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300-420 dumps update | Cisco 300-420 ENSLD Exam Materials

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ENSLD is the abbreviation of the Designing Cisco Enterprise Networks exam name, and 300-420 is the exam code. For specific information, see:

Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 300-420
Exam Name: Designing Cisco Enterprise Networks (ENSLD)
Certification: CCNP
Duration: 90 minutes
Languages: English and Japanese
Price: $300 USD

The 300-420 ENSLD Exam is just one step:

You must also know that the 300-420 ENSLD Exam is one of the Concentration exams. But if you want to get the CCNP Enterprise certification, you need to do it in two steps:

Step 1: Choose one of the following exams

  • 300-410 ENARSI
  • 300-415 ENSDWI
  • 300-420 ENSLD
  • 300-425 ENWLSD
  • 300-430 ENWLSI
  • 300-435 ENAUTO

Step 2: Take the Core exam, this step also includes your ticket to participate in the CCIE lab, provided you must pass the exam, but don’t worry, you can find the answer on the VCEcert 350-401 page.

  • 350-401 ENCOR

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QUESTION 1:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must design an automatic failover solution. The solution should allow HSRP to detect a WAN 1 failure and initiate an automatic failover, making router R2 the active HSRP router. Which two solutions should the engineer choose? (Choose two.)

A. Implement Enhanced Object Tracking on roster R1
B. use a floating static route
C. Implement IP SLA on router R1
D. Implement PBR on router R1
E. use IP source routing

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 2:

An engineer must design a VPN solution for a company that has multiple branches connecting to the main office. What are two advantages of using DMVPN instead of IPsec tunnels to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

A. support for AES 256-bit encryption
B. greater scalability
C. support for anycast gateway
D. lower-traffic overhead
E. dynamic spoke-to-spoke tunnels

Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 3:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is designing an OSPF network for a client. Requirements dictate that the routers in Area 1 should receive all routers belonging to the network, including EIGRP, except the ones originated in the RIP domain. Which action should the engineer take?

A. Make area 1 an NSSA.
B. Make area 1 a stub.
C. Make area 1 a standard OSPF area.
D. Make the area 1 router part of area 0.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4:

Which NETCONF operation creates filtering that is specific to the session notifications?

A.
B.
C.

D.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5:

A large chain of stores currently uses MPLS-based T1 lines to connect their stores to their data center. An architect must design a new solution to improve availability and reduce costs while keeping these considerations in mind:

1.
The company uses multicast to deliver training to the stores.
2.
The company uses dynamic routing protocols and has implemented QoS.
3.
To simplify deployments, tunnels should be created dynamically on the hub when additional stores open.
Which solution should be included in this design?

A. VPLS
B. GET VPN
C. DMVPN
D. IPsec

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6:

An organization is designing a detailed QoS plan that limits bandwidth to specific rates. Which two parameters are supported by the traffic policing feature? (Choose two.)

A. violating
B. marking
C. shaping
D. bursting
E. conforming

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 7:

An engineer is creating a design to enable IPv6 to run on an existing IPv4 IS-IS network. The IPv4 and IPv6 topologies will match exactly, and the engineer plans to use the same IS-IS router levels for each protocol per interface. Which IS-IS design is required?

A. multi-topology without enabling transition feature
B. multi-topology with transition feature enabled
C. single topology without enabling transition feature
D. single topology with transition feature enabled

Correct Answer: B

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/iproute_isis/configuration/15-mt/irs-15-mt-book/ip6-route-multi-isis.html

QUESTION 8:

Which nonproprietary mechanism can be used to automate rendezvous point distribution in a large PIM domain?

A. Embedded RP
B. BSR
C. Auto-RP
D. Static RP

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9:

Which method does Cisco SD-WAN use to avoid fragmentation issues?

A. PMTUD is used.
B. Access circuits are configured with 1600 byte MTU settings.
C. Jumbo frames are enabled.
D. Traffic is marked with the DF bit set.

Correct Answer: A

https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/solutions/collateral/enterprise-networks/sd-wan/nb-06-cisco-sd-wan-ebook-cte-en.pdf

QUESTION 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must improve the current IS-IS environment. The Catalyst switch is equipped with dual supervisors.

Each time a stateful switchover occurs, the network experiences unnecessary route recomputation. Which solution addresses this issue if the upstream router does not understand graceful restart messaging?

A. Enable IS-IS remote LFA FRR on both devices.
B. Enable NSR on the switch.
C. Enable NSF on the switch.
D. Configure ISIS aggressive timers on both devices.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11:

An engineer must design a multicast network for a financial application. Most of the multicast sources also receive multicast traffic (many-to-many deployment model). To better scale routing tables, the design must not use source trees.

Which multicast protocol satisfies these requirements?

A. PIM-SSM
B. PIM-SM
C. MSDP
D. BIDIR-PIM

Correct Answer: D

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipmulti_pim/configuration/xe-16/imc-pim-xe-16-book/imc-tech-oview.html

Bidir-PIM is designed to be used for many-to-many applications within individual PIM domains. Multicast groups in bidirectional PIM mode can scale to an arbitrary number of sources without incurring overhead due to the number of sources.

QUESTION 12:

An engineer is working with NETCONF and Cisco NX-OS-based devices. The engineer needs a YANG model that supports a specific feature relevant only to Cisco NX-OS. Which model must the engineer choose?

A. Native
B. IEEE
C. OpenConfig
D. IETF

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13:

How is the sub-second failure of a transport link detected in a Cisco SD-WAN network?

A. Hellos are sent between the WAN Edge routers and the vSmart controller.
B. BFD runs on the IPsec tunnels between WAN Edge routers.
C. BGP is used between WAN Edge routers and the vSmart controller.
D. Link state change messages are sent between vSmart controllers.

Correct Answer: B

……

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Question 1:

Which Cisco Catalyst 9100 AP feature adds capacity by automatically changing the access points from 2.4 and 5GHz to Dual 5GHz?

A. FRA

B. SMU

C. CleanAir

D. wIPS

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

When enabled which two features will help extend the retention capacity of the Meraki MV smart cameras? (Choose two)

A. Direct stream-based retention

B. Schedule-based retention

C. Hybrid archives

D. Cloud archives

E. Motion-based retention

Correct Answer: BE


Question 3:

In the event an entire site went down: which activity does Cisco\’s HyperFlex Stretched Cluster still enable a user to do?

A. continue VM replication synchronously

B. access the entire cluster

C. access only the remaining node or nodes in the cluster

D. recover lost data

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

What separates Cisco Meraki from its competitors?

A. kit obtained via promotional seminars can be added and integrated into the POC kit to enhance the service offering

B. the cloud architecture and product experience itself

C. testing the gear live by attending marketing webinars

D. dedicated team and the Cisco Meraki sales specialist attend every whiteboarding session to better illustrate complex topics

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

Which two features are included in every licensed MX security appliance as part of its unified threat management solution? (Choose two )

A. Stateless L3/L7 firewalls

B. OA (change of authorization)

C. SD-WAN

D. Umbrella integration (DNS firewall)

E. Auto VPN (site-to-site VPN)

Correct Answer: CE


Question 6:

Which two capabilities are included in the System Manager\’s robust enterprise mobility management (EMM) feature set? (Choose two )

A. Rapid provisioning (enrollment)

B. Emergency broadcast (alerts)

C. Remote troubleshooting

D. RFID tag tracking

E. OS version control

Correct Answer: AC


Question 7:

What is one of the mam functionalities of the Meraki Go mobile app?

A. used to manage and renew Meraki Go licenses

B. for opening support tickets with the Meraki Go support team

C. to assist with the fast onboarding of Meraki Go products

D. to help reduce the power consumption of network devices

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

Using Cisco Security, what is the remediation time for a previously unknown threat?

A. under 10 minutes

B. under 15 minutes

C. under 5 minutes

D. under 8 minutes

E. under 30 minutes

Correct Answer: A

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/security/aag-why-cisco-security-for-sb.html#:~:text=With %20Cisco\’s%20threat%20intelligence%2C%20you,to%20remediation%20in%20the%20industry.


Question 9:

By how much can Cisco UCS reduce provisioning time?

A. 6 hours to 1 minute

B. 12 weeks to 10 minutes

C. 1 month to 1 hour

D. 6 months to 2 weeks

E. 2 weeks to 6 hours

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

Which two products are considered a part of the Cisco Meraki full-stack? (Choose two.)

A. MX security appliances

B. MR wireless access points

C. Catalyst switches

D. UCS servers

E. Aironet wireless access points

Correct Answer: AB


Question 11:

Which layout can Cisco Webex flexible video conference support?

A. active speaker video view where the participant talking will have the most prominent view on the screen

B. active-active video view where two participants can engage on-screen at the same time

C. presenter video view where the meeting host shares their desktop on the screen

D. grid view where the active speaker is visible and other participants show on the bottom strip

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

Which two Cisco Small Business series switches are smart-managed? (Choose two.)

A. 220

B. 250

C. 550X

D. 350X

E. 110

Correct Answer: AB


Question 13:

Which three product families comprise the Meraki Go network stack? (Choose three )

A. Access points

B. Security content filters

C. Network routers

D. Security gateway and firewall

E. Network switches

Correct Answer: ADE


Question 14:

What is the built-in technology on the MR platform that utilizes one-way beacon advertising to interact with applications?

A. Adaptive Radio Management

B. BLE (Bluetooth Low Energy)

C. BeamFlex

D. Radio Resource Management

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

What are the two most frequent attack vectors used in cyber attacks against small businesses? (Choose two.)

A. malware

B. viruses

C. social engineering

D. phishing

E. pop-ups

Correct Answer: BC

……


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Successfully pass the Securing Networks with Cisco Firepower (SNCF) exam using the updated Cisco 300-710 dumps

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QUESTION 1

Which limitation applies to Cisco FMC dashboards in a multi-domain environment?

A. Child domains are able to view but not edit dashboards that originate from an ancestor domain.
B. Child domains have access to only a limited set of widgets from ancestor domains.
C. Only the administrator of the top ancestor domain is able to view dashboards.
D. Child domains are not able to view dashboards that originate from an ancestor domain.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev60/Using_Dashboards.html

QUESTION 2

An engineer is implementing Cisco FTD in the network and is determining which Firepower mode to use. The organization needs to have multiple virtual Firepower devices working separately inside of the FTD appliance to provide traffic segmentation.
Which deployment mode should be configured in the Cisco Firepower Management Console to support these requirements?

A. Multiple Deployment
B. single-context
C. Single deployment
D. multi-instance

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3

A network administrator reviews the file report for the last month and notices that all file types, except exe. show a disposition of unknown. What is the cause of this issue?

A. The malware license has not been applied to the Cisco FTD.
B. The Cisco FMC cannot reach the Internet to analyze files.
C. A file policy has not been applied to the access policy.
D. Only Spero file analysis is enabled.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4

A network administrator needs to create a policy on Cisco Firepower to fast-path traffic to avoid Layer 7 inspection. The rate at which traffic is inspected must be optimized. What must be done to achieve this goal?

A. Enable the FXOS for multi-instance.
B. Configure a prefilter policy.
C. Configure modular policy framework.
D. Disable TCP inspection.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5

A network administrator is configuring SNORT inspection policies and is seeing failed deployment messages in Cisco FMC. What information should the administrator generate for Cisco TAC to help troubleshoot?

A. A “troubleshoot” file for the device in question.
B. A “show tech” file for the device in question.
C. A “troubleshoot” file for the Cisco FMC.
D. A “show tech” for the Cisco FMC.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/620/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev62/troubleshooting_the_system.html

QUESTION 6

An engineer is configuring a Cisco IPS to protect the network and wants to test a policy before deploying it. A copy of each incoming packet needs to be monitored while traffic flow remains constant. Which IPS mode should be implemented to meet these requirements?

A. routed
B. passive
C. transparent
D. inline tap

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7

Which two actions can be used in an access control policy rule? (Choose two.)

A. Block with Reset
B. Monitor
C. Analyze
D. Discover
E. Block ALL

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firesight/541/firepower-module-user-guide/asa-firepowermodule-user-guide-v541/AC-Rules-Tuning-Overview.html#71854

QUESTION 8

An engineer is working on a LAN switch and has noticed that its network connection to the inline Cisco IPS has gone down. Upon troubleshooting, it is determined that the switch is working as expected. What must have been implemented for this failure to occur?

A. The upstream router has a misconfigured routing protocol.
B. Link-state propagation is enabled.
C. The Cisco IPS has been configured to be in fail-open mode.
D. The Cisco IPS is configured in detection mode.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9

Which function is the primary function of the Cisco AMP threat Grid?

A. flood attack detection.
B. secure boot
C. image signing
D. DDoS mitigation
E. SYN flood detection

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 10

Which policy rule is included in the deployment of a local DMZ during the initial deployment of a Cisco NGFW through the Cisco FMC GUI?

A. a default DMZ policy for which only a user can change the IP addresses.
B. deny ip any
C. no policy rule is included
D. permit IP any

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11

Administrator is attempting to remotely log into a switch in the data center using SSH and is unable to connect. How does the administrator confirm that traffic is reaching the firewall?

A. by running Wireshark on the administrator\’s PC.
B. by performing a packet capture on the firewall.
C. by running a packet tracer on the firewall.
D. by attempting to access it from a different workstation.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12

Which command-line mode is supported by the Cisco Firepower Management Center CLI?

A. privileged
B. user
C. configuration
D. admin

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/660/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev66/command_line_reference.pdf


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latest Updated Cisco 350-701 exam questions and Answer

QUESTION 1
What Cisco command shows you the status of an 802.1X connection on interface gi0/1?
A. show authorization status
B. show authen sess int gi0/1
C. show connection status gi0/1
D. show ver gi0/1
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Under which two circumstances is a CoA issued? (Choose two.)
A. A new authentication rule was added to the policy on the Policy Service node.
B. An endpoint is deleted on the Identity Service Engine server.
C. A new Identity Source Sequence is created and referenced in the authentication policy.
D. An endpoint is profiled for the first time.
E. A new Identity Service Engine server is added to the deployment with the Administration personA.
Correct Answer: BD
https://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/security/ise/1.0/user_guide/ise10_prof_pol.html

QUESTION 3
Which policy is used to capture host information on the Cisco Next-Generation Intrusion Prevention System?
A. network discovery
B. correlation
C. intrusion
D. access control
Correct Answer: A
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guide-v60/Introduction_to_Network_Discovery.pdf


QUESTION 4
Which technology reduces data loss by identifying sensitive information stored in public computing environments?
A. Cisco SDA
B. Cisco Firepower
C. Cisco HyperFlex
D. Cisco Cloudlock
Correct Answer: D
https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/products/collateral/security/cloudlock/cisco-cloudlock-clouddata-securitydatasheet.pdf

QUESTION 5
Which function is the primary function of the Cisco AMP threat Grid?
A. automated email encryption
B. applying a real-time URI blacklist
C. automated malware analysis
D. monitoring network traffic
Correct Answer: C

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Cisco 350-701 Practice testing questions from Youtube

latest updated Cisco 350-701 exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1
Which policy is used to capture host information on the Cisco Firepower Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System?
A. correlation
B. intrusion
C. access control
D. network discovery
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which two prevention techniques are used to mitigate SQL injection attacks? (Choose two.)
A. Check integer, float, or Boolean string parameters to ensure accurate values.
B. Use prepared statements and parameterized queries.
C. Secure the connection between the web and the app tier.
D. Write SQL code instead of using object-relational mapping libraries.
E. Block SQL code execution in the web application database login.
Correct Answer: AB
Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/SQL_injection

QUESTION 3
In which form of attack is alternate encoding, such as hexadecimal representation, most often observed?
A. smurf
B. distributed denial of service
C. cross-site scripting
D. rootkit exploit
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
An engineer wants to automatically assign endpoints that have a specific OUl into a new endpoint group. Which probe
must be enabled for this type of profiling to work?
A. NetFlow
B. DHCP
C. SNMP
D. NMAP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which solution protects hybrid cloud deployment workloads with application visibility and segmentation?
A. Nexus
B. Stealthwatch
C. Firepower
D. Tetration
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/security/secure-data-center-solution/index.html#~products

QUESTION 6
Which policy represents a shared set of features or parameters that define the aspects of a managed device that are
likely to be similar to other managed devices in a deployment?
A. group policy
B. access control policy
C. device management policy
D. platform service policy
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/622/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev622/platform_settings_policies_for_managed_devices.pdf

QUESTION 7
Which two application layer preprocessors are used by Firepower Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System?
(Choose two.)
A. SIP
B. inline normalization
C. SSL
D. packet decoder
E. modbus
Correct Answer: AC
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev60/Application_Layer_Preprocessors.html

QUESTION 8
Which two endpoint measures are used to minimize the chances of falling victim to phishing and social engineering
attacks? (Choose two.)
A. Patch for cross-site scripting.
B. Perform backups to the private cloud.
C. Protect against input validation and character escapes in the endpoint.
D. Install a spam and virus email filter.
E. Protect systems with an up-to-date antimalware program.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 9
Which two capabilities does TAXII support? (Choose two.)
A. exchange
B. pull messaging
C. binding
D. correlation
E. mitigating
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 10
Which statement about IOS zone-based firewalls is true?
A. An unassigned interface can communicate with assigned interfaces
B. Only one interface can be assigned to a zone.
C. An interface can be assigned to multiple zones.
D. An interface can be assigned only to one zone.
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/ios-firewall/98628-zone-design-guide.html

QUESTION 11
Which information is required when adding a device to Firepower Management Center?
A. username and password
B. encryption method
C. device serial number
D. registration key
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev60/Device_Management_Basics.html#ID-2242-0000069d

QUESTION 12
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the capabilities from the left onto the correct technologies on the right.
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Correct Answer:

[2021.2] lead4pass 350-701 exam questions q12-1

QUESTION 13
Which command enables 802.1X globally on a Cisco switch?
A. dot1x system-auth-control
B. dot1x page authenticator
C. authentication port-control auto
D. aaa new-model
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/nfvis/switch_command/b-nfvis-switch-commandreference/802_1x_commands.html

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[Free] latest update Cisco 350-801 Exam PDF

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The latest update Cisco 350-801 dumps exam questions

Participate in the test, the answer will be announced at the end of the article

QUESTION 1

Endpoint A is attempting to call endpoint B. Endpoint A only supports G.711 ulaw with a packetization rate of 20 ms, and endpoint B supports packetization rate of 30 ms for G.711ulaw. Which two media are resources are allocated to
normalize packetization rates through transrating?

A. Hardware MTP on Cisco IOS Software
B. Software MTP on Cisco Unified Communication Manager
C. Software MTP on Cisco IOS Software
D. Software transcoder on Cisco unified Communications manager
E. Hardware transcoder on Cisco IOS Software

 

QUESTION 2

An administrator with ID392116981 is receiving complaints of pixilation smearing, and pulsing of video calls between
two offices that are connected by a WAN. Assuming that QoS is implemented on the WAN connection, which
classification is used to mark the video traffic, according to the Cisco QoS baseline?

A. AF31
B. CS3
C. EF
D. AF41

 

QUESTION 3

What causes poor voice quality and video pixelization in a video call?

A. The QoS is configured incorrectly.
B. A firewall is blocking the RTP ports.
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager is configured to use G.711 instead of G.729.
D. 1 Gbps network ports are used instead of 100 Mbps network ports.

 

QUESTION 4

cisco 350-801 dumps questions q4

Refer to the exhibit. Endpoint A calls endpoint B. What is the only audio codec that can be used for the call?

A. Telephone-event/8000
B. G7221/16000
C. PCMA/8000
D. G722/8000

 

QUESTION 5

Which DiffServ marking is the most likely to drop packets?

A. AF32
B. AF12
C. AF11
D. AF13

 

QUESTION 6

Regarding SIP integrations with Cisco Unified Communications Manager, if the Cisco Unity Connection is configured to
listen for incoming IPv4 and IPv6 traffic, how should the addressing mode be set up in the Cisco Unity Connection?

A. Set up is not required.
B. Set up for each group to use IPv4 and IPv6.
C. Set up media ports for each port group to use IPv4.
D. Set up IPv4 and IPv6 in Cisco Unified CM.

 

QUESTION 7

An engineer must manually register an analog port with cisco UCM using the MGCP protocol. Which commands are
required?

cisco 350-801 dumps questions q7

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

 

QUESTION 8

Which access control group is required on an end user to allow Jabber to do deskphone mode?

A. Allow Control of Device from CTI
B. Standard CTI Enabled
C. Standard CTI Allow Reception of SRTP Key Material
D. Standard CTI Secure Connection

 

QUESTION 9

Which three Cisco Unity Connection call handler greetings can be overridden by the internal greeting? (Choose three.)

A. holiday
B. alternate
C. error
D. busy
E. closed
F. standard

This greeting overrides the Standard, Closed, and Holiday greetings but only for internal callers or users defined in
Cisco Unity Connection.Because the mentioned three greetings are defined for externals users.

 

QUESTION 10

After an engineer runs the utils ntp status command on the Cisco Unified Communications Manager publisher, the
stratum value is 16. Which issue can the Cisco Unified CM cluster experience?

A. Unified CM sends an NTPV4 packet.
B. Database replication is not synchronized on the Unified CM nodes.
C. The cluster loses access to port 124 at the firewall.
D. The date/time group on all phones defaults to the time zone of the engineer.

 

QUESTION 11

Which attribute contains an XMPP stanza?

A. iq
B. message
C. type
D. presence

 

QUESTION 12

An administrator needs to stop the leading 9 from outbound calls on an IOS Voice Gateway and ensure that the system
handles 911 emergency calls Which configuration is needed to accomplish this task?

cisco 350-801 dumps questions q12

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

 

QUESTION 13

Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 350-801 dumps questions q13

Assume that the bottom logical partition policy entry in Cisco Unified Communications Manager was provisioned last.
How is the call treated when an IP phone in the Bangalore GeoLocation places a call to a MGCP gateway with FXS
ports in the San Jose GeoLocation?

A. The call is denied because the last added logical partition policy takes precedence when multiple matches exist.
B. The call is allowed because the first listed logical partition policy takes precedence when multiple matches exist.
C. The call is denied because the call flow matches neither policy entries.
D. The call is allowed because the call flow matches neither policy entries.
E. The call is allowed because only the top policy entry matches the call flow.

Announce the answer:

Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13
BDDABDAABAEFBCBA

The latest complete Cisco 350-801 dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/350-801.html (Total Questions: 255 Q&A)

You can save these collected Cisco 350-801 dumps exam content and exam PDF, and then share them with your friends. All the collected historical exam content has helped many people improve their exam experience in the past. Participating in today’s exam test will also Improve your exam experience. The latest updates and complete Cisco 350-801 dumps will help you pass the exam easily.

The latest update Cisco 300-825 CLCNF free dumps from Lead4Pass

300-825 clcnf exam

The Cisco Implementing Cisco Collaboration Conferencing exam code is “300-825”. To obtain the 300-825 CLCNF exam certificate, you must pass the 300-825 exam. The exam is just a way to verify your learning results.
You must master the corresponding knowledge to face the following work. The CCNP Collaboration 300-825 exam belongs to one of the CCNP Collaboration exam series. Facing the certification exam, you need to master a lot of corresponding knowledge:

  • Describe the Cisco conferencing architecture including cloud, hybrid, and on-premises conferencing
  • Describe the physical deployment options and deployment models for Cisco Meeting Server, including Cisco Meeting Server 1000, 2000, and virtual machine
  • Configure a Cisco Meeting Server single combined deployment for Web-Real Time Communications (WebRTC) endpoints within the enterprise

Get More->>

Yes! Obtaining 300-825 exam certification is not easy! Next, I will share some practical and effective exam questions to help you improve yourself.

Cisco 300-825 CLCNF free dumps

After the test is completed, compare the answers at the end of the article

Question 1:

 

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator troubleshoots an issue with Cisco Meeting Server. Endpoints that call from the remote site cannot connect, but endpoints that call from headquarters can connect. What should the administrator do to resolve this issue?

A. Add a route for 192.168.10.0/24 to interface b.

B. Set interface b as the default interface.

C. Remove the route for 192.168.0.0/16 from interface b.

D. Enable DHCP on interface a but not on interface b.

 


Question 2:

An engineer configures Cisco Meeting Server as a conference resource for Cisco UCM. Cisco UCM has a secure SIP trunk to Cisco Meeting Server, but the server does not register to Cisco UCM. Which configuration resolves this issue?

A. Ensure that the SIP trunk from Cisco UCM to Cisco Meeting Server is a secure trunk using port 5061.

B. Add Cisco Meeting Server to the Cisco UCM SIP trunk with an IP address and not an FQDN.

C. Set the Web Admin port on the Conference Bridge settings to match Cisco Meeting Server.

D. Configure an MRGL that contains Cisco Meeting Server to be associated with device pools.

 

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/conferencing/meeting-server/213820-configure-cisco-meeting-server-and-cucm.html


Question 3:

Content-Type: application/sdp Content-Length: 4938 v=0 o=Acano 0 0 IN IP4 10.0.101.120 s=c=IN IP4 10.0.101.120 b=CT:16 t=0 0 m=audio 50262 RTP/AVP 108 107 109 110 9 99 111 100 104 103 0 8 15 102 18 13 118 101 a=crypto:1 AEAD_AES_128_GCM ************************************************|2^48 a=crypto:2 AEAD_AES_256_GCM ********************************************************************|2^48 a=crypto:3 AES_CM_128_HMAC_SHA1_80 *******************************************************|2^48 a=crypto:4 AES_CM_128_HMAC_SHA1_32 *******************************************************|2^48

m=video 50264 RTP/AVP 97 116 114 96 34 31 100 121 b=TIAS:16000 a=crypto:1 AEAD_AES_128_GCM ************************************************|2^48 a=crypto:2 AEAD_AES_256_GCM ********************************************************************|2^48 a=crypto:3 AES_CM_128_HMAC_sha1_80 *******************************************************|2^48 a=crypto:4 AES_CM_128_HMAC_sha1_32 *******************************************************|2^48 a=content:main a=sendrecv a=sprop-source:1 count=2;policies=cs:1 a=sprop-simul:1 1 * a=rtcp-fb:* nack pli a=rtcp-fb:* ccm fir a=rtcp-fb:* ccm cisco-scr a=extmap:1 http://protocols.cisco.com/virtualid a=extmap:2 http://protocols.cisco.com/framemarking a=rtpmap:97 H264/90000 a=fmtp:97 profile-level-id=42800a;max-mpbs=489600;max-fs=8160;max-cpb=4000;max-dpd=4752;max-fps=6000

Refer to the exhibit. Users report that they do not see a high-quality picture on the high-definition endpoints when they call into Cisco Meeting Server. An engineer must extract the SDP that is offered by Cisco Meeting Server from the SIP traces to troubleshoot. What is the cause of this issue?

A. Cisco Meeting Server is not configured for H.265 to support high-definition video calling.

B. The AES ciphers are not compatible with high-definition video calling.

C. The Content-Length value in the SDP does not support high-definition video calling.

D. The SIP call bandwidth is not at a value that supports high-definition video calling.

 


Question 4:

CCNP Collaboration

false

8001

849274932

1234

XnKexB0yWQ2iwfuoCe6AWQ

2

Refer to the exhibit. When a user dials 8001 to connect to a space that is hosted on Cisco Meeting Server, the user is prompted for a pin. The prompt says the user should press # to connect to a meeting without a pin, but guests and hosts must enter a pin before connecting to the meeting.

Which configuration change resolves this issue?

A. The secret value must be changed to be solely numeric instead of alpha-numeric.

B. The passcode must be changed to be longer than four digits.

C. All access methods that are associated with the space must be changed to include a pin.

D. A callLegProfile must be created and associated with the space so that pins are not optional.

 

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/conferencing/meeting-server/213552-configure-and-troubleshoot-guest-and-hos.html#anc10


Question 5:

An administrator wants to automatically schedule conferences with a cluster of Cisco Meeting Server devices that are managed with Cisco TMS. How should Cisco TMS be configured to accomplish this goal?

A. After the Cisco Meeting Server cluster is added, the Cisco TMS should failover an active conference to a different Cisco Meeting Server.

B. After the first Cisco Meeting Server is added, all servers in the cluster should automatically be detected.

C. When the first Cisco Meeting Server is added, the system name should automatically be detected.

D. After the Cisco Meeting Server cluster is added, the primary Cisco Meeting Server should automatically failover to another cluster member.

 


Question 6:

An engineer must configure Cisco Meeting Server integration to Cisco UCM. Which DNS A record must be configured to accomplish this goal?

A. Call Bridge

B. SRV

C. Conference Name

D. Cisco UCM Subscriber

 

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/conferencing/meeting-server/213821-configure-and-integrate-cms-single-combi.html


Question 7:

In the Cisco TMS GUI, a Cisco UCM registered system shows these error details:

Provisioning mode is set to Cisco UCM for this system.

The system cannot be refreshed or scheduled.

To manage this system as a Cisco TMS system, the provisioning mode needs to be changed to Cisco TMS.

To add the system as Cisco UCM managed system, it must be added through the Cisco UCM that is provisioning the system.

What should be done to resolve this error?

A. Purge the system in Cisco TMS and add the system back directly to Cisco TMS using “Add by IP Address”.

B. Restart Microsoft IIS on the Windows server that hosts Cisco TMS and perform a “Force Refresh” on the system.

C. Delete the system and add the system back with the “Add from Cisco UCM or Cisco TMS” option.

D. Update the credentials for the system in Cisco TMS.

 


Question 8:

cisco 300-825 exam questions q8

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator configures Expressway-C to act as a proxy for a Cisco Meeting Server web app. Which configuration must exist on the Cisco Meeting Server that runs the web app to complete this integration?

A. web app running on port 445 B. HTTP redirect disabled on the web app

C. matching authentication combinations on the web app and Expressway-C

D. Common Name of “_cms-web._tls.join.darmckin.local” on the certificate in use

 


Question 9:

After performing an upgrade of the Cisco Meeting Server cluster, an engineer sees an error message indicating that Cisco Meeting Server is not licensed. Also, no spaces or users show in the GUI. What should be done to resolve this issue?

A. The database cluster upgrade_schema command must be run on the new database cluster master.

B. The Cisco Meeting Server nodes must be re-upgraded using the same file to upgrade all nodes.

C. The Cisco Meeting Server nodes must be re-upgraded with the database master being first and then all peers.

D. New database certificates must be generated for each peer in the cluster.

 

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/conferencing/ciscoMeetingServer/Release_Notes/Version-3-0/Cisco-Meeting-Server-Release-Notes-3-0.pdf


Question 10:

An engineer configures Cisco Meeting Server with Expressway for external web app access and must enable participants to use the web app to join conferences that are hosted on the meeting server. Which service should be used in the Expressway-E accomplish this goal?

A. Cisco Meeting Server

B. SIP

C. XMPP server

D. TURN

 

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/conferencing/ciscoMeetingServer/Installation/Cisco-Meeting-Server-Deployment-Planning-and-Preparation-with-Expressway-Guide.pdf


Question 11:

A customer has a collaboration solution on-premises and is considering a cloud solution for the enterprise. Which collaboration method should be deployed to protect the existing investment and extend collaboration to the cloud?

A. Continue to use the on-premises solution and add a cloud solution in parallel.

B. Refresh hardware and software with the latest releases.

C. Decommission on-premises equipment and flash cut to a cloud solution.

D. Move to a hybrid that integrates an existing solution with a cloud solution.

 

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en_in/solutions/collaboration/cloud-collaboration/index.html#~stickynav=1


Question 12:

An administrator performs a major upgrade of a Cisco Meeting Server cluster that contains multiple database nodes. Which step ensures that the Call Bridge can use the database?

A. The command database cluster initialize must be run on the master database node.

B. The master database node must be the first server to complete the upgrade process.

C. The command database cluster upgrade_schema must be run on the master database node.

D. The master database node must create a new database cluster and join the peer servers.

 

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/conferencing/meeting-server/210530-configure-cisco-meeting-server-call-brid.html


Question 13:

To which two places should an administrator go to view an upcoming meeting scheduled on Cisco Meeting Server? (Choose two.)

A. Cisco Meeting Server MMP interface

B. Cisco Meeting Management meetings interface

C. Cisco Meeting Server web user interface

D. Cisco Meeting Server API

E. Cisco TMS interface

 

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/conferencing/Cisco-Meeting-Management/User-Guide/Cisco-Meeting-Management-3-1-User-Guide-Video-Operator.pdf


Question 14:

What is the purpose of the Call Bridge service within Cisco Meeting Server?

A. It connects users from their web browsers into meetings that are hosted on Cisco Meeting Server.

B. It replicates database information between all nodes in the cluster.

C. It converts RTP media into MP4 files that can be distributed for replay.

D. It is the core conferencing service and manages media and signaling.

 


Question 15:

cisco 300-825 exam questions q15

Refer to the exhibit. Which two features are supported in the Cisco Meeting Server recording and streaming solution? (Choose two.)

A. editing recordings

B. portal to access recordings

C. 1080p resolution for streaming

D. changing layouts

E. closed captioning in streaming

 

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/td/docs/solutions/PA/mcp/DEPLOYMENT_MEETINGS-CWMS_to_CMS.pdf

Compare answers:

Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13Q14Q15
ADDDDACDADDABCDDE

These are just part of the Lead4pass 300-825 CLCNF dump, the complete actual exam dump is here: https://www.lead4pass.com/300-825.html (Total Questions: 60 Q&A)

Cisco exams are not simple. To pass the exam, you must know more about the exam. Of course, getting the Cisco certification is also a very proud thing. The certificate can help you get more, improve your quality of life and gain glory. Finally, I wish you success! Good luck will always be with you.

PS. Want more past Cisco 300-825 exam questions can be found in VceCert, you can refer to the study! Of course, you can also find more Cisco exam questions at Vcecert.com.

Cisco CCNP 300-410 exam help and exam questions and answers

There are so many people taking the Cisco 300-410 exam because this is a very popular exam!

cisco 300-410 exam questions

To take the Cisco 300-410 exam first, you need to be prepared:

  1. Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services (ENARSI) Mastery of examination knowledge
  2. Preparation before the exam
  3. Pay the exam fee
  4. Schedule an exam
  5. After passing the exam

These are the most basic procedures, and you better know, this will save you a lot of trouble.

Next we answer one by one:

Implementing Cisco Enterprise Advanced Routing and Services (ENARSI) exam contains the following knowledge points:

  • Layer 3
  • VPN services
  • Infrastructure security
  • Infrastructure services
  • Infrastructure automation

Exam preparation:

I have a few preparation methods here:

Pay: (Cisco written exams,Expert lab/practical exams)

Cisco written exams:

Use your credit card in the Pearson VUE registration system Prepay for your exam before you schedule it by purchasing an exam voucher using your Cisco Learning Credits

Expert lab/practical exams:

Expert lab/practical exam payment, cost, and registration information are found on our Book your Expert Lab/Practical Exam resource page.

PS: Exam vouchers – Learning Credits

Cisco customers and learning partners can redeem their Cisco Learning Credits for certification exam vouchers.

Schedule an exam:

The exam can usually be scheduled up to six weeks in advance, and the exam can be scheduled on the same day at the latest. For exams other than the CCIE laboratory exam, please schedule the exam at Pearson VUE. For the CCIE Lab exam, please visit the CCIE website

Success:

Within 24 hours of passing the certification exam, you will receive an email telling you the next steps. You must complete the steps that trigger the fulfillment process.
Exam and certification status recorded in the Cisco Certification Tracking System. Update your contact information in time to receive notifications about your certification. After you are certified, you will be authorized to use the Cisco certification mark that identifies you. Before using the logo, you must read and confirm the Cisco Certification Logo Agreement. You can download the logo through the certification tracking system

More details …

Above I have answered the Cisco exam process and methods, and then I will share some free Cisco 300-410 exam practice questions to help you understand your own strength.

Cisco 300-410 exam practice questions (Free test 13Q&A)

The answer is announced at the end of the article

QUESTION 1

An engineer configured two routers connected to two different service providers using BGP with default attributes. One of the links is presenting high delay, which causes slowness in the network. Which BGP attribute must the engineer configure to avoid using the high-delay ISP link if the second ISP link is up?

A. LOCAL_PREF
B. MED
C. WEIGHT
D. AS-PATH

 

QUESTION 2

Refer to the exhibit. Users report that IP addresses cannot be acquired from the DHCP server. The DHCP server is
configured as shown. About 300 total nonconcurrent users are using this DHCP server, but none of them are active for
more than two hours per day. Which action fixes the issue within the current resources?

cisco 300-410 exam questions q2

A. Modify the subnet mask to the network 192.168.1.0 255.255.254.0 command in the DHCP pool
B. Configure the DHCP lease time to a smaller value
C. Configure the DHCP lease time to a bigger value
D. Add the network 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 command to the DHCP pool

 

QUESTION 3

Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 300-410 exam questions q3

An engineer is troubleshooting BGP on a device but discovers that the clock on the device does not correspond to the
time stamp of the log entries. Which action ensures consistency between the two times?

A. Configure the service timestamps log uptime command in global configuration mode.
B. Configure the logging clock synchronize command in global configuration mode.
C. Configure the service timestamps log datetime localtime command in global configuration mode.
D. Make sure that the clock on the device is synchronized with an NTP server.

The Time zone needs to be changed. default it UTC Central European Time (CET)
https://community.cisco.com/t5/networking-documents/router-log-timestamp-entries-are-different-from-the-systemclock/ta-p/3132258

 

QUESTION 4

A DMVPN single hub topology is using IPsec + mGRE with OSPF. What should be configured on the hub to ensure it
will be the designated router?

A. tunnel interface of the hub with ip nhrp ospf dr
B. OSPF priority to 0
C. route map to set the metrics of learned routes to 110
D. OSPF priority greater than 1

By default, the priority is 1 on all routers so we can set the OSPF priority of the hub to a value which is greater than 1 to
make sure it would become the DR.

 

QUESTION 5

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the OSPF adjacency states from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.
Select and Place:

cisco 300-410 exam questions q5

Correct Answer:

cisco 300-410 exam questions q5-1 cisco 300-410 exam questions q5-2

Down

This is the first OSPF neighbor state. It means that no information (hellos) has been received from this neighbor, but
hello packets can still be sent to the neighbor in this state. During the fully adjacent neighbor state, if a router doesn\\’t receive

hello packet from a neighbor within the Router Dead Interval time (RouterDeadInterval = 4*HelloInterval by default) or if the manually configured neighbor is being removed from the configuration, then the neighbor state changes from Full to Down.

Attempt

This state is only valid for manually configured neighbors in an NBMA environment. In Attempt state, the router sends
unicast hello packets every poll interval to the neighbor, from which hellos have not been received within the dead
interval.

Init

This state specifies that the router has received a hello packet from its neighbor, but the receiving router\\’s ID was not
included in the hello packet. When a router receives a hello packet from a neighbor, it should list the sender\\’s router ID in its hello packet as an acknowledgment that it received a valid hello packet.

2-Way

This state designates that bi-directional communication has been established between two routers. Bi-directional means that each router has seen the other\\’s hello packet. This state is attained when the router receiving the hello packet sees its own Router ID within the received hello packet\\’s neighbor field. At this state, a router decides whether to become adjacent with this neighbor. On broadcast media and non-broadcast multiaccess networks, a router becomes full only with the designated router (DR) and the backup designated router (BDR); it stays in the 2-way state with all other neighbors.

On Point-to-point and Point-to-multipoint networks, a router becomes full with all connected routers.
At the end of this stage, the DR and BDR for broadcast and non-broadcast multiacess networks are elected. For more
information on the DR election process, refer to DR Election. Note: Receiving a Database Descriptor (DBD) packet from
a neighbor in the init state will also a cause a transition to 2-way state.

Exstart

Once the DR and BDR are elected, the actual process of exchanging link state information can start between the
routers and their DR and BDR. (ie. Shared or NBMA networks). In this state, the routers and their DR and BDR
establish a master-slave relationship and choose the initial sequence number for adjacency formation. The router with the higher router ID becomes the master and starts the exchange, and as such, is the only router that can increment the sequence number. Note that one would logically conclude that the DR/BDR with the highest router ID will become the master during this process of master-slave relation. Remember that the DR/BDR election might be purely by virtue of a higher priority configured on the router instead of highest router ID. Thus, it is possible that a DR plays the role of slave. And also note that master/slave election is on a per-neighbor basis.

Exchange

In the exchange state, OSPF routers exchange database descriptor (DBD) packets. Database descriptors contain linkstate advertisement (LSA) headers only and describe the contents of the entire link-state database. Each DBD packet has a sequence number which can be incremented only by master which is explicitly acknowledged by slave. Routers also send link-state request packets and link-state update packets (which contain the entire LSA) in this state. The contents of the DBD received are compared to the information contained in the routers link-state database to check if new or more current link-state information is available with the neighbor.

Loading

In this state, the actual exchange of link state information occurs. Based on the information provided by the DBDs,
routers send link-state request packets. The neighbor then provides the requested link- state information in link-state
update packets. During the adjacency, if a router receives an outdated or missing LSA, it requests that LSA by sending a linkstate request packet. All link-state update packets are acknowledged.

Full

In this state, routers are fully adjacent with each other. All the router and network LSAs are exchanged and the routers\\’ databases are fully synchronized. Full is the normal state for an OSPF router. If a router is stuck in another state, it is an indication that there are problems in forming adjacencies. The only exception to this is the 2-way state, which is normal in a broadcast network. Routers achieve the FULL state with their DR and BDR in NBMA/broadcast media and FULL state with every neighbor in the remaining media such as point-to- point and point-to-multipoint.
Note: The DR and BDR that achieve FULL state with every router on the segment will display FULL/DROTHER when
you enter the show ip ospf neighbor command on either a DR or BDR. This simply means that the neighbor is not a DR
or BDR, but since the router on which the command was entered is either a DR or BDR, this shows the neighbor as
FULL/DROTHER.

Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/open-shortest-path-first-ospf/13685-13.html
+
Each router compares the DBD packets that were received from the other router: Exchange
+
Routers exchange information with other routers in the multiaccess network: Exstart
+
The neighboring router requests the other routers to send missing entries: Loading
+
The network has already elected a DR and a backup BDR: 2-way
+
The OSPF router ID of the receiving router was not contained in the hello message: Init
+
No hellos have been received from a neighbor router: Down

When OSPF adjacency is formed, a router goes through several state changes before it becomes fully adjacent with its
neighbor.

The states are Down -> Attempt (optional) -> Init -> 2-Way -> Exstart -> Exchange -> Loading -> Full. Short descriptions about these states are listed below:

Down: no information (hellos) has been received from this neighbor. Attempt: only valid for manually configured
neighbors in an NBMA environment. In Attempt state, the router sends unicast hello packets every poll interval to the
neighbor, from which hellos have not been received within the dead interval.

Init: specifies that the router has received a hello packet from its neighbor, but the receiving router\\’s ID was not
included in the hello packet

2-Way: indicates bi-directional communication has been established between two routers. Exstart: Once the DR and
BDR are elected, the actual process of exchanging link state information can start between the routers and their DR
and BDR.

Exchange: OSPF routers exchange and compare database descriptor (DBD) packets Loading: In this state, the actual
exchange of link state information occurs. Outdated or missing entries are also requested to be resent.

Full: routers are fully adjacent with each other
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/tech/tk365/technologies_tech_note09186a0080093f0e.shtml

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/open-shortest-path-first-ospf/13685-13.html

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/open-shortest-path-first-ospf/13685-13.html

 

QUESTION 6

What is the output of the following command: show ip vrf

A. Show\\’s default RD values
B. Displays IP routing table information associated with a VRF
C. Show\\’s routing protocol information associated with a VRF.
D. Displays the ARP table (static and dynamic entries) in the specified VRF

 

QUESTION 7

cisco 300-410 exam questions q7

Refer to the exhibits. A user on the 192.168.1.0/24 network can successfully ping 192.168.3.1, but the administrator
cannot ping 192.168.3.1 from the LA router. Which set of configurations fixes the issue?

cisco 300-410 exam questions q7-1

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

 

QUESTION 8

cisco 300-410 exam questions q8

Refer to the exhibit.Which routes from OSPF process 5 are redistributed into EIGRP?

A. E1 and E2 subnets matching access list TO-OSPF
B. E1 and E2 subnets matching prefix list TO-OSPF
C. only E2 subnets matching access list TO-OSPF
D. only E1 subnets matching prefix listTO-OS1

 

QUESTION 9

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the packet types from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.
Select and Place:

cisco 300-410 exam questions q9

Correct Answer:

cisco 300-410 exam questions q9-1

Unlike legacy network technologies such as ISDN, Frame Relay, and ATM that defined separate data and control
channels, IP carries all packets within a single pipe. Thus, IP network devices such as routers and switches must be
able to distinguish between data plane, control plane, and management plane packets to treat each packet
appropriately. From an IP traffic plane perspective, packets may be divided into four distinct, logical groups:

1.

Data plane packets -End-station, user-generated packets that are always forwarded by network devices to other endstation devices. From the perspective of the network device, data plane packets always have a transit destination IP
address and can be handled by normal, destination IP address- based forwarding processes.

2.

Control plane packets -Network device generated or received packets that are used for the creation and operation of
the network itself. From the perspective of the network device, control plane packets always have a receive destination
IP address and are handled by the CPU in the network device route processor. Examples include protocols such as
ARP, BGP, OSPF, and other protocols that glue the network together.

3.

Management plane packets -Network device generated or received packets, or management station generated or
received packets that are used to manage the network. From the perspective of the network device, management plane
packets always have a receive destination IP address and are handled by the CPU in the network device route
processor. Examples include protocols such as Telnet, Secure Shell (SSH), TFTP, SNMP, FTP, NTP, and other
protocols used to manage the device and/or network.

4.

Services plane packets -A special case of data plane packets, services plane packets are also user- generated packets
that are also forwarded by network devices to other end-station devices, but that require high-touch handling by the
network device (above and beyond normal, destination IP address-based forwarding) to forward the packet.
Examples of high-touch handling include such functions as GRE encapsulation, QoS, MPLS VPNs, and SSL/IPsec
encryption/decryption, etc. From the perspective of the network device, services plane packets may have a transit
destination IP address, or may have a receive destination IP address (for example, in the case of a VPN tunnel
endpoint).

Reference: https://tools.cisco.com/security/center/resources/copp_best_practices

 

QUESTION 10

cisco 300-410 exam questions q10

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is troubleshooting OSPF adjacency issue by going through the console
logs in the router, but due to an overwhelming log messages stream, it is impossible to capture the problem. Which two commands reduce console log messages to relevant OSPF neighbor problem details so that the issue can be resolved? (Choose two.)

A. debug condition ospf neighbor
B. debug condition interface
C. debug condition session-id ADJCHG
D. debug condition all

 

QUESTION 11

Refer to the exhibit. What does the imp-null tag represent in the MPLS VPN cloud?

cisco 300-410 exam questions q11

A. Pop the label
B. Impose the label
C. Include the EXP bit
D. Exclude the EXP bit

The imp-null (implicit null) tag instructs the upstream router to pop the tag entry off the tag stack before forwarding the packet. Note: pop means remove the top MPLS label

 

QUESTION 12

cisco 300-410 exam questions q12

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator redistributed the default static route into OSPF toward all internal routers to reach to Internet. Which set of commands restores reachability to the Internet by internal routers?

A. router ospf 1 default-information originate
B. router ospf 1 network 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 area 0
C. router ospf 1 redistribute connected 0.0.0.0
D. router ospf 1 redistribute static subnets

 

QUESTION 13

Which configuration adds an IPv4 interface to an OSPFv3 process in OSPFv3 address family configuration?

A. router ospfv3 1 address-family ipv4
B. Router(config-router)#ospfv3 1 ipv4 area 0
C. Router(config-if)#ospfv3 1 ipv4 area 0
D. router ospfv3 1 address-family ipv4 unicast

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/iproute_ospf/configuration/xe-3s/iro-xe-3s-book/ip6-routeospfv3-add-fam-xe.html

Verify answer:

Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13
ABCDimageADAimageABAAD

The complete Cisco 300-410 exam dump has Total Questions: 254 Q&A, please visit https://www.lead4pass.com/300-410.html

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Latest Updated Cisco 350-401 Online Practice Test

The latest Cisco 350-401 exam practice questions are from the dumps part of Lead4Pass 350-401,
and the answers to the questions will be announced at the end of the article

QUESTION 1

Which two results occur if Cisco DNA Center loses connectivity to devices in the SD-Access fabric? (Choose two )

A. All devices reload after detecting loss of connection to Cisco DNA Center
B. Already connected users are unaffected, but new users cannot connect
C. User connectivity is unaffected.
D. Cisco DNA Center is unable to collect monitoring data in Assurance.
E. Users lose connectivity

QUESTION 2

Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 350-401 exam questions q2

You have just created a new VRF on PE3. You have enabled debug IP BGP vpnv4 unicast updates on PE1, and you can
see the route in the debug, but not in the BGP VPNv4 table. Which two statements are true? (Choose two)

A. After you configure route-target import 999:999 for a VRF on PE1, the route will be accepted
B. VPNv4 is not configured between PE1 and PE3
C. address-family ipv4 or is not configured on PE3
D. PE1 will reject the route due to automatic route filtering
E. After you configure route-target import 999:999 for a VRF on PE3, the route will be accepted

Because some PE routers might receive routing information they do not require, a basic requirement is to be able to
filter the MP-iBGP updates at the ingress to the PE router so that the router does not need to keep this information in
memory. The Automatic Route Filtering feature fulfills this filtering requirement. This feature is available by default on all PE routers, and no additional configuration is necessary to enable it. Its function is to filter automatically VPN-IPv4
routes that contain a route-target extended community that does not match any of the PE\’s configured VRFs. This effectively discards any unwanted VPN-IPv4 routes silently, thus reducing the amount of information that the PE has to store in memory -> Answer \’ PE1 will reject the route due to automatic route filtering\’ is correct.

Reference:

MPLS and VPN Architectures Book, Volume 1
The reason that PE1 dropped the route is there is no “route-target import 999:999” command on PE1 (so we see the
“DENIED due to the extended community not supported” in the debug) so we need to type this command to accept this route -> Answer \’ After you configure route-target import 999:999 for a VRF on PE1, the route will be accepted\’ is correct.

QUESTION 3

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must simplify the IPsec configuration by enabling IPsec over GRE using IPsec
profiles. Which two configuration changes accomplish this? (Choose two).

cisco 350-401 exam questions q3

A. Apply the crypto map to the tunnel interface and change the tunnel mode to tunnel mode IPSec ipv4.
B. Create an IPsec profile, associate the transform-set. and apply the profile to the tunnel interface.
C. Remove the crypto map and modify the ACL to allow traffic between 10.10.0.0/24 to 10.20.0.0/24.
D. Remove all configuration related to crypto map from R1 and R2 and eliminate the ACL |>]
E. Create an IPsec profile, associate the transform-set ACL. and apply the profile to the tunnel interface

QUESTION 4

Which function does a fabric AP perform in a Cisco SD-Access deployment?

A. It updates wireless clients’ locations in the fabric
B. It connects wireless clients to the fabric.
C. It manages wireless clients’ membership information in the fabric
D. It configures security policies down to wireless clients in the fabric

QUESTION 5

Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 350-401 exam questions q5

Assuming that R is a CE router, which VRF is assigned to Gi0/0 on R1?

A. VRF VPN_B
B. Default VRF
C. Management VRF
D. VRF VPN_A

There is nothing special with the configuration of Gi0/0 on R1. Only the Gi0/0 interface on R2 is assigned to VRF VPN_A. The default VRF here is similar to the global routing table concept in Cisco IOS

QUESTION 6

Which line must be added in the Python function to return the JSON object {“cat_9k”: “FXS193202SE”)?

cisco 350-401 exam questions q6

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

QUESTION 7

What is the result when an active route processor fails in a design that combines NSF with SSO?

A. An NSF-aware device immediately updates the standby route processor RIB without churning the network
B. The standby route processor temporarily forwards packets until route convergence is complete
C. An NSF-capable device immediately updates the standby route processor RIB without churning the network
D. The standby route processor immediately takes control and forwards packets along known routes

QUESTION 8

Which IPv6 migration method relies on dynamic tunnels that use the 2002::/16 reserved address space?

A. GRE
B. 6RD
C. 6to4
D. ISATAP

6to4 tunnel is a technique which relies on reserved address space 2002::/16 (you must remember this range). These
tunnels determine the appropriate destination address by combining the IPv6 prefix with the globally unique destination 6to4 border router\’s IPv4 address, beginning with the 2002::/16 prefix, in this format: 2002:border-routerIPv4-address::/48 For example, if the border-router-IPv4-address is 64.101.64.1, the tunnel interface will have an IPv6 prefix of 2002:4065:4001:1::/64, where 4065:4001 is the hexadecimal equivalent of 64.101.64.1. This technique allows IPv6 sites to communicate with each other over the IPv4 network without explicit tunnel setup but we have to implement it on all routers on the path.

QUESTION 9

To increase total throughput and redundancy on the links between the wireless controller and switch, the customer
enabled LAG on the wireless controller. Which EtherChannel mode must be configured on the switch to allow the WLC
to connect?

A. Auto
B. Active
C. On
D. Passive

Link aggregation (LAG) is a partial implementation of the 802.3ad port aggregation standard. It bundles all of the
controller\’s distribution system ports into a single 802.3ad port channel. Restriction for Link aggregation:

  • LAG requires the EtherChannel to be configured for ‘mode on’ on both the controller and the Catalyst switch. …
    Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/wireless-mobility-documents/lag-link-aggregation/ta-p/3128669

QUESTION 10

Refer to the exhibit. What happens to access interfaces where VLAN 222 is assigned?

cisco 350-401 exam questions q10

A. STP BPDU guard is enabled
B. A description “RSPAN” is added
C. They are placed into an inactive state
D. They cannot provide PoE

cisco 350-401 exam questions q10-1

QUESTION 11

DRAG-DROP
Drag and drop the characteristics from the left onto the QoS components they describe on the right.
Select and Place:

cisco 350-401 exam questions q11

Correct Answer:

cisco 350-401 exam questions q11-1

Marking = applied on traffic to convey Information to a downstream device Classification = distinguish traffic types Trust = Permits traffic to pass through the device while retaining DSCP/COS values shaping = process used to buffer traffic that exceeds a predefined rate

QUESTION 12

An engineer has deployed a single Cisco 5520 WLC with a management IP address of 172.16.50.5/24. The engineer
must register 50 new Cisco AIR-CAP2802I-E-K9 access points to the WLC using DHCP option 43. The access points
are connected to a switch in VLAN 100 that uses the 172.16.100.0/24 subnet. The engineer has configured the DHCP
scope on the switch as follows:

cisco 350-401 exam questions q12

The access points are failing to join the wireless LAN controller. Which action resolves the issue?
A. configure option 43 Hex F104.AC10.3205
B. configure option 43 Hex F104.CA10.3205
C. configure DNS-server 172.16.50.5
D. configure DNS-server 172.16.100.1

172.16.50.5 in hex is We will have the answer from this paragraph: “TLV values for the Option 43 suboption: Type +
Length + Value. Type is always the suboption code 0xf1. Length is the number of controller management IP addresses
times 4 in hex.

Value is the IP address of the controller listed sequentially in hex. For example, suppose there are two
controllers with management interface IP addresses, 192.168.10.5 and 192.168.10.20. The type is 0xf1. The length is 2*4 = 8 =

0x08. The IP addresses translates to c0a80a05 (192.168.10.5) and c0a80a14 (192.168.10.20). When the string is
assembled, it yields f108c0a80a05c0a80a14. The Cisco IOS IT Certification Guaranteed, The Easy Way! 81command
that is added to the DHCP scope is option 43 hex f108c0a80a05c0a80a14.”

Reference:

Click Therefore in this question, option 43 in hex should be “F104.AC10.3205 (the management IP address of 172.16.50.5 in hex is AC.10.32.05).

QUESTION 13

If a VRRP master router fails, which router is selected as the new master router?

A. router with the highest priority
B. router with the highest loopback address
C. router with the lowest loopback address
D. router with the lowest priority

QUESTION 14

A network engineer is configuring Flexible Netflow and enters these commands
Sampler Netflow1 Mode random one-out-of 100 Interface FastEthernet 1/0 Flow-sampler netflow1

Which are two results of implementing this feature instead of traditional Netflow? (Choose two.)

A. CPU and memory utilization are reduced.
B. Only the flows of top 100 talkers are exported
C. The data export flow is more secure.
D. The number of packets to be analyzed is reduced
E. The accuracy of the data to be analyzed is improved

QUESTION 15

Which statement about LISP encapsulation in an EIGRP OTP implementation is true?

A. LISP learns the next hop
B. OTP uses LISP encapsulation to obtain routes from neighbors
C. OTP uses LISP encapsulation for dynamic multipoint tunneling
D. OTP maintains the LISP control plane

The EIGRP Over the Top solution can be used to ensure connectivity between disparate EIGRP sites. This feature uses
EIGRP on the control plane and Locator ID Separation Protocol (LISP) encapsulation on the data plane to route traffic
across the underlying WAN architecture.

EIGRP is used to distribute routes between customer edge (CE) devices within
the network, and the traffic forwarded across the WAN architecture is LISP encapsulated. EIGRP OTP only uses LISP
for the data plane, EIGRP is still used for the control plane. Therefore we cannot say OTP uses LISP encapsulation for
dynamic multipoint tunneling as this requires encapsulating both data and control plane traffic -> Answer \’ OTP uses
LISP encapsulation for dynamic multipoint tunneling\’ is not correct.

In OTP, EIGRP serves as the replacement for LISP
control plane protocols (therefore EIGRP will learn the next hop, not LISP -> Answer \’ LISP learns the next hop\’ is not
correct). Instead of doing dynamic EID-to- RLOC mappings in native LISP-mapping services, EIGRP routers running
OTP over a service provider cloud create targeted sessions, use the IP addresses provided by the service provider as
RLOCs, and exchange routes as EIDs. Let\’s take an example:

cisco 350-401 exam questions q15

If R1 and R2 ran OTP to each other, R1 would learn about the network 10.0.2.0/24 from R2 through EIGRP, treat the
prefix 10.0.2.0/24 as an EID prefix, and take the advertising next hop 198.51.100.62 as the RLOC for this EID-prefix.
Similarly, R2 would learn from R1 about the network 10.0.1.0/24 through EIGRP, treat the prefix 10.0.1.0/24 as an EID prefix, and take the advertising next hop 192.0.2.31 as the RLOC for this EID-prefix. On both routers, this information
would be used to populate the LISP mapping tables. Whenever a packet from 10.0.1.0/24 to 10.0.2.0/24 would arrive at
R1 would use its LISP mapping tables just like in ordinary LISP to discover that the packet has to be LISP
encapsulated and tunneled toward 198.51.100.62, and vice versa. The LISP data plane is reused in OTP and does not
change; however, the native LISP mapping and resolving mechanisms are replaced by EIGRP. Reference: CCIE
Routing and Switching V5.0 Official Cert Guide, Volume 1, Fifth Edition

Publish the answer:

Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13Q14Q15
CDADAEBBDBCCCimageAAADC

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This exam tests your knowledge of Cisco switches in ACI mode including:

  • ACI Fabric Infrastructure
  • ACI Packet Forwarding
  • External Network Connectivity
  • Integrations
  • ACI Management
  • ACI Anywhere

Latest Updates Cisco 300-620 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1

An engineer is extending EPG connectivity to an external network. The external network houses the Layer 3 gateway
and other end hosts. Which ACI bridge domain configuration should be used?
A. Forwarding: Custom L2 Unknown Unicast: Hardware Proxy L3 Unknown Multicast Flooding: Flood Multi-Destination
Flooding: Flood in BD ARP Flooding: Enabled
B. Forwarding: Custom L2 Unknown Unicast: Flood L3 Unknown Multicast Flooding: Flood Multi-Destination Flooding:
Flood in BD ARP Flooding: Enabled
C. Forwarding: Custom L2 Unknown Unicast: Hardware Proxy L3 Unknown Multicast Flooding: Flood Multi-Destination
Flooding: Flood in BD ARP Flooding: Disabled
D. Forwarding: Custom L2 Unknown Unicast: Flood L3 Unknown Multicast Flooding: Flood Multi-Destination Flooding:
Flood in BD ARP Flooding: Disabled

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2

Which two dynamic routing protocols are supported when using the Cisco ACI to connect to an external Layer 3 network?
(Choose two.)
A. iBGP
B. VXLAN
C. IS-IS
D. RIPv2
E. eBGP

Correct Answer: AE

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/1-x/ACI_Best_Practices/b_ACI_Best
_Practices/b_ACI_Best_Practices_chapter_010010.html

QUESTION 3

lead4pass 300-620 exam questions q3

Refer to the exhibit. A client reports that the ACI domain connectivity to the fiber channel storage is experiencing a B2B
credit oversubscription. The environment has an SYSLOG server for state collection messages. Which value should be
chosen to clear the critical fault?
A. 300
B. 410
C. 350
D. 510

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4

Which two statements regarding ACI Multi-Site are true? (Choose two.)
A. The Multi-Site orchestrator must be directly attached to one ACI leaf.
B. Routers in the Inter-Site network must run OSPF, DHCP relay, and MP-BGP.
C. ACI Multi-Site is a solution that supports a dedicated APIC cluster per site.
D. ACI Multi-Site is a solution that allows one APIC cluster to manage multiple ACI sites.
E. The Inter-Site network routers should run OSPF to establish peering with the spines.

Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 5

Which statement about the ACI Syslog is true?
A. Notifications for different scopes of Syslog objects can be sent only to one destination.
B. Syslog messages are sent to the destination through the spine.
C. All Syslog messages are sent to the destination through APIC.
D. Switches send Syslog messages directly to the destinations.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.ciscolive.com/c/dam/r/ciscolive/us/docs/2016/pdf/BRKACI-2303.pdf

QUESTION 6

In the context of VMM, which protocol between ACI leaf and compute hosts ensures that the policies are pushed to the
leaf switches for immediate and on-demand resolution immediacy?
A. VXLAN
B. LLDP
C. ISIS
D. STP

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/1-x/ACI_Best_Practices/b_ACI_Best
_Practices/b_ACI_Best_Practices_chapter_0101.html

QUESTION 7

What must be enabled in the bridge domain to have the endpoint table learn the IP addresses of endpoints?
A. L2 unknown unicast: flood
B. GARP based detection
C. unicast-routing
D. subnet scope

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://hsvglobalschool.in/dhkycw/cisco-aci-bridge-domain.html

QUESTION 8

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the Cisco ACI Layer 4 to Layer 7 service insertion terms on the left to the correct descriptions on the
right.
Select and Place:

lead4pass 300-620 exam questions q8

QUESTION 9

Which attribute should be configured for each user to enable RADIUS for external authentication in Cisco ACI?
A. cisco-security domain
B. cisco-auth-features
C. cisco-aci-role
D. cisco-av-pair

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/2-x/Security_config/b_Cisco_APIC_S
ecurity_Configuration_Guide/b_Cisco_APIC_Security_Guide_chapter_01011.html

QUESTION 10

Which statement regarding ACI Multi-Pod and TEP pool is true?
A. The IP addresses used in the IPN network can overlap the TEP pool of the APIC.
B. A different TEP pool must be assigned to each Pod.
C. The Pod1 TEP pool must be split and a portion of the TEP pool allocated to each Pod.
D. The same TEP pool is used in all Pods.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/application-centricinfrastructure/white-paper-c11-739714.html

QUESTION 11

lead4pass 300-620 exam questions q11

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is integrating a VMware vCenter with the Cisco ACI VMM domain configuration. ACI
creates port-group names with the format of “Tenant | Application | EPG”. Which configuration option is used to
generate port groups with names formatted as “Tenant=Application=EPG”?
A. enable tag collection
B. security domains
C. delimiter
D. virtual switch name

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12

lead4pass 300-620 exam questions q12

Refer to the exhibit. Which two objects are created as a result of the configuration? (Choose two.)
A. application profile
B. attachable AEP
C. bridge domain
D. endpoint group
E. VRF

Correct Answer: CE

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/2-x/rest_cfg/2_1_x/b_Cisco_APIC_R
EST_API_Configuration_Guide/b_Cisco_APIC_REST_API_Configuration_Guide_chapter_01110.html

QUESTION 13

Which description regarding the initial APIC cluster discovery process is true?
A. The APIC uses an internal IP address from a pool to communicate with the nodes.
B. Every switch is assigned a unique AV by the APIC.
C. The APIC discovers the IP address of the other APIC controllers by using Cisco Discovery Protocol.
D. The ACI fabric is discovered starting with the spine switches.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/1-x/aci-fundamentals/b_ACIFundamentals/b_ACI-Fundamentals_chapter_010011.html

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  • Compute platforms
  • Storage network
  • Automation
  • Management and operations

Latest Updates Cisco 300-615 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
A mission-critical server is connected to site A. Connectivity to this server is lost from site B because the MAC route is
missing in the OTV VDC of the Nexus 7000 in site B due to MAC aging. Which action allows the flooding of the
unknown unicast MAC on the Nexus 7000 in the OTV VDC?
A. Use route-map to advertise this MAC statically and redistribute with ISIS.
B. Unknown unicast flooding is not allowed.
C. Use the otv flood mac command to selectively flood traffic for a given MAC.
D. Use the otv isis bfd command to configure the BFD protocol.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2

lead4pass 300-615 exam questions q2

Refer to an exhibit. An engineer is troubleshooting an upgrade failure on a switch. Which action resolves the issue?
A. Save the system image in NVRAM.
B. Use the same system image as the kickstart image.
C. Load a new system image.
D. Reload the same system image.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Cisco Unified Computing System Manager raises a critical error message that indicates that the system has overlapping
Ethernet and FCoE VLANs. All of the Ethernet traffic on the overlapping VLANs drops. Which action resolves the
issue?
A. Modify the VLAN assignment to vNICs.
B. Change the PIN groups on the HBAs.
C. Modify the FCoE VLAN.
D. Set the FCoE VLAN as the native VLAN on server uplinks.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4

lead4pass 300-615 exam questions q4

Refer to the exhibit. The spanning tree is blocking the connection between N9K-DC1-Core-1 and N9K-DC1-Access-1.
All ports are up and configured. Which configuration resolves the issue?
A. Set the path cost method to long on all three switches
B. Configure a vPC between N9K-DC1-Core-1 and N9K-DC1-Access-1
C. Configure LACP between N9K-DC1-Core-1 and N9K-DC1-Access-1
D. Lower the spanning-tree cost on the connection between N9K-DC1-Core-2 and N9K-DC1-Access-1
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5

lead4pass 300-615 exam questions q5

Refer to the exhibit. The initiator that has FC ID 0x970102 fails to communicate with the target that has FC ID
0x970200. What action resolves the issue?
A. Reconfigure the initiator and the target to be in the same zones.
B. Reactivate the zoneset.
C. Reset the port for FC ID 0x970102 and FC ID 0x970200 to log in to the fabric.
D. Reset the port for FC ID 0x970209 and FC ID 0x9700c2 to log in to the fabric.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
An engineer is troubleshooting a failed DCBX exchange between a server and a Cisco Nexus switch. Which action
allows DCBX to successfully negotiate?
A. Enable ETS
B. Enable PFC.
C. Enable the Cisco Discovery Protocol.
D. Enable LLDP.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
One of Cisco Nexus Series interfaces has become err-disabled with the error message “DCX-No ACK in 100 PDUs”.
What is the cause of this error?
A. The host has not responded to the Control Sub-TLV DCBX exchanges of the switch.
B. The acknowledgment number in the server response has not incremented for 100 exchanges.
C. Cisco Discovery Protocol is disabled on the switch.D. LLDP is disabled on the switch.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8

lead4pass 300-615 exam questions q8

Refer to the exhibit. Partial configuration from N9K-1 and N9K-2 is included. The client has two WANs connected. 1.
WAN-1 is for normal business-day activities.
2.
WAN-2 is for server backups during nonworking hours of 1:00 a.m. to 5:00 a.m. daily.
The client says that at the scheduled time for backup, the data center server failed to use the WAN-2 link to back up the
servers to the cloud backup system. What is the solution to this problem?
A. The event timer must be written in epoch time format.
B. The Cisco Nexus switch must be configured with one applet because a configuration with two applets will fail.
C. The Cron entry must be configured without double-quotes.
D. The applet called “Backup” must include an action to remove the current static route.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the Cisco UCS SNMP fault types from the left onto the correct issues on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 300-615 exam questions q9

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 300-615 exam questions q9-1

QUESTION 10

lead4pass 300-615 exam questions q10

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is troubleshooting why user1, user2, and user3 from group STORAGEADMINISTRATOR in Microsoft Active Directory cannot log in to the Cisco MDS SSH CLI. Which action resolves the
issue?
A. Configure the role name to match the group name on Microsoft Active Directory.
B. Include specific users into the MDS role configuration.
C. Configure SSH logins on the Cisco MDS switch.
D. Integrate Cisco MDS with Microsoft Active Directory.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11

lead4pass 300-615 exam questions q11

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is configuring boot from iSCSI on a Cisco UCS B-Series Blade Server, but the LUN
fails to mount. Which action resolves the issue?
A. Statically configure the target information in the Boot Policy.
B. Configure an MTU size of 9000 on the appliance port.
C. Configure a QoS policy on the vNIC.
D. Set a connection timeout value of 250 in the iSCSI Adapter Policy.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12

lead4pass 300-615 exam questions q12

Refer to the exhibit. A web browser displays a “not secure” warning message when accessing the web interface of
Cisco UCS Manager. Which action resolves the issue?
A. Load a third-party certificate to UCS Manager.
B. Use the correct TCP port for HTTPS.
C. Use a supported web browser.
D. Use a supported version of UCS Manager.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the commands from the left onto the correct categories on the right.
Select and Place:

lead4pass 300-615 exam questions q13

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 300-615 exam questions q13-1

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