need to be synchronized with identical NTP timestamps.
C. Authentication credentials can be stored in the local database of the Expressway.
D. SIP endpoints always need authentication credentials.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 9
Which is used in both CMR Premises and CMR Hybrid solutions?
A. Cisco CTS
B. Cisco Conductor
C. Cisco Meeting Server
D. Cisco WebEx Meeting Center
Correct Answer: D
https://www.cisco.com/assets/global/CZ/events/2015/ciscoconnect/pdf/TECH-COLL-1_conferencing-ivsykora-jmartan.pdf

QUESTION 10
Which is a call Control Device in a Cisco Collaboration environment?
A. Cisco Meeting Server
B. Cisco Telepresence Management Suite
C. Cisco Content Server
D. Cisco Expressway
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 11
What is known as the User Policy?
A. Authentication
B. Admin Policy
C. Call Policy
D. Find Me
Correct Answer: D
https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/telepresence/infrastructure/vcs/config_guide/X8-2/Cisco-VCS-External-Policy-Deployment-Guide-X8-2.pdf

QUESTION 12
Which is an administrative function Cisco Spark Partner resellers are allowed to perform from the Cisco Spain
Management portal?
A. Determine role-based access and view usage reports.
B. Enable Single Sign-On and Directory sync through corporate LDAP services on premises.
C. Determine Single Sign-On customer usage reports.
D. Customer account management.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
What is the only WebEx product that can be used in a CMR Cloud solution?
A. Cisco WebEx Support Center
B. Cisco WebEx Meeting Center
C. Cisco WebEx Training Center
D. Cisco WebEx Event Center
Correct Answer: B

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This exam certifies that the successful candidate has the knowledge and skills necessary to plan and perform regular maintenance on complex enterprise routed and switched networks, Use technology-based practices and a systematic ITIL-compliant approach to perform network troubleshooting

Latest updates Cisco 300-135 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-135 exam question q1

Which two statements are correct? (Choose Two)
A. The source device has name resolution configured.
B. The source device is using two routes for the destination, learned from different protocols.
C. A device on the path is introducing considerable delay.
D. The source device is loading balancing traffic.
Correct Answer: AD
Router traces domain name (cisco.com) and it gets ICMP answers, so name resolution has happened. Per hop output
shows 2 lines, hence 2 active paths exist.

 

QUESTION 2
Which of the following are shared distribution tree characteristics? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Memory requirements are higher for shared distribution tree than for source distribution tree.
B. Creates a tree from a central RP to all last-hop routers.
C. Uses a rendezvous point.
D. An optimal path is created between each source router and each last-hop router.
E. Place (S,G) entry in each router\\’s multicast routing table.
F. Place (*,G) entry in a router\\’s multicast routing to table.
Correct Answer: CF


QUESTION 3
Which two can use to protect and secure management plane from unwanted and unauthorized access? (Choose two.)
A. Limit physical access to network devices
B. Use RADIUS instead of TACACS+ for AAA.
C. Create an ACL to permit Telnet access only.
D. Enable authentication for the routing protection.
E. Use MPP to limit the interfaces on which management traffic can traverse the device.
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 4
Which two statements about IPv6 traffic filtering are true? (choose two)
A. it performs virtual fragmentation reassembly after checking engress ACLs
B. it performs virtual fragmentation after checking ingress ACLs
C. it requires IPv6 neighbor discovery to be enabled on the interface
D. it requires configuration to be done at the engress interface
E. it is configured at the interface level
Correct Answer: BE


QUESTION 5
There was a question on how to limit debug output for a particular interface and one of the options was debug condition
interface g0/0 which I think was the correct answer.
A. debug condition interface g0/0
B. https://www.Lead4pass.com/300-135.html
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement indicates a cause for Tunnel0’s connection failure?lead4pass 300-135 exam question q6

A. The tunnel destination interface is flapping, which causes the tunnel to go up and down.
B. The tunnel source interface is in an up/down state and the tunnel destination is recursively routing as a result.
C. The tunnel is configured with the wrong encapsulation.
D. The tunnel destination is intermittently reachable via multiple routing protocols.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 7
On which two topologies can you deploy a point-to-point GRE over IPsec design? (Choose two.)
A. bus
B. partial-mesh
C. hub-and-spoke
D. ring
E. tree
Correct Answer: BC
In a p2p GRE over IPsec design, the following three topologies can be implemented: Hub-and-spoke Partial mesh Full
mesh
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/WAN_and_MAN/P2P_GRE_IPSec/P2P_GRE/1_p2pGRE_Phase2.html


QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. Which command will limit the output of the debug ospf hello command as shown in Section 3?lead4pass 300-135 exam question q8

A. debug condition interface Gi0/0
B. debug condition interface Gi0/2
C. debug condition ip 224.0.0.5
D. no debug condition ip 192.168.13.3
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 9
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the GRE header fields from the left into the Required or Optional categories on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 300-135 exam question q9

Correct Answer: lead4pass 300-135 exam question q9-1

 

QUESTION 10
When your network experiences Cisco Discovery Protocol and LLDP issues, with which layer of the OSI model must
you begin troubleshooting?
A. physical layer
B. datalink layer
C. network layer
D. transport layer
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 11
A question related to IPsec security. (IPSEC security related)
A. create a IPSec with tunnel
B. https://www.lead4pass.com/300-135.html
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 12
Drag and Drop
Select and Place:lead4pass 300-135 exam question q12

Correct Answer: lead4pass 300-135 exam question q12-1

 

QUESTION 13
Examine the output from R1. Interface FastEthernet0/0 is used for all management of the device. A client is able to
connect to R1 on port 22, however, they are unable to connect on port 23. What is the cause of the problem?lead4pass 300-135 exam question q13

A. Management Plane Protection (MPP) is enabled, which only allows SSH.
B. Telnet and SSH are not allowed at the same time.
C. Management Plane Protection (MPP) is enabled on the wrong interface.
D. Management Plane Protection (MPP) is enabled, however telnet is not allowed.
Correct Answer: D

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