lang="en-US" prefix="og: http://ogp.me/ns#"/>

[2018 PDF Free Download] New Cisco CCNP Collaboration 300-070 Dumps Exam Training Resources Update Youtube Demo (Q1-Q30)

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The Best Cisco CCNP Collaboration 300-070 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (Q1-Q30)

QUESTION 1
Which statement about the relationship between gateways and route groups is true?
A. Each gateway can belong to only one route group and can be listed only once within that route group.
B. Each gateway can belong to only one route group and can be listed multiple times within that route group.
C. Each gateway can belong to multiple route groups and can be listed only once within each route group.
D. Each gateway can belong to multiple route groups and can be listed multiple times within each route group.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which dial plan function is used to restrict calls that are made by a lobby phone to internal extensions only?
A. Path selection.
B. Endpoint addressing.
C. Manipulation of dialed destination.
D. Calling privileges.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which two are enterprise parameters? (Choose two.)
A. User search limit
B. T302 parameter
C. Enable Call Detail Records
D. Enable Dependency Records
E. codecs parameters for voice media-streaming applications
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 4
A user’s phone Call Forward No Answer setting has been configured to forward to a hunt pilot. If all call hunting options have been exhausted and the Forward Hunt No Answer feature has been configured to use Personal Preference settings, to which of these will calls to this phone be forwarded?
A. the default destination configured under Service Parameters
B. any destination configured under the user’s DN Personal Settings configuration
C. the destination specified under the user’s Call Forward No Coverage settings
D. voice mail
E. no other destination; each call will continue to ring until the caller hangs up
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
You can implement the personal preferences option. To do so, configure a user phone so that the Forward No Answer field redirects the call to a hunt pilot, which searches for someone else to answer the call. If call hunting fails because all the hunting options are exhausted or because a timeout period expires, the call can be sent to a personalized destination for the person who was originally called. For example, if you set the Forward No Coverage field in the Directory Number Configuration page to a voice-mail number, the call will be sent to the voice mailbox of that person if hunting fails.

QUESTION 5
Which three are functions of Cisco Unified Border Element? 300-070 dumps (Choose three.)
A. client registration
B. H.323 and SIP interworking
C. Lync interworking
D. transcoding
E. phone proxy
F. mobile and remote access
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 6
Which configuration output indicates a properly configured T1 digital voice interface?
A. controller T1 0/0/0framing esflinecode b8zspri-group timeslots 1-24!
B. isdn switch-type primary-ni!controller T1 0/0/0framing esflinecode b8zs!
C. isdn switch-type primary-ni!controller T1 0/0/0framing esflinecode b8zspri-group timeslots 1-24isdn switch-type primary-ni!
D. isdn switch-type primary-ni!controller T1 0/0/0framing esflinecode b8zs!dial-peer voice 1 potsdestination-pattern 54….direction-inward.dialport 0/0/0:23
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
300-070 dumps
Which option is the most highly recommended option to install Cisco TelePresence Conductor on the virtual machine?
A. Thick Provision Eager Zeroed
B. Thick Provision Lazy Zeroed
C. Thick Provision
D. Thin Provision
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Callers inform you that they hear a second dial tone after dialing the number 4085550123. Which dial-peer configuration command resolves this issue?
A. answer-address 408555….
B. destination-pattern 91[2-9]..[2-9]…..
C. forwarddigits all
D. direct-inwarddial
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
An organization has built their video infrastructure to perform ad hoc video calls, but they also need to conduct managed video conference calls. Which hardware component is needed to conduct these calls?
A. VCS-E
B. IOS gateway
C. MCU
D. TelePresence server
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which command is used to enter the DSP farm profile configuration mode?
A. dspfarm-profile 100 transcode
B. dspfarmprofile 100 transcode
C. dspfarm profile 100 transcode
D. dspfarm 100 profile transcode
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Refer to Exhibit:
300-070 dumps
If the user at extension 1001 dials the user at extension 2002, which dial peer is used to route the call?
A. 3
B. 2
C. 4
D. 1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
You are a Network Engineer at ABC Company. You want to ensure that when the contact center agent for the company makes an external call, the extension 897 654 300 is displayed. How do you resolve this issue?
A. Configure a Line Text Label on the Directory Number configuration page.
B. Configure an external phone number mask on the Directory Number configuration page.
C. Configure a translation pattern with the pattern 897654300.
D. Configure an external phone number mask on the Device configuration page.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which three CLI commands allow you to verify the correct VoIP dial-peer matching? 300-070 dumps (Choose three.)
A. debug ccsip messages
B. debug voip ccapi inout
C. debug dialpeer match
D. debug voip dialpeer inout
E. show dialplan number
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit and configuration output.
300-070 dumps
A user in New York (5001) is trying to call a user in London (6001), but the call cannot be completed. Assuming that the WAN uplink is failing and the voice traffic has to go out toward the PSTN, which command do you need to add to dial peer to solve this issue?
dial-peer voice 3 pots
destination-pattern 6…
preference 1
port 0/0/0:23
dtmf-relay sip-notify
A. num-exp 512602 6001
B. prefix 757385
C. forward-digits 2
D. forward-digits 4
E. prefix 5126
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which two of these describe where phone services can appear on an IP phone and who can subscribe to phone services? (Choose two.)
A. end user
B. administrator
C. end user and administrator
D. Services button
E. Services and Directories buttons
F. Services, Directories, and Messages buttons
Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.
300-070 dumps
A Cisco Unified Communications Manager group is configured with the subscriber (10.1.5.3) listed first and the publisher (10.1.5.2) listed second. Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager is used for incoming calls through an MGCP gateway?
A. the publisher
B. both the publisher and subscriber in a round-robin format
C. the first server listed in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager group list
D. the subscriber
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which two of the following DSPs can be used in heterogeneous conferencing to achieve the required trans-sizing and transcoding functionality? (Choose two.)
A. PVDM3-256
B. PVDM2-256
C. PVDM-192
D. PVDM3-32
E. PVDM3-192
F. PVDM2-128
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 18
Managers have asked to be able to have an extension call them back if it is busy when they try to call it. In what two places can this feature be assigned to the Managers phone? (Choose two.)
A. Device Settings > Softkey Template
B. Device Settings > Default Device Profile Configuration
C. Device Settings > Phone Button Template
D. Device Settings > Device Profile
E. Device Settings > Device Defaults
F. Device Settings > Firmware Load Information
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 19
Which three elements are used to configure calling privileges? (Choose three)
A. Route pattern.
B. Calling search space.
C. Replica.
D. User.
E. Partition
F. Time schedule.
Correct Answer: BEF

QUESTION 20
Which two statements describe the function of the off-net option in a route pattern? (Choose two.)
A. The off-net option indicates that if a call is not routed through this route pattern, it is considered off the local network, or “off-net”.
B. This option could be used to block an external call from transferring to an internal party.
C. This option could be used to block an external call from transferring to an external party.
D. The off-net option indicates that if a call is routed through this route pattern, it is considered off the local network, or “off-net.”
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 21
What are two characteristics that are associated with the End User and User account types? (Choose two.)
A. They cannot use LDAP.
B. They are used to authorize applications.
C. They can utilize LDAP.
D. The Application is associated with the End User and User account types.
E. They can be listed in a directory.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 22
Refer to Exhibit:
300-070 dumps
If the user at extension 1001 dials the user at extension 2111, which dial peer is used to route the call?
A. 3
B. 2
C. 4
D. 1
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Refer to the exhibit. Bob has set his phone to forward calls to extension 5000. When a call is placed to extension 2000, which phone will ring?
300-070 dumps
A. Phone A
B. Phone B
C. Phone C
D. Phone D
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
Which two options are resources in a route list that route calls that match a defined route pattern? 300-070 dumps (Choose two.)
A. gateways
B. route groups
C. virtual machine servers
D. IP phones
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 25
Which statement about a partition is true?
A. A partition is a logical group of transformation patterns with similar accessibility characteristics.
B. A partition is a group of gateways with similar accessibility characteristics.
C. A partition is a logical group of directory numbers with similar accessibility characteristics.
D. A partition is a logical group of route patterns with similar accessibility characteristics.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
Which statement about translation patterns and transformation patterns is true?
A. Both transformation patterns and translations patterns support only numeric values.
B. Both transformation patterns and translations patterns support numeric and alphanumeric values.
C. Transformation patterns support numeric and alphanumeric values, whereas translations patterns supportonly numeric values.
D. Translation patterns support numeric and alphanumeric values, whereas transformation patterns supportonly numeric values.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
Which three Cisco Unified Communications Manager settings can be used to support IP phone services? (Choose three.)
A. Device Defaults
B. Enterprise Parameters
C. IP Phone Service Configuration window
D. Common Phone Profile
E. Service Parameters
F. Phone Configuration window
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 28
Refer to the exhibit.
300-070 dumps
A Network Administrator needs to create a SIP route pattern to communicate with Monterrey’s Gateway. The Administrator does not understand why this is not working properly. Which two statements explain the issue and resolve the problem? (Choose two.)
A. The Administrator needs to set up a SIP trunk between Monterrey’s Gateway and Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
B. The Administrator should type the reload command into Monterrey’s Gateway
C. The issue is caused by a failure of communication between the Monterrey’s Gateway and Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
D. The issue is caused by incorrect protocol integration between Monterrey’s Gateway and Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 29
If the route patterns 5XXX, 51XX, 513X and 5134 exist within a call route database, which pattern would be matched if the dialed number was 5324?
A. 5XXX
B. 51XX
C. 513X
D. 5134
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
You are a Voice Engineer at ABC Company. You want to provision a new voice gateway for a remote site, and you need to configure 24 channels of a T1 CAS interface. Which set is the correct set of commands for this configuration?
A. R1(config)# controller t1 1/0R1(config-controller)# framing esfR1(config-controller)# linecode b8zsR1(config-controller)# primary-group 1 timeslot 1-24 type fxo-loop-start
B. R1(config)# controller t1 1/0R1(config-controller)# linecode hdb3R1(config-controller)# framing crc4R1(config-controller)# clock source lineR1(config-controller)# ds0-group 1 timeslot 1-24 type fxo-loop-start
C. R1(config)# isdn switch-type primary-5essR1(config)# controller t1 t1/0R1(config- controller)# pri-group timeslots 1-24
D. R1(config)# controller t1 1/0R1(config-controller)# framing esfR1(config-controller)# linecode b8zsR1(config-controller)# clock source lineR1(config-controller)# ds0-group 1 timeslot 1-24 type fxo-loop-start
Correct Answer: D

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The Best CompTIA Cloud Essentials CV0-001 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (Q1-Q40)

QUESTION 1
An administrator is troubleshooting the cause of multiple VMs which are suddenly going offline. Which of the following is the FIRST step in troubleshooting the issue?
A. Review LUN configurations for errors
B. Review Fibre Channel zoning configuration
C. Review system logs on the host
D. Review VM OS multipathing software configuration
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A system administrator is planning storage infrastructure to store backup copies of virtual machines that are at least 5GB in size. Which of the following file systems can be used in this scenario? (Select TWO).
A. SMB
B. RAW
C. EXT
D. FAT
E. NTFS
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 3
Which of the following may be used prior to encryption of information stored in a database if only weak encryption algorithms are allowed?
A. LUN Masking
B. Obfuscation
C. Access Control Lists
D. Hashing
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which of the following provides a secure tunnel through the Internet?
A. DMZ
B. IDS
C. ACL
D. VPN
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which of the following describes the access control method where data owners authorize who is granted access to their files?
A. Mandatory access control
B. Role-based access control
C. Access control list
D. Discretionary access control
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
A storage system that retains data in a flat address space is known as:
A. A hierarchical file system.
B. A NAS.
C. A DAS.
D. An OSD.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Joe, an administrator, is experiencing connectivity problems with a new VM. Joe is able to ping the gateway, however he is unable to ping the hostname of another VM on the subnet. Which of the following tools should be used NEXT when troubleshooting?
A. ipconfig
B. packet sniffer
C. nslookup
D. netstat
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
CV0-001 dumps Which of the following is bridged and sends packets on the wire with its own unique MAC address?
A. Virtual PBX
B. Virtual Switches
C. VLAN
D. Virtual NIC
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which of the following components should be virtualized and added to cloud infrastructure to ensure virtual servers are only able to access the volumes assigned to them?
A. NAS
B. DAS
C. LUN
D. HBA
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
A user is notified that they will be terminated at the end of the day. As they start cleaning up their workstation, they try to FTP information from their workstation to a cloud-based, personal backup solution. Which of the following hardening techniques would be used to restrict their ability to transfer this information via FTP?
A. Antivirus
B. NIPS
C. NIDS
D. Host-based firewall
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which of the following detection controls can be used to identify an unauthorized individual who accessed a remote network share?
A. Obfuscation
B. Authentication
C. Log review
D. LUN masking
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
The corporate security department is recommending that the administrator deploys Type I hypervisor versus Type II.
Which of the following is a security concern in regards to deploying a Type II hypervisor?
A. Human error
B. Performance benchmarks
C. Additional software
D. Administration time
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
In order to enhance security on a SAN, which of the following should be configured?
A. ZFS
B. LUN
C. VSAN
D. Zoning
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
A JBOD is being monitored and an administrator notices that a high number of writes occur in short timeframes in the last 24 hours. Which of the following BEST describes this issue?
A. I/O bursting
B. I/O throttling
C. I/O threshold
D. I/O saturation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
The Chief Information Officer (CIO) tells the IT department that all non business critical production applications can be down for no more than 48 hours. Which of the following has the CIO defined?
A. Failback
B. RPO
C. RTO
D. Failover
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which of the following is the BEST means of ensuring resource utilization remains even across the hosts?
A. Resource pooling
B. VM affinity
C. Dynamic VM placement
D. VM high availability
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Which of the following are VM template hardening techniques? CV0-001 dumps (Select TWO).
A. Joining a domain
B. IP address configuration
C. Deactivating default accounts
D. OS patching
E. Disabling all ports and services
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 18
An administrator wants to repurpose server hardware to host hypervisors. The administrator must FIRST:
A. install the hypervisor on the bare metal servers.
B. check the server\’s configuration against the hardware vendor\’s HCL.
C. check the server\’s configuration against the hypervisor vendor\’s HCL.
D. install the OS and then enable the hypervisor function.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Encryption ensures which of the following? (Select TWO).
A. Access control
B. Data loss
C. Confidentiality
D. Authentication
E. Data integrity
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 20
Which of the following tables would an administrator use to find a list of paths to network nodes?
A. Port table
B. VPN tagging
C. ARP table
D. Route table
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 21
Which of the following is often used by a certificate to keep the contents of the page confidential?
A. 3DES
B. AES
C. RSA
D. RC4
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Which of the following is a subcomponent of a virtual machine?
A. Virtual switch
B. Virtual HBA
C. Virtual shield
D. Virtual OS
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 23
Which of the following, in conjunction with IPSec, can be configured to provide secure access to files on a NAS?
A. iSCSI
B. CIFS
C. FCoE
D. SSH
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
Several clients hosted on a cluster, is BEST referred to as:
A. IaaS.
B. PaaS.
C. multi-tenancy.
D. on-premise hosting.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
New servers were purchased specifically for virtualization capabilities. However, the hypervisor of choice cannot find compatible processors on the new servers. Which of the following would a system administrator MOST likely need to configure to enable virtualization features for these systems?
A. IPMI
B. RAM
C. BIOS
D. HBAs
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
Which of the following is a disk interface type that has the BEST performance?
A. NAS
B. SAN
C. SAS
D. SSD
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
An administrator has implemented a self-service provisioning portal in the company and has associated a cost to CPU, memory, storage, and OS type. Which of the following cloud computing options has been configured?
A. Cloud bursting
B. Chargeback
C. Multi-tenancy
D. Reservations
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 28
Which of the following is the BEST answer for implementing a feature that will remove a single point of failure between a SAN and host?
A. MPLS
B. MTBF
C. MTU
D. MPIO
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 29
An administrator has configured a cluster but one of the VMs returns an error when attempting to automatically fail-over to another host in the cluster. CV0-001 dumps Which of the following should be verified?
A. All VLANs have been tagged
B. Datacenter bridging has been configured
C. All hosts are in the same virtual network
D. Multipathing has been configured on the virtual network
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 30
Which of the following network terms describes the process of grouping similar traffic on a network?
A. VLAN tagging
B. Virtual switches
C. Supernetting
D. Route tables
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 31
A company has decided to reduce their datacenter size. An administrator for the company has been tasked to virtualize many of the company\’s servers. Which of the following should the administrator perform to accomplish this goal?
A. P2V
B. P2P
C. V2P
D. V2V
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 32
Which of the following protocols allows fibre channel to be transmitted over the network?
A. HBA
B. FCoE
C. NFS
D. iSCSI
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 33
Users have been reporting slow response times on a database server. The administrator noticed the server at any given time has between 30 to 50 users connected to various databases. Additional research shows disk metrics such as disk queuing and disk access rates are both around 10% to 15%. Which of the following can be the root cause of this slow performing server?
A. The CPU time reservation is small.
B. The swap disk space is small.
C. The server has fewer resources than required.
D. I/O tuning is disabled.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 34
An administrator is responsible for maintenance and support of servers in the cloud environment. There are over 500 virtual servers spanning across ten physical hosts. The administrator deploys a new application server. The administrator allocated the appropriate virtual resources for the application. Users report slow response after the new server was deployed. Which of the following is the cause of this issue?
A. Storage allocation on the guest OS
B. Resource pooling mis-configuration
C. Application licensing expiration
D. Data segregation on the host OS
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 35
Which of the following can be used to encrypt data at rest on a VM located in the cloud?
A. AES
B. SSL
C. TLS
D. VPN
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 36
A company has five servers and wishes to consolidate into a single physical server. Which of the following migration methods would accomplish this?
A. P2P
B. V2P
C. V2V
D. P2V
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 37
A new host has been bought to be a part of a new cluster. The purchase order specifies this server has four physical CPUs with eight cores each. After the administrator boots the host, there are only 24 logical processors available for VM allocation. Which of the following BEST describes this problem?
A. The server requires a firmware upgrade to version 8.2
B. The BIOS does not have virtualization support features completely enabled
C. The virtualization license is not the enterprise edition
D. A CPU is dead on arrival or disabled on the motherboard
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 38
A corporate office allows employees to work remotely, using their personal computers to access network resources through a browser-based gateway. Which of the following settings should be applied to the virtualized application running on the gateway to reduce the risk of company information being transferred to employees\’ personal machines?
A. Disable the ability to copy and paste
B. Encrypt the employees\’ personal computer hard drives and disable the ability to paste
C. Encrypt the employees\’ personal computer hard drives and disable the ability to print
D. Disable the ability to paste and read
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 39
CV0-001 dumps Which of the following is typically the BEST boundary controller in a private cloud implementation?
A. CSP security
B. VPN
C. SSL
D. Firewall
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 40
Which of the following cloud services would MOST likely be used to deliver web applications?
A. IaaS
B. DaaS
C. SaaS
D. PaaS
Correct Answer: C

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High Quality Cisco CCDP 300-115 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers Update (Q7-Q30)

QUESTION 7
Which option is the minimum frame size for an 802.1Q frame?
A. 64 bytes
B. 68 bytes
C. 1518 bytes
D. 1522 bytes
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
After UDLD is implemented, a NetworkAdministrator noticed that one port stops receiving UDLD packets. This port continues to reestablish until after eight failed retries. The port then transitions into the errdisable state.
Which option describes what causes the port to go into the errdisable state?
A. Normal UDLD operations that prevent traffic loops.
B. UDLD port is configured in aggressive mode.
C. UDLD is enabled globally.
D. UDLD timers are inconsistent.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Interfaces are assigned to a VLAN, and then the VLAN is deleted. Which state are these interfaces in after the VLAN is deleted?
A. They remain up, but they are reassigned to the default VLAN.
B. They go down until they are reassigned to a VLAN.
C. They go down, but they are reassigned to the default VLAN.
D. They remainup, but they are reassigned to the native VLAN.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
Which option is the most likely explanation of the duplicate address message logged?
A. spanning-tree loop
B. HSRP misconfiguration
C. a PC with IP of 10.10.1.1
D. a hardware problem
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
300-115 dumps Which statement about the use of SDM templates in a Cisco switch is true?
A. SDMtemplates are used to configure system resources in the switch to optimize support for specific features, depending on how the switch is used in the network.
B. SDM templates are used to create Layer 3 interfaces (switch virtual interfaces) to permit hostsin one VLAN to communicate with hosts in another VLAN.
C. SDM templates are used to configure ACLs that protect networks and specific hosts from unnecessary or unwanted traffic.
D. SDM templates are used to configure a set of ACLs that allows the users tomanage the flow of traffic handled by the route processor.
E. SDM templates are configured by accessing the switch using the web interface.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
How does VTP pruning enhance network bandwidth?
A. by restricting unicast traffic across VTP domains
B. by reducing unnecessary flooding of traffic to inactive VLANs
C. by limitingthe spreading of VLAN information
D. by disabling periodic VTP updates
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
When using EtherChannel misconfiguration guard, which technology is used to prevent this type of misconfiguration from affecting the network?
A. STP
B. port security
C. LACP
D. PAgP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
After anEtherChannel is configured between two Cisco switches, interface port channel 1 is in the down/down state.
Switch A is configured with channel-group 1 mode active, while Switch B is configured with channel-group 1 mode desirable.
Why is the EtherChannel bundle not working?
A. The switches are using mismatched EtherChannel negotiation modes.
B. The switch ports are not configured in trunking mode.
C. LACP priority must be configured on both switches.
D. The channel group identifier must be different for Switch A and Switch B.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which feature describes MAC addresses that are dynamically learned or manually configured, stored in theaddress table, and added to the running configuration?
A. sticky
B. dynamic
C. static
D. secure
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Which database is used to determine the validity of an ARP packet based on a valid IP-to- MAC address binding?
A. DHCP snooping database
B. dynamic ARP database
C. dynamic routing database
D. static ARP database
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
A network engineer changed the port speed and duplex setting of an existing EtherChannel bundle that uses the PAgP protocol. Which statement describes what happens to all ports in the bundle?
A. PAgP changes the port speed and duplex for all ports in the bundle.
B. PAgP drops the ports that do not match the configuration.
C. PAgP does not change the port speed and duplex for all ports in the bundle until the switch is rebooted.
D. PAgP changes the port speed but notthe duplex for all ports in the bundle.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
You want to configure a switched internetwork with multiple VLANs as shown above. Which of the following commands should you issue on SwitchA for the port connected to SwitchB? (Select the best answer.)
300-115 dumps
A. switchport mode trunk
B. switchport access vlan 5
C. switchport mode access vlan 5
D. switchport trunk native vlan 5
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Routers R1 and R2 are configured for HSRP as shown below:
Router R1: interface ethernet 0 ip address 20.6.2.1 255.255.255.0 standby 35 ip 20.6.2.21 standby 35 priority 100 interface ethernet 1 ip address 20.6.1.1.2 255.255.255.0 standby 34 ip 20.6.1.21 Router R2: interface ethernet 0 ip address 20.6.2.2 255.255.255.0 standby 35 ip 20.6.2.21 interface ethernet 1 ip address 20.6.1.1.1 255.255.255.0 standby 34 ip 20.6.1.21 standby 34 priority 100 You have configured the routers R1 andamp;R2 with HSRP. 300-115 dumps While debugging router R2 you notice very frequent HSRP group state transitions. What is the most likely cause of this?
A. physical layer issues
B. no spanning tree loops
C. use of non-default HSRP timers
D. failure to set the command standby 35 preempt
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which technique automatically limits VLAN traffic to only the switches that require it?
A. access lists
B. DTP in nonegotiate
C. VTP pruning
D. PBR
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
Whichfour LACP components are used to determine which hot-standby links become active after an interface failure within an EtherChannel bundle? (Choose four.)
A. LACP system priority
B. LACP port priority
C. interface MAC address
D. system ID
E. port number
F. hot-standby link identification number
G. interface bandwidth
Correct Answer: ABDE

QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
Which configuration ensures that the Cisco Discovery Protocol packet update frequency sent from DSW1 to ALS1 is half of the default value?
A. DSW1(config)#cdp timer 90
B. DSW1(config-if)#cdp holdtime 60
C. DSW1(config)#cdp timer 30
D. DSW1(config)#cdp holdtime 90
E. DSW1(config-if)#cdp holdtime 30
F. DSW1(config-if)#cdp timer 60
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
It a switch stack is configured to used SDM templates, where are the templates stored?
A. stack master
B. TFTP server
C. flash memory
D. all stack members
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Ferris Plastics, Inc. is a medium sized company, with an enterprise network (access, distribution andcore switches) that provides LAN connectivity from user PCs to corporate servers. The distribution switches are configured to use HSRP to provide a high availability solution.
– DSW1 -primary device for VLAN 101 VLAN 102 and VLAN 105
– DSW2 – primarydevice for VLAN 103 and VLAN 104
A failure of GigabitEthemet1/0/1 on primary device should cause the primary device to release its status as the primary device, unless GigabitEthernet1/0/1 on backup device has also failed.
Troubleshooting hasidentified several issues. Currently all interfaces are up. Using the running configurations and show commands, you have been asked to investigate and respond to the following question.
300-115 dumps
300-115 dumps
300-115 dumps
During routine maintenance, it became necessary to shut down the GigabitEthernet1/0/1 interface on DSW1. All other interfaces were up. During this time, DSW1 remained the active device for the VLAN 102 HSRP group. You have determined that there is an issue with the decrement value in the track command for the VLAN102 HSRP group. What needs to be done to make the group function properly?
A. The decrement value on DSW1 should be greaterthan 5 and less than 15. 0
B. The decrement value on DSW1 should be greaterthan 9 and less than 15.
C. The decrement value on DSW1should be greaterthan 11 and less than 19.
D. The decrement value on DSWTs should be greaterthan 190 and less than 200.
E. The decrement value on DSWTs should be greaterthan 195 and less than 205.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
VLAN maps have been configured on switch R1. 300-115 dumps Which of the following actions are taken in a VLAN map that does not contain a match clause?
A. Implicit deny feature at end of list.
B. Implicit denyfeature at start of list.
C. Implicit forward feature at end of list
D. Implicit forward feature at start of list.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
Users of PC-1 experience slow connection when a webpage is requested from the server. To increase bandwidth, the network engineer configured an EtherChannel on interfaces Fa1/0 and Fa0/1 of the server farm switch, as shown here:
Server_Switch#sh etherchannel load-balance
EtherChannel Load-Balancing Operational State (src-mac):
Non-IP: Source MAC address
IPv4: Source MAC address
IPv6: Source IP address
Server_Switch#
However,traffic is still slow. Which action can the engineer take to resolve this issue?
A. Disable EtherChannel load balancing.
B. Upgrade the switch IOS to IP services image.
C. Change the load-balance method to dst-mac.
D. Contact Cisco TAC to report a bug onthe switch.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Which two statements about SPAN source and destination ports during an active session are true? (Choose two.)
A. The source port can be only an Ethernet physical port.
B. The source port can be monitored in multiple SPAN sessions.
C. Thedestination port can be destination in multiple SPAN sessions.
D. The destination port does not participate in STP.
E. You can mix individual source ports and source VLANs within a single session.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 28
Which two statements about the HSRP priority are true? (Choose two)
A. To assign the HSRP router priority in a standby group, the standby group-number priority priority-value global configuration command must be used.
B. The default priority of a router is zero (0).
C. The no standby priority command assigns a priority of 100 to the router.
D. Assuming that preempting has also been configured, the router with the lowest priority in an HSRP group would become the active router.
E. When two routers in an HSRP standby group are configured with identical priorities, the router with the highest configured IP address will become the active router.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 29
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
Which statement about switch S1 is true?
A. Physical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 2 port-channel interface using an open standard protocol.
B. Logical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 2 physical port- channel interface using a Cisco proprietary protocol.
C. Physical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 3 port-channel interface using a Cisco proprietary protocol.
D. Logical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 3 physical port- channel interface using an open standard protocol.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Refer to the exhibit. What is the result of setting GLBP weighting at 105 with lower threshold 90 and upper threshold 100 on this router?
300-115 dumps
A. Only if both tracked objects are up will this router will be available as an AVF for group 1.
B. Only if the state of both tracked objects goes down will this router release its status as an AVF for group 1.
C. If both tracked objects go down and then one comes up, but the other remains down, this router will be available as an AVF for group 1.
D. This configuration is incorrect and will not have any effect on GLBP operation.
E. If the state of one tracked object goes down then this router will release its status as an AVF for group 1.
Correct Answer: B

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Latest Cisco CCDA 200-310 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (31-60)

QUESTION 31
What IPv4 addressing technique is used for proper address planning to reduce the number of entries in a routing table?
A. Filtering
B. Tunneling
C. Summarization
D. Translation
E. Supernetting
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 32
When designing the threat detection and mitigation portion for the enterprise data center network, which of the following would be the most appropriate solution to consider?
A. 802.1x
B. ACL in the Core layer
C. Cisco Security MARS
D. Cisco Firewall Services Module
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
What three considerations should be taken into account when selecting a routing protocol? (Choose three.)
A. Classful routing
B. Scalability
C. Default route origination
D. Multi vendor support
E. Link load balancing
F. Hop count
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 34
Which network access control technology is recommended to use with Layer 2 access layer switches?
A. 802.1q
B. 802.1x
C. 802.3af
D. 802.3q
E. 802.11n
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 35
What is the primary advantage of implementing a wireless LAN controller in a wireless LAN design?
A. Roaming between APs
B. RADIUS user authentication
C. Radio resource management
D. accelerated data transfer
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 36
Which option is a benefit of Cisco Discovery Protocol? 200-310 dumps
A. Provides information about directly connected Cisco devices
B. Provides greater detail about collected data, including time stamping
C. Combines with the network layer data that is gathered by NetFlow when using a NetFlow collector
D. Part of the IEEE 802.1ab standard
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 37
Which two statements best describe an OSPF deployment? (Choose two.)
A. ABR provides automatic classful network boundary summarization
B. ABR requires manual configuration for classful network summarization
C. External routes are propagated into the autonomous system from stub areas via ASBR
D. External routes are propagated into the autonomous system from regular areas or NSSA via ASBR
E. External routes are propagated into the autonomous system from regular areas or NSSA via ABR
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 38
A dynamically routed private line and a statically routed IPsec tunnel connect two offices.
What routing configuration prefers the IPsec tunnel only in the event of a private line failure?
A. Floating static entry
B. EIGRP variance
C. Bandwidth metric
D. OSPF maximum path
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 39
A network engineer has finished designing and implementing a new network. What two protocols would they use to gain insight into the network and determine the components that require optimization? (Choose two.)
A. CDP
B. NetFlow
C. ICMP Echo
D. NMAP
E. SNMP
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 40
What is the key limitation of using Internet circuits as a backup to a private enterprise WAN?
A. Circuit bandwidth
B. Prioritization
C. Security
D. Operational expense
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 41
Which protocol is used for voice bearer traffic?
A. MGCP
B. RTP
C. SCCP
D. CDP
E. ICMP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 42
Which two enterprise campus layers are combined in a medium-sized LAN? (Choose two.)
A. Core
B. Distribution
C. Access
D. Backbone
E. Aggregation
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 43
200-310 dumps
A network engineer at a technical call center receives a call from a customer complaining that only 56 kbps of data can be transferred over the T1 Frame Relay WAN circuit at a remote site. 200-310 dumps The engineer checks the Frame Relay switch and confirms that only 56 kbps is being transferred over the circuit. The engineer requests the router configuration of the customer headquarters site router.
What is causing this issue to occur?
A. The wrong CIR is configured
B. The BECN configuration is causing this issue
C. The class name is spelled wrong under the interface
D. The wrong DLCI number is assigned to the interface
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 44
Which WAN technology is a cost-effective method to deliver 100Mb of bandwidth to multiple branch offices?
A. DSL
B. DWDM
C. ISDN
D. Metro Ethernet
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 45
Which IP telephony component supports VoIP, PoE, and QoS?
A. Client Endpoints
B. Voice-enabled infrastructure
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D. Cisco Unified Contact Center
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 46
What two SAN protocols will allow a customer to utilize 10GbE for SAN access? (Choose two.)
A. iSCSI
B. FCoE C. SATA
D. Fiber Channel
E. AoE
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 47
200-310 dumps
Which configuration can be used to implement FHRP protocol and load balancing at the same time?
A. R1 interface Ethernet0 ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0 standby 1 preempt standby 1 ip 171.16.6.100 standby 1 track Serial0 standby 2 preempt standby 2 ip 171.16.6.200 standby 2 track Serial0 standby 2 priority 95 ! R2 interface Ethernet0 ip address 171.16.6.6 255.255.255.0 standby 1 preempt standby 1 ip 171.16.6.100 standby 1 track Serial0 standby 2 preempt standby 2 ip 171.16.6.200 standby 2 track Serial0
B. R1 interface Ethernet0 ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0 standby 1 preempt standby 1 ip 171.16.6.100 standby 1 track Serial0 standby 1 priority 95 ! R2 interface Ethernet0 ip address 171.16.6.6 255.255.255.0 standby 1 preempt standby 1 ip 171.16.6.100 standby 1 track Serial0 standby 1 priority 95
C. R1 interface Ethernet0 ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0 standby 1 preempt standby 1 ip 171.16.6.100 standby 1 track Serial0 standby 1 priority 95 standby 2 preempt standby 2 ip 171.16.6.200
standby 2 track Serial0
standby 2 priority 95
!
R2
interface Ethernet0
ip address 171.16.6.6 255.255.255.0
standby 1 preempt
standby 1 ip 171.16.6.100
standby 1 track Serial0
standby 2 preempt
standby 2 ip 171.16.6.200
standby 2 track Serial0
D. R1 interface Ethernet0 ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0 standby 1 preempt standby 1 ip 171.16.6.100 standby 1 track Serial0 standby 1 priority 95 ! R2 interface Ethernet0 ip address 171.16.6.6 255.255.255.0 standby 1 preempt standby 1 ip 171.16.6.100
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 48
What business trend allows employees to use personal devices to access enterprise data and systems?
A. ISE
B. BYOD
C. SAN
D. IOE
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 49
Which two of the following are benefits of using a modular approach to network design? (Choose two.)
A. Improve flexibility
B. Facilitates implementation
C. Lowers implementation costs
D. Improves customer participation in the design process
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 50
Which two states are RSTP port states? (Choose two.)
A. Discarding
B. Learning
C. Blocking
D. Listening
E. Disabled
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 51
Which two statements about designing the Enterprise Data Center Access submodule are correct? (Choose two)
A. Multiport NIC servers should each have their own IP address
B. Layer 3 connectivity should never be used in the access layer
C. Layer 2 connectivity is primarily implemented in the access layer
D. Multiport NIC servers should never be used in the access layer
E. Layer 2 clustering implementation requires servers to be Layer 2 adjacent
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 52
Which type of structure consists of the addressing, routing protocols, QoS, and security components?
A. Logical
B. Physical
C. Layered
D. Virtual
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 53
When designing for a remote worker, which two are typical requirements? 200-310 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Best-effort interactive and low-volume traffic patterns
B. Connections to the enterprise edge using Layer 2 WAN technologies
C. Always-on connection with SLA from ISP
D. Voice and IPsec VPN support
E. High-end security devices with stateful firewall filtering
F. Dual or multihoming to ISPs
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 54
What is the recommended spanning tree protocol to use for all Layer 2 deployments in a branch office environment?
A. CST
B. RSPT
C. PVST
D. MISTP
E. Rapid PVST+
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 55
Why would an engineer implement variable length subnet masks?
A. To make a subnet public
B. To prevent wasting IP addresses
C. To make a subnet its own VLAN
D. To expand an existing subnet
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 56
When is the Cisco FlexConnect design model recommended?
A. When remote-site APs are centrally managed
B. When each remote site has its own wireless controller
C. When each remote site runs VSS
D. When the remote sites use WAN optimization
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 57
What three primary sources of information are needed to perform a network audit? (Choose three.)
A. Existing documentation
B. New documentation
C. Existing network management software
D. New network management tools
E. Management personnel
F. Technical personnel
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 58
What are the three models that are required in the systematic approach of the top-down design methodology? (Choosethree.)
A. Logical
B. Physical
C. Layered
D. Network components
E. Technological
F. Protocols
G. Virtual
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 59
Your supervisor has asked you to deploy a routing protocol within the lab environment that will allow for unequal cost multipath routing. Which should you choose?
A. EIGRP
B. OSPF
C. IS-IS
D. RIP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 60
A company would like to distribute a VM hosting cluster between three data centers with the capability to move VMs between sites. The connectivity between data centers is IP only, and the new design should use existing WAN.
Which layer 2 tunneling technology should be used?
A. VPLS
B. L2TPv3
C. OTV
D. AToM
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
You need to recommend a solution that meets the technical requirements for DHCP.
What should you include in the recommendation for each office?
A. DHCP failover
B. Network Load Balancing (NLB)
C. DHCP server policies
D. IP Address Management (IPAM)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
You need to recommend a solution for updating the virtualization hosts. The solution must meet the visualization requirements.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Cluster-Aware Updating
B. WSUS
C. System Center Updates Publisher 2011
D. System Center 2012 Configuration Manager
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
You need to ensure that the developers can manage their own virtual machines.
Solution: You perform the following tasks:
– In Virtual Machine Manager, you create a new user role named DevUsers that uses the Application Administrator profile.
– You add the virtual machines to the DevUsers role.
– You grant Checkpoint permissions to the DevUsers role.
– You install and configure App Controller.
– You distribute the App Controller console URL to the developers.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 20 servers that run Windows Server 2012. The domain contains a Microsoft System Center 2012 infrastructure. A web application named WebApp1 is installed on the 20 servers. 70-414 dumps
You plan to deploy a custom registry key for WebApp1 on the 20 servers. You need to deploy the registry key to the 20 servers. The solution must ensure that you can verify whether the registry key was applied successfully to the servers.
What should you do? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. From Operations Manager, create a monitor.
B. From the Group Policy Management console, create a Group Policy object (GPO).
C. From Configuration Manager, create a Compliance Settings.
D. From Orchestrator Runbook Designer, create a runbook.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
HOTSPOT
You plan to configure Windows Network Load Balancing (NLB) for a company. You display following Network Load Balancing Manager window:
70-414 dumps
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that answers each question based on the information presented in the graphic.
Hot Area:
70-414 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-414 dumps
QUESTION 6
You need to automatically restart the appropriate web service on DETCRL01 and CHICRL01 if the web service is stopped.
Solution: You create a diagnostic task in SCOM and configure it to start the Server service.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You currently have an intranet web site that is hosted by two Web servers named Web1 and Web2. Web1 and Web2 run Windows Server 2012.
Users use the name intranet.contoso.com to request the web site and use DNS round robin.
You plan to implement the Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature on Web1 and Web2.
You need to recommend changes to the DNS records for the planned implementation.
What should you recommend?
A. Delete one of the host (A) records named Intranet. Modify the remaining host (A) record named Intranet.
B. Delete both host (A) records named Intranet. Create a pointer (PTR) record for each Web server.
C. Create a new host (A) record named Intranet. Remove both host (A) records for Web1 and Web2.
D. Create a service locator (SRV) record. Map the SRV record to Intranet.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
You need to recommend changes to the existing environment to meet the PII requirement.
What should you recommend?
A. In the Default Domain Policy, configure auto-enrollment for the S/MIME certificates from ProsewareCA.
B. Create an AD RMS cluster in Proseware, and then provision the user accounts in Proseware for the Fabrikam users.
C. Configure Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) in Fabrikam, and then install a web application proxy in Proseware.
D. In the Default Domain Policy, configure auto-enrollment for the S/MIME certificates from FabrikamCA.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
You need to recommend a network configuration for the newly deployed Hyper-V hosts used by Customer1.
On which network adapter should you recommend performing each configuration? 70-414 dumps To answer, select the appropriate network adapter for each configuration in the answer area.
70-414 dumps
Hot Area:
70-414 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-414 dumps
QUESTION 10
You need to recommend a solution to maintain a copy of App2. The solution must meet the application requirements and must minimize additional hardware purchases.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Single-site Failover Clustering
B. Hyper-V replicas
C. Multi-site Failover Clustering
D. Distributed File System (DFS) Replication
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
You need to recommend which type of clustered file server and which type of file share must be used in the Hyper-V cluster that hosts App2. The solution must meet the technical requirements and the security requirements.
What should you recommend?
A. A scale-out file server that uses an NFS share
B. A file server that uses an SMB share
C. A scale-out file server that uses an SMB share
D. A file server that uses an NFS share
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
You install the Service Manager Self-Service Portal on a server named CONTOSOSSP1.
Users report that they receive access denied messages when they try to connect to the portal. You must grant users the minimum required permissions. 70-414 dumps
You need to ensure that all users in the Contoso domain can access the Service Manager Self-Service Portal.
What should you do?
A. In Active Directory, create a new group named PortalUsers. Add the PortalUsers group to the Contoso\Domain Users group, and then add the group to the local users group on CONTOSOSSP1.
B. Using the account that you used to install the Self-Service portal, grant the Contoso\Domain Users group Read permissions to the portal.
C. In Service Manager, create a new user role named PortalUsers. Grant the PortalUsers role rights to all catalog items, and then add the Contoso\Domain Users Active Directory Domain Services group to the PortalUsers role.
D. Using the account that you used to install the Self-Serviceportal, grant the Contoso\Domain Users group Contribute permissions to the portal.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The network contains a server named Server1 that has the Hyper-V server role installed. Server1 hosts a virtual machine named VM1.
You deploy a new standalone server named Server2. You install the Hyper-V server role on Server2.
Another administrator named Admin1 plans to create a replica of VM1 on Server2. You need to ensure that Admin1 can configure Server2 to receive a replica of VM1.
To which group should you add Admin1?
A. Server Operators
B. Domain Admins
C. Hyper-V Administrators
D. Replicator
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Your network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012. Server1 and Server2 are connected to a Fibre Channel Storage Area Network (SAN). Server1 and Server2 are members of a failover cluster named Cluster1.
You plan to host the clustered File Server role on the nodes in Cluster1. Cluster1 will store application databases in shared folders. You need to implement a storage solution for Cluster1. The solution must minimize the amount of time the shared folders are unavailable during a failover.
What should you implement? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.
A. An iSCSI Target Server cluster role in Cluster1
B. The Multi Path I/O (MPIO) feature on Server1 and Server2
C. A Virtual Fibre Channel SAN on Server1 and Server2
D. A Cluster Shared Volume (CSV) in Cluster1
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You plan to deploy an Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS) farm that will contain eight federation servers.
You need to identify which technology or technologies must be deployed on the network before you install the federation servers.
Which technology or technologies should you identify? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Network Load Balancing (NLB)
B. Microsoft Forefront Identity Manager (FIM) 2010
C. The Windows Internal Database feature
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2012
E. The Windows Identity Foundation 3.5 feature
Correct Answer: AD

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[2018 PDF Free Download] Useful Latest Cisco CCDA 200-310 Dumps Exam Questions And Youtube Update

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200-310 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which three solutions are part of the Borderless Network Services? (Choose three.)
A. Wireless
B. Routing
C. TrustSec
D. MediaNet
E. Swicthing
F. EnergyWise
G. Next-Gen WAN
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 2
Which option cause deep-packet examination to determine the specific nature of an attack?
A. Network IPS
B. Netflow collector
C. Stateful firewall
D. Syslog server
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
What is a characteristic of campus core design?
A. Fast transport
B. Security
C. Summarization
D. Redistribution
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
A company has dark fiber between headquarters and its data center. It is presently configured as a 10GbE connection.
Network utilization shows high utilization on the connection. What technology can be implemented to increase capacity without acquiring another circuit?
A. MPLS
B. DWDM
C. VPLS
D. DMVPN
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which two Cisco data center can participate in Cisco FabricPath? 200-310 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switches
B. Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches
C. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches
D. Cisco Nexus 4900 Series Switches
E. Cisco MDS 9500 Series Multilayer Directors
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6
An application uses broadcast traffic to send data to IPv4 hosts. How can the application communicate using IPv6?
A. Anycast
B. Unicast
C. Broadcast
D. Multicast
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
When considering the three VoIP design models – single site, centralized multisite, and distributed multisite – which question would help to eliminate one of the options?
A. Will the witches be required to provide inline power?
B. Will users need to make offsite calls, beyond the enterprise?
C. Will users require applications such as voice mail and interactive voice response?
D. Are there users whose only enterprise access is via a QoS-enabled WAN?
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
A network engineer is following the Cisco Enterprise Architecture model. To which network layer would a branch office connect to using a private VLAN?
A. Enterprise Campus
B. Enterprise Edge
C. SP Edge Premise
D. Remote Module
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Application servers require load balancing and security services. Where in the data center network should these services be provisioned?
A. Core
B. Aggregation
C. Layer 3 access
D. Distribution
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
A network design engineer is seeking a dynamic routing protocol that supports fast convergence in a Cisco environment.
What protocol allows for this?
A. EIGRP
B. OSPF
C. RIP
D. BGP
E. IS-IS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Why would an engineer implement variable length subnet masks?
A. To make a subnet public
B. To prevent wasting IP addresses
C. To make a subnet its own VLAN
D. To expand an existing subnet
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
The red lines refer to STP blocked ports. What happens if the HSRP active moves to the right distribution, and the STP root remains on the left distribution? 200-310 dumps
A. The STP root becomes the gateway
B. The interdistribution link is used for transit
C. The HSRP standby becomes the gateway
D. The interaccess link is used for transit
E. Host traffic is unable to reach the HSRP active
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
In the traditional hierarchical LAN design,Which two statement about the distribution layer are true? (Choose two.)
A. It typically is connected directly to the internet It provides users direct access to the network
B. It uses Layer 2 switching only
C. It aggregates data from the access layer
D. Policy is implemented at this layer
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
What three design requirements are key to design a Campus Core?
A. Low latency
B. Access control
C. Traffic filtering
D. High speed
E. Redundant links
F. QoS tagging
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 15
When designing the threat detection and mitigation portion for the enterprise data center network, which of the following would be the most appropriate solution to consider?
A. 802.1x
B. ACL in the Core layer
C. Cisco Security MARS
D. Cisco Firewall Services Module
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
A network engineer has been asked to follow a top down design approach. Which layer of the OSI model is used to start the design?
A. Physical
B. Network
C. Transport
D. Application
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Which two design approaches provide management of Enterprise Network devices? (Choose two.)
A. In-band
B. Out-of-line
C. Out-of-band
D. In-line
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 18
Which two design decision can improve network resiliency? (you have to chose 2 answers)
A. Implement redundant link
B. Increase data plane bandwidth
C. Implement serial device connection
D. Reduce network size
E. Implement redundant topology
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 19
In which phase of PPDIOO are the network requirements identified? 200-310 dumps
A. Design
B. Plan
C. Prepare
D. Implement
E. Operate
F. Optimize
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
What IPv4 addressing technique is used for proper address planning to reduce the number of entries in a routing table?
A. Filtering
B. Tunneling
C. Summarization
D. Translation
E. Supernetting
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
If two routing protocols have the same route and prefix, which effect do thery have on the routing table?
A. Only the route with the lowest administrative distance is added
B. Only the route with the highest administrative distance is added
C. Both routes are added
D. Neither route is added, and a loop is formed
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which three are associated with the distribution layer within the campus design? (Choose three.)
A. Access layer aggregation
B. Route summarization
C. Network trust boundary
D. Next-hop redundancy
E. Layer-2 switching
F. Port security
G. Broadcast suppression
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 23
What network virtualization technology can be leveraged within the data center to reduce the number of physical devices?
A. VLANs
B. VPLS
C. VDC
D. VSS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
What three customer supported details identifies network requirements based on the PPDIOO design model? 200-310 dumps (Choose three.)
A. Goals
B. Budget
C. User needs
D. Locations
E. Policies
F. Tasks
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 25
DataQuirk is a web-based medical transcription company for exotic-animal veterinarians. The company recently added a third ISP for international business. They are organizing the enterprise network into a fully operational Enterprise Edge.
To which two modules will the three ISPs be directly related? (Choose two.)
A. PSTN
B. E-Commerce
C. WAN/MAN
D. Edge Distribution
E. Internet Connectivity
F. Remote Access VPN
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 26
Which two methods are used to reduce the mesh links required between iBGP peers in the same AS? (Choose two.)
A. Community
B. Router reflectors
C. Local preferences
D. Confederations
E. Atomic Aggregate
F. MED
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 27
Which three sources does a network designer use to collect information for characterizing an existing network? (Choose three.)
A. Staff input
B. Visual inventory
C. Network audit
D. Traffic analysis
E. Server statistics
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 28
Which command is correct for creating a virtual interface on Cisco wireless controller?
A. config create interface
B. tag interface
C. config interface address
D. untag interface
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 29
Which statement describes an advantage of the Layer 2 access model over the Layer 3 access model in the data center?
A. It enables NIC teaming
B. It removes STP dependency
C. It increases scalability
D. It decreases convergence
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
What two configurations are Cisco recommended best practices for user access interfaces? (Choose two.)
A. VTP transparent mode
B. BPDU guard
C. Root Guard
D. Portfast
E. Trunk mode
Correct Answer: BD

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Cisco (CSCO) Quantified Score Limit Ratings

Cisco Systems Inc. (NASDAQ: CSCO) is one of 72 companies in the GICS communications equipment group, which in turn is part of the 703 companies’ GICS information technology industry. CSCO’s market capitalization of 189.1 billion US dollars, belonging to the highest one-tenth of the industrial group.

The current rankings for the portfolio are CSCO, ranked 27th out of 72 companies in the industry and 42nd out of 703 companies in the sector, ranking No. 2,441 in the portfolio average of nearly 5,000 companies.

Portfolio graders currently CSCO rated as suspended. The basic and quantitative methodologies used in this stock assessment tool developed by Louis Navellier study and rank around 5,000 stocks each week. CSCO maintained this position last month.
Cisco
Portfolio graders currently rank fourth in the world’s 12 industries for the information technology industry, ranking second in all GICS quarters. Communications Equipment Industry Group ranked 56 in 69 industry groups in the GICS industry, well below average for the Navellier scoring system.

Four of the eight basic areas that CSCO analyzed in the portfolio rating agencies received above-average scores, with an average or below average in the four areas evaluated in the company’s stock rankings.

CSCO’s business results mixed, sales growth and earnings growth rank below average, operating profit margin above average. Profitability visibility was mixed, earnings surprise rankings and earnings corrections were below average, while earnings momentum scores were above average. CSCO’s return on equity and cash flow significantly better than the industry average. These basic points give Cisco leadership in the first half of the industry group.

Zain Group and Cisco announced that the former is leveraging the latter’s advanced network routing and WAN automation to bring the benefits of distributed intelligence and centralized control to its network.
Cisco
Under the agreement, Cisco said it will provide Zain Group with next-generation networking capabilities that include simplified operations, programmability, scalability, and additional network availability. This release marks the general trend of network automation and flexibility. Cisco also said it will help Zain Group optimize network operations and provide a full range of differentiated services.

Navellier’s proprietary quantitative scores are used by portfolio graders to measure CSCO’s stock from a risk / reward point of view. This unique scoring method takes into account the relative value of a company’s shares based on the current price of the shares relative to their peers, the markets and risks associated with the industry and industry organizations. Using this risk / return calculation, CSCO currently has a higher average score in its industry than its peers.

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[2017 PDF Free Download] Cisco CCNP Wireless 300-360 Dumps Exam Training Materials Free Update

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300-360 dumps
QUESTION 1
An engineer is tuning RRM parameters to improve client connectivity. Which channel band results in the best 802.11n client compatibility?
A. UNII-2
B. UNII-2e
C. UNII-3
D. UNII
E. UNII-1
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 2
An engineer is installing a wireless network in an industrial area with extreme temperatures and a significant amount of dust. Which enclosure should be used to protect the APs?
A. ACU
B. ADU
C. NEMA
D. WLSE
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What are two advantages of conducting an active survey versus a passive survey when verifying RF coverage? (Choose two.)
A. verifies packet loss
B. verifies roaming
C. verifies SNR
D. verifies signal level
E. verifies interferers
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4
An engineer is deploying an outdoor Mesh network. Which four major factors should be considered? 300-360 dumps (Choose four.)
A. power
B. buildings
C. traffic lights
D. satellite dishes
E. line of sight
F. network connectivity
G. power lines
H. mounting
Correct Answer: AEHF

QUESTION 5
A customer has deployed an N+N redundant wireless infrastructure. In this deployment the access points have been salt and peppered between controllers.
What configuration would be necessary to cut down on the use of mobility tunnels for voice clients?
A. mobility anchor
B. KIS based CAC
C. media session snooping
D. re-anchor roamed voice clients
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which two steps are associated with the active portion of the audit when a post-installation audit is performed with an auditing tool such as Ekahau? (Choose two.)
A. Check for co-channel interference by standing near an access point on one channel and watching for other access points that are on the same channel.
B. Verify smooth roaming.
C. Check to see if the signal level on other access points that are heard on the same channel is at least 19dBm weaker than the access point that you are next to.
D. Check that all channels are supported by the APs regardless of client capabilities.
E. Verify that the network traffic of physical data rate and packet loss meets user requirements.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
300-360 dumps
While testing the post-deployment WLAN network you discover that an AP has been placed in a difficult area. The AP cannot be moved easily because of various requirements. 300-360 dumps The client performance of various Apple and Microsoft operating system-based products does not meet expectations.
Which two options can help mitigate the performance issue? (Choose two.)
A. Add additional APs.
B. Increase the AP power level to maximum.
C. Rotate the AP 90 degrees to change antenna polarity.
D. Replace the AP with an AP and external antenna.
E. Change the AP location to one that is less RF hostile.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 8
An engineer would like to calibrate the RF environment to improve accuracy.
Which wireless attribute is added to the foor-level calculation by calibrating the foor?
A. attenuation
B. TX power
C. multipath
D. SNR
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
An engineer is performing a predictive wireless design for a Parts Distribution Center which requires data and location services. Which three requirements are inputs to the design? (Choose three.)
A. access points with directional antennas
B. continuous -67 dBm coverage from one access point
C. overlapping -75 dBm coverage from three access points
D. overlapping -67 dBm coverage from two access points
E. access points in IPS mode
F. continuous -72 dBm coverage from one access point
G. accesspointsincornersandalongperimeters
Correct Answer: BCG

QUESTION 10
A customer is deploying a Greenfield 802.11ac network on a foor that will support approximately 300 wireless devices.
Which setting needs to be changed on Prime Infrastructure Planning Tool in order to predict the amount of access points the customer needs to service the new foor?
A. Data Coverage Support Margin
B. Demand Settings
C. Add AP Field
D. 802.11n Protocol Support
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which two options describe best practices that must be completed after a wireless installation is finished? 300-360 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Make sure that there are no spaces between the devices on the rack that the Wireless Lan Controller isinstalled.
B. Consult with the customer to ensure that the IT staff has a complete set of design and installationdocuments.
C. Make sure the customer is aware that they should consider purchasing a support contract immediately afterthe installationis complete.
D. Spend time with the customer to show them the controller GUI and inform them how they can reach the Cisco TAC if they have any problems.
E. Test all the customer’s wireless devices and applications to ensure they are working properly.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 12
An engineer is preparing for an outdoor wireless survey to mesh connect a distant remote building to a connected building.
Which two types of antennas are appropriate for this application? (Choose two.)
A. circular polarized
B. patch
C. dish
D. Yagi
E. omni
Correct Answer: CD

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Vendor: CompTIA
Certifications: CompTIA Cloud Essentials
Exam Name: CompTIA Cloud Essentials Exam
Exam Code: CLO-001
Total Questions: 230 Q&As
CLO-001 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which of the following is a business reason for IT outsourcing and cloud computing?
A. Improving cost structure
B. Improving customer satisfaction
C. Increasing control over IT systems
D. Decrease of security issues
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
How can the internal IT department successfully react to cloud computing?
A. By becoming an external cloud provider
B. By becoming an internal cloud provider
C. By outsourcing all IT services
D. By solely focusing on security issues
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Why does hardware and operating system maintenance take less effort with SaaS?
A. Maintenance becomes irrelevant
B. Cloud provider takes care of it
C. Hardware vendor takes care of it
D. Operating system vendor takes care of it
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which of the following is an important skill for an organization wanting to adopt an IaaS strategy? CLO-001 dumps
A. Visualization technology
B. Application service procurement
C. Customer relations
D. Security and risk management
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
How do demand management processes change with the introduction of SaaS?
A. New vendors have to be accommodated
B. Users can procure SaaS solutions themselves
C. The number of virtual machines can fluctuate with demand
D. Maintenance will become easier
Correct Answer: B
CLO-001 dumps
QUESTION 6
Why do management tools introduce a risk?
A. The management tools present a vendor lock-in
B. The management tools are indispensible above a specific scale of operation
C. The migration may not be successful
D. Too many software licenses are needed
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which of the following is an example of a cloud-related security risk?
A. Losing network connectivity
B. Not having enough software licenses
C. Not knowing what the cloud provider will charge
D. Storing customer data at a provider
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is a unique characteristic of virtualization?
A. Security features
B. Federated identities
C. Shared hardware
D. Sourcing challenges
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which of the following describes the amount of data that can be sent across a link in a given time?
A. Network bandwidth
B. Network QoS
C. Network latency
D. Network speed
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
CLO-001 dumps How can an organization successfully implement a PaaS strategy?
A. Open up internal databases with Web service access.
B. Take inventory of the application portfolio and select external suppliers
C. Standardize on a limited set of virtual machines.
D. Continuously execute performance analytics to monitor providers
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which of the following is the MOST complex security provisioning problem in a cloud environment?
A. Handling credit cards for purchasing cloud services
B. Keeping track of cloud provider performance
C. Managing users and their rights across multiple providers
D. Software assets that are introduced and can expire
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which of the following applications is MOST suitable for a cloud computing pilot?
A. Applications that are currently expensive to maintain because of interconnections
B. Applications that are easy to migrate and have some business value
C. Applications with high risk and little business value
D. Legacy applications that are coupled to specific hardware and systems software
Correct Answer: B

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