[Nov 2022] New update CCNP Security 350-701 dumps with PDF and VCE

new update 350-701 dumps

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The new Update 350-701 Dumps covers virtually all exam content for the complete implementation and operation of core security techniques: Network security, Cloud security, Content security, Endpoint protection and detection, Secure network access Visibility, and enforcement.

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Read the free CCNP Security 350-701 exam questions and answers online:

Number of exam questionsExam NameFromRelease timePrevious issue
13Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR)Lead4PassNov 15, 2022350-701 dumps questions
NEW QUESTION 1:

How does Cisco Umbrella archive logs to enterprise-owned storage?

A. by using the Application Programming Interface to fetch the logs

B. by sending logs via Syslog to an on-premises or cloud-based Syslog server

C. by the system administrator downloading the logs from the Cisco Umbrella web portal

D. by being configured to send logs to a self-managed AWS S3 bucket

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.umbrella.com/deployment-umbrella/docs/manage-logs

NEW QUESTION 2:

An administrator is configuring NIP on Cisco ASA via ASDM and needs to ensure that rogue NTP servers cannot insert themselves as the authoritative time source Which two steps must be taken to accomplish this task? (Choose two)

A. Specify the NTP version

B. Configure the NTP stratum

C. Set the authentication key

D. Choose the interface for syncing to the NTP server

E. Set the NTP DNS hostname

Correct Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 3:

Refer to the exhibit.

new 350-701 exam questions 3
new 350-701 exam questions 3-1

What is the function of the Python script code snippet for the Cisco ASA REST API?

A. adds a global rule into policies

B. changes the hostname of the Cisco ASA

C. deletes a global rule from policies

D. obtains the saved configuration of the Cisco ASA firewall

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 4:

An engineer notices traffic interruption on the network. Upon further investigation, it is learned that broadcast packets have been flooding the network.

What must be configured, based on a predefined threshold, to address this issue?

A. Bridge Protocol Data Unit Guard

B. embedded event monitoring

C. storm control

D. access control lists

Correct Answer: C

ExplanationStorm control prevents traffic on a LAN from being disrupted by a broadcast, multicast, or unicast storm on one of the physical interfaces.

A LAN storm occurs when packets flood the LAN, creating excessive traffic and degrading network performance. Errors in the protocol-stack implementation, mistakes in network configurations, or users issuing a denial-of-service attack can cause a storm.

By using the ” storm-control broadcast level [falling-threshold]” we can limit the broadcast traffic on the switch.

NEW QUESTION 5:

Which method is used to deploy certificates and configure the supplicant on mobile devices to gain access to network resources?

A. BYOD onboarding

B. Simple Certificate Enrollment Protocol

C. Client provisioning

D. MAC authentication bypass

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/ise/2- 4/admin_guide/b_ISE_admin_guide_24/
m_ise_devices_byod.html

NEW QUESTION 6:

Refer to the exhibit.

new 350-701 exam questions 6

When configuring a remote access VPN solution terminating on the Cisco ASA, an administrator would like to utilize an external token authentication mechanism in conjunction with AAA authentication using machine certificates.

Which configuration item must be modified to allow this?

A. Group Policy

B. Method

C. SAML Server

D. DHCP Servers

Correct Answer: B

In order to use AAA along with an external token authentication mechanism, set the “Method” as “Both” in the Authentication.

NEW QUESTION 7:

Refer to the exhibit.

new 350-701 exam questions 7

How does Cisco Umbrella manage traffic that is directed toward risky domains?

A. Traffic is provided through the intelligent proxy.

B. Traffic is managed by the security settings and blocked.

C. Traffic is managed by the application settings, unhandled and allowed.

D. Traffic is allowed but logged.

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 8:

What is the purpose of CA in a PKI?

A. To issue and revoke digital certificates

B. To validate the authenticity of a digital certificate

C. To create the private key for a digital certificate

D. To certify the ownership of a public key by the named subject

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://cheapsslsecurity.com/blog/understanding-the-role-of-certificate- authorities-in-pki/

NEW QUESTION 9:

What is the benefit of using Cisco Tetration?

A. It collects telemetry data from servers and then uses software sensors to analyze flow information.

B. It collects policy compliance data and process details.

C. It collects enforcement data from servers and collects interpacket variation.

D. It collects near-real-time data from servers and inventories the software packages that exist on servers.

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 10:

Which two fields are defined in the NetFlow flow? (Choose two)

A. type of service byte

B. class of service bits

C. Layer 4 protocol type

D. destination port

E. output logical interface

Correct Answer: AD

Cisco standard NetFlow version 5 defines a flow as a unidirectional sequence of packets that all share seven values which define a unique key for the flow:+ Ingress interface (SNMP ifIndex)+ Source IP address+ Destination IP address+ IP protocol+ Source port for UDP or TCP, 0 for other protocols+ Destination port for UDP or TCP, type and code for ICMP, or 0 for other protocols+ IP Type of

ServiceNow:
A flow is a unidirectional series of packets between a given source and destination.

NEW QUESTION 11:

An organization wants to secure data in a cloud environment. Its security model requires that all users be authenticated and authorized.

Security configuration and posture must be continuously validated before access is granted or maintained to applications and data.

There is also a need to allow certain application traffic and deny all other traffic by default.

Which technology must be used to implement these requirements?

A. Virtual routing and forwarding

B. Microsegmentation

C. Access control policy

D. Virtual LAN

Correct Answer: B

Zero Trust is a security framework requiring all users, whether in or outside the organization\’s network, to be authenticated, authorized, and continuously validated for security configuration and posture before being granted or keeping access to applications and data.

Zero Trust assumes that there is no traditional network edge; networks can be local, in the cloud, or a combination or hybrid with resources anywhere as well as workers in any location.

The Zero Trust model uses micro-segmentation — a security technique that involves dividing perimeters into small zones to maintain separate access to every part of the network — to contain attacks.

NEW QUESTION 12:

Which two characteristics of messenger protocols make data exfiltration difficult to detect and prevent? (Choose two)

A. Outgoing traffic is allowed so users can communicate with outside organizations.

B. Malware infects the messenger application on the user endpoint to send company data.

C. Traffic is encrypted, which prevents visibility on firewalls and IPS systems.

D. An exposed API for the messaging platform is used to send large amounts of data.

E. Messenger applications cannot be segmented with standard network controls

Correct Answer: CE

NEW QUESTION 13:

What is the purpose of the My Devices Portal in a Cisco ISE environment?

A. to register new laptops and mobile devices

B. to request a newly provisioned mobile device

C. to provision userless and agentless systems

D. to manage and deploy antivirus definitions and patches on systems owned by the end-user

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/ise/2- 4/mydevices/b_mydevices_2x.html


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CyberOps Professional 350-201 DUMPS| CISCO CBRCOR EXAM MATERIAL

Cyber​​Ops Professional 350-201 Dumps is the Cisco CBRCOR exam material for core cybersecurity operations. Lead4Pass 350-201 Dumps Prepares Candidates for Cisco CBRCOR Exam Questions and Answers https://www.lead4pass.com/350-201.html helps you earn the Cisco CyberOps Professional Core Certification.

Cisco technology is spread all over the world. This means that CyberOps Professional certified professionals will continue to be sought after, as long as you ensure that you can successfully achieve the CyberOps Professional 350-201 certification. Use the CyberOps Professional 350-201 dumps to guarantee your success with the Cisco CyberOps Professional Core certification.

CyberOps Professional Core FAQs: About, Value, Exam Material

About 350-201 CBRCOR: What You Need to Know

Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 350-201
Exam Name: Performing CyberOps Using Cisco Security Technologies (CBRCOR)
Certification: CyberOps Professional
Languages: English
Price: $400 USD
Duration: 120 mins
Number of Questions: 90-110 questions
Passing score: 80% Approx
350-201 dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/350-201.html (CyberOps Professional core exam dumps maps to Cisco 350-201 CBRCOR exam objectives))
350-201 dumps (Number of Questions): 139 Q&A
Last update time: Sep 23, 2022

Is CyberOps Professional Core certification worth it?

As the complexity of cyberattacks continues to increase in size and scale, your organization needs highly qualified personnel to provide security expertise before, during, and after an attack. The demand is greater now than ever before for professionals with the knowledge and skills to detect and respond to cybersecurity threats, manage security incidents, automate security tasks, and secure the sensitive information of your organization.

Achieving the Cisco Certified CyberOps Professional certification proves your advanced skills as a senior analyst, in a security operation center (SOC), incident response, cloud security, and other active defense security roles.

–source:https://www.globalknowledge.com/en-gb/certifications/certification-training/cisco/cisco-cybersecurity-operations/cisco-certified-cyberops-professional

Free share of a portion of the CyberOps Professional 350-201 CBRCOR exam material

Number of exam questionsExam nameFromRelease time
15Performing CyberOps Using Cisco Security Technologies (CBRCOR)Lead4PassSep 30, 2022
New Question 1:

Refer to the exhibit. A threat actor behind a single computer exploited a cloud-based application by sending multiple concurrent API requests. These requests made the application unresponsive. Which solution protects the application from being overloaded and ensures more equitable application access across the end-user community?

CyberOps Professional 350-201 CBRCOR exam material q1

A. Limit the number of API calls that a single client is allowed to make

B. Add restrictions on the edge router on how often a single client can access the API

C. Reduce the amount of data that can be fetched from the total pool of active clients that call the API

D. Increase the application cache of the total pool of active clients that call the API

Correct Answer: A

New Question 2:

A threat actor attacked an organization\’s Active Directory server from a remote location, and in a thirty-minute timeframe, stole the password for the administrator account and attempted to access 3 company servers. The threat actor successfully accessed the first server that contained sales data, but no files were downloaded. A second server was also accessed that contained marketing information and 11 files were downloaded. When the threat actor accessed the third server that contained corporate financial data, the session was disconnected, and the administrator\’s account was disabled.

Which activity triggered the behavior analytics tool?

A. accessing the Active Directory server

B. accessing the server with financial data

C. accessing multiple servers

D. downloading more than 10 files

Correct Answer: C

New Question 3:
CyberOps Professional 350-201 CBRCOR exam material q3

Refer to the exhibit. Cisco Advanced Malware Protection installed on an end-user desktop has automatically submitted a low prevalence file to the Threat Grid analysis engine for further analysis. What should be concluded from this report?

A. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise do not justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the scores do not indicate the likelihood of malicious ransomware.

B. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise do not justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the scores are high and do not indicate the likelihood of malicious ransomware.

C. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the scores are high and indicate the likelihood that malicious ransomware has been detected.

D. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the scores are low and indicate the likelihood that malicious ransomware has been detected.

Correct Answer: C

New Question 4:

The physical security department received a report that an unauthorized person followed an authorized individual to enter a secured premises. The incident was documented and given to a security specialist to analyze. Which step should be taken at this stage?

A. Determine the assets to which the attacker has access

B. Identify assets the attacker handled or acquired

C. Change access controls to high-risk assets in the enterprise

D. Identify the movement of the attacker in the enterprise

Correct Answer: D

New Question 5:

A new malware variant is discovered hidden in pirated software that is distributed on the Internet. Executives have asked for an organizational risk assessment. The security officer is given a list of all assets. According to NIST, which two elements are missing to calculate the risk assessment? (Choose two.)

A. incident response playbooks

B. asset vulnerability assessment

C. report on staff members with asset relations

D. key assets and executives

E. malware analysis report

Correct Answer: BE

Reference: https://cloudogre.com/risk-assessment/

New Question 6:
CyberOps Professional 350-201 CBRCOR exam material q6

Refer to the exhibit. At which stage of the threat kill chain is an attacker, based on these URIs of inbound web requests from known malicious Internet scanners?

A. exploitation

B. actions on objectives

C. delivery

D. reconnaissance

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www2.deloitte.com/content/dam/Deloitte/sg/Documents/risk/sea-risk-cyber-101-july2017.pdf

New Question 7:
CyberOps Professional 350-201 CBRCOR exam material q7

Refer to the exhibit. Which two steps mitigate attacks on the webserver from the Internet? (Choose two.)

A. Create an ACL on the firewall to allow only TLS 1.3

B. Implement a proxy server in the DMZ network

C. Create an ACL on the firewall to allow only external connections

D. Move the webserver to the internal network

Correct Answer: BD

New Question 8:

According to GDPR, what should be done with data to ensure its confidentiality, integrity, and availability?

A. Perform a vulnerability assessment

B. Conduct a data protection impact assessment

C. Conduct penetration testing

D. Perform awareness testing

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://apdcat.gencat.cat/web/.content/03-documentacio/Reglament_general_de_proteccio_de_dades/documents/DPIA-Guide.pdf

New Question 9:

A payroll administrator noticed unexpected changes within a piece of software and reported the incident to the incident response team. Which actions should be taken at this step in the incident response workflow?

A. Classify the criticality of the information, research the attacker\’s motives, and identify missing patches

B. Determine the damage to the business, extract reports, and save evidence according to a chain of custody

C. Classify the attack vector, understand the scope of the event, and identify the vulnerabilities being exploited

D. Determine the attack surface, evaluate the risks involved, and communicate the incident according to the escalation plan

Correct Answer: B

New Question 10:

A company recently completed an internal audit and discovered that there is a CSRF vulnerability in 20 of its hosted applications. Based on the audit, which recommendation should an engineer make for patching?

A. Identify the business applications running on the assets

B. Update software to patch third-party software

C. Validate CSRF by executing exploits within Metasploit

D. Fix applications according to the risk scores

Correct Answer: D

New Question 11:

An engineer is analyzing a possible compromise that happened a week ago when the company? (Choose two.)

A. firewall

B. Wireshark

C. autopsy

D. SHA512

E. IPS

Correct Answer: AB

New Question 12:

An organization had a breach due to a phishing attack. An engineer leads a team through the recovery phase of the incident response process. Which action should be taken during this phase?

A. Host a discovery meeting and define configuration and policy updates

B. Update the IDS/IPS signatures and reimage the affected hosts

C. Identify the systems that have been affected and tools used to detect the attack

D. Identify the traffic with data capture using Wireshark and review email filters

Correct Answer: C

New Question 13:

An engineer is going through vulnerability triage with company management because of a recent malware outbreak from which 21 affected assets need to be patched or remediated. Management decides not to prioritize fixing the assets and accepts the vulnerabilities.

What is the next step the engineer should take?

A. Investigate the vulnerability to prevent further spread

B. Acknowledge the vulnerabilities and document the risk

C. Apply vendor patches or available hotfixes

D. Isolate the assets affected in a separate network

Correct Answer: D

New Question 14:

The incident response team receives information about the abnormal behavior of a host. A malicious file is found being executed from an external USB flash drive. The team collects and documents all the necessary evidence from the computing resource.

What is the next step?

A. Conduct a risk assessment of systems and applications

B. Isolate the infected host from the rest of the subnet

C. Install malware prevention software on the host

D. Analyze network traffic on the host\’s subnet

Correct Answer: B

New Question 15:

An organization had several attacks over the last 6 months and has tasked an engineer with looking for patterns or trends that will help the organization anticipate future attacks and mitigate them. Which data analytic technique should the engineer use to accomplish this task?

A. diagnostic

B. qualitative

C. predictive

D. statistical

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://insights.principa.co.za/4-types-of-data-analytics-descriptive-diagnostic-predictive-prescriptive

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Lead4Pass 200-901 dumps with PDF and VCE latest update

The latest updated Lead4Pass 200-901 dumps with PDF files and VCE exam engine, containing 294 exam questions and answers, serve all 200-901 DEVASC exam candidates to help them successfully pass the exam.

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Free sharing of 15 Cisco 200-901 Dumps exam questions and answers:

New Question 1:

How does requesting a synchronous API operation differ from requesting an asynchronous API operation?

A. clients receive responses with a task id for further processing

B. clients subscribe to a webhook for operation results

C. clients poll for the status of the execution of operations

D. clients can access the results immediately

Correct Answer: C

New Question 2:

What are two advantages of YANG-based approaches for infrastructure automation? (Choose two.)

A. multi-platform vendor abstraction

B. compiles to executables that run on network devices

C. designed to reflect networking concepts

D. directly maps to JavaScript

E. command line is driven interface

Correct Answer: AC

New Question 3:

Which device is used to transport traffic from one broadcast domain to another broadcast domain?

A. layer 2 switch

B. proxy server

C. router

D. load balancer

Correct Answer: C

New Question 4:

Which service provides a directory lookup for IP addresses and host names?

A. DNS

B. NAT

C. SNMP

D. DHCP

Correct Answer: A

New Question 5:

Users cannot access a webserver and after the traffic is captured, the capture tool shows an ICMP packet that reports “time exceeded in-transit”. What is the cause of this webserver access issue?

A. A router along the path has the wrong time.

B. A router along the path is misrouting the packets in a wrong direction.

C. The server is too loaded and the connection could not be handled in time.

D. The server is too far away and the packets require too much time to reach it.

Correct Answer: B

New Question 6:

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the value of the node defined by this YANG structure?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: D

New Question 7:

What is used in Layer 2 switches to direct packet transmission to the intended recipient?

A. MAC address

B. IPv6 address

C. spanning tree

D. IPv4 address

Correct Answer: A

New Question 8:

Users cannot access a webserver and after the traffic is captured, the capture tool shows an ICMP packet that reports “communication administratively prohibited”.

What is the cause of this webserver access issue?

A. An access list along the path is blocking the traffic.

B. Users must authenticate on the webserver to access it.

C. A router along the path is overloaded and thus dropping traffic.

D. The traffic is not allowed to be translated with NAT and dropped.

Correct Answer: A

New Question 9:

What is an advantage of a version control system?

A. facilitates resolving conflicts when merging code

B. ensures that unit tests are written

C. prevents over-writing code or configuration files

D. forces the practice of trunk-based development

Correct Answer: A

New Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the result of executing this Ansible playbook?

A. The playbook copies a new start-up configuration to CISCO_ROUTER_01

B. The playbook copies a new running configuration to CISCO_ROUTER_01

C. The playbook backs up the running configuration of CISCO_ROUTER_01

D. The playbook backs up the start-up configuration of CISCO_ROUTER_01

Correct Answer: D

New Question 11:

A 401 HTTP response code is returned when calling a REST API. What is the error state identified by this response code?

A. The server cannot process the request as it has detected an issue in the request syntax or body.

B. The request has not been accepted because it requires authentication.

C. The sever accepted the request but the client is not authorized for this content.

D. The server cannot find the requested resource because the path specified is incorrect.

Correct Answer: B

New Question 12:

What is the first development task in test-driven development?

A. Write code that implements a desired function.

B. Write a failing test case for a desired function.

C. Reverse engineer the code for a desired function.

D. Write a passing test case for existing code.

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://technologyconversations.com/2013/12/20/test-driven-development-tdd-example- walkthrough/

New Question 13:

What is the purpose of a firewall in application deployment?

A. adds TLS support to an application that does not support it natively

B. limits traffic to only ports required by the application

C. provides translation for an application\’s hostname to its IP address

D. forwards traffic to a pool of instances of the application

Correct Answer: B

New Question 14:

A small company has 5 servers and 50 clients. What are two reasons an engineer should split this network into separate client and server subnets? (Choose two.)

A. Subnets will split domains to limit failures.

B. A router will limit the traffic types between the clients and servers.

C. Subnets provide more IP address space for clients and servers.

D. A router will bridge the traffic between clients and servers.

E. Internet access to the servers will be denied on the router.

Correct Answer: AB

New Question 15:

How does a developer create and switch to a new branch called “my-bug-fix” to develop a product fix?

A. git checkout -b my-bug-fix

B. git branch -b my-bug-fix

C. git branch my-bug-fix

D. git checkout my-bug-fix

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.dnnsoftware.com/community-blog/cid/155105

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Cisco 200-201 dumps: serves all 200-201 CBROPS exam candidates

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New Question 1:

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the potential threat identified in this Stealthwatch dashboard?

A. Host 10.201.3.149 is sending data to 152.46.6.91 using TCP/443.

B. Host 152.46.6.91 is being identified as a watchlist country for data transfer.

C. Traffic to 152.46.6.149 is being denied by an Advanced Network Control policy.

D. Host 10.201.3.149 is receiving almost 19 times more data than is being sent to host 152.46.6.91.

Correct Answer: D

New Question 2:

What does cyber attribution identify in an investigation?

A. cause of an attack

B. exploit of an attack

C. vulnerabilities exploited

D. threat actors of an attack

Correct Answer: D

New Question 3:

Refer to the exhibit.

An analyst received this alert from the Cisco ASA device, and numerous activity logs were produced. How should this type of evidence be categorized?

A. indirect

B. circumstantial

C. corroborative

D. best

Correct Answer: C

Indirect=circumstantail so there is no possibility to match A or B (only one answer is needed in this question). For sure it\’s not the BEST evidence – this FW data inform only of DROPPED traffic. If smth happened inside the network, presented evidence could be used to support other evidence or make our narration stronger but alone it\’s means nothing.

New Question 4:

What is a sandbox interprocess communication service?

A. A collection of rules within the sandbox that prevent communication between sandboxes.

B. A collection of network services that are activated on an interface, allowing for inter-port communication.

C. A collection of interfaces that allow for coordination of activities among processes.

D. A collection of host services that allow for communication between sandboxes.

Correct Answer: C

Inter-process communication (IPC) allows communication between different processes. A process is one or more threads running inside its own, isolated address space.

New Question 5:

A security specialist notices 100 HTTP GET and POST requests for multiple pages on the web servers. The agent in the requests contains PHP code that, if executed, creates and writes to a new PHP file on the web server. Which event category is described?

A. reconnaissance

B. action on objectives

C. installation

D. exploitation

Correct Answer: C

New Question 6:

What is the practice of giving an employee access to only the resources needed to accomplish their job?

A. principle of least privilege

B. organizational separation

C. separation of duties

D. need to know the principle

Correct Answer: A

New Question 7:

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the potential threat identified in this Stealthwatch dashboard?

A. A policy violation is active for host 10.10.101.24.

B. A host on the network is sending a DDoS attack to another inside host.

C. There are two active data exfiltration alerts.

D. A policy violation is active for host 10.201.3.149.

Correct Answer: C

New Question 8:

Which incidence response step includes identifying all hosts affected by an attack?

A. detection and analysis

B. post-incident activity

C. preparation

D. containment, eradication, and recovery

Correct Answer: D

3.3.3 Identifying the Attacking Hosts During incident handling, system owners and others sometimes want to or need to identify the attacking host or hosts. Although this information can be important, incident handlers should generally stay focused on containment, eradication, and recovery. https://nvlpubs.nist.gov/nistpubs/SpecialPublications/NIST.SP.800-61r2.pdf

The response phase, or containment, of incident response, is the point at which the incident response team begins interacting with affected systems and attempts to keep further damage from occurring as a result of the incident.

New Question 9:

Which metric in CVSS indicates an attack that takes a destination bank account number and replaces it with a different bank account number?

A. availability

B. confidentiality

C. scope

D. integrity

Correct Answer: D

New Question 10:

What is the difference between mandatory access control (MAC) and discretionary access control (DAC)?

A. MAC is controlled by the discretion of the owner and DAC is controlled by an administrator

B. MAC is the strictest of all levels of control and DAC is object-based access

C. DAC is controlled by the operating system and MAC is controlled by an administrator

D. DAC is the strictest of all levels of control and MAC is object-based access

Correct Answer: B

New Question 10:

What is vulnerability management?

A. A security practice focused on clarifying and narrowing intrusion points.

B. A security practice of performing actions rather than acknowledging the threats.

C. A process to identify and remediate existing weaknesses.

D. A process to recover from service interruptions and restore business-critical applications

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.brinqa.com/vulnerability-management-primer-part-2-challenges/ Vulnerability management is the “cyclical practice of identifying, classifying, prioritizing, remediating and mitigating” software vulnerabilities.[1] Vulnerability management is integral to computer security and network security, and must not be confused with Vulnerability assessment” source: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Vulnerability_management

New Question 12:

Which type of evidence supports a theory or an assumption that results from initial evidence?

A. probabilistic

B. indirect

C. best

D. corroborative

Correct Answer: D

Corroborating evidence (or corroboration) is evidence that tends to support a theory or an assumption deduced by some initial evidence. This corroborating evidence confirms the proposition. Cisco CyberOps Associate CBROPS 200-201 Official Cert Guide

New Question 13:

What is the difference between deep packet inspection and stateful inspection?

A. Deep packet inspection gives insights up to Layer 7, and stateful inspection gives insights only up to Layer 4.

B. Deep packet inspection is more secure due to its complex signatures, and stateful inspection requires less human intervention.

C. Stateful inspection is more secure due to its complex signatures, and deep packet inspection requires less human intervention.

D. Stateful inspection verifies data at the transport layer and deep packet inspection verifies data at the application layer

Correct Answer: B

New Question 14:

A company encountered a breach on its web servers using IIS 7 5 Dunng the investigation, an engineer discovered that an attacker read and altered the data on a secure communication using TLS 1 2 and intercepted sensitive information by downgrading a connection to export-grade cryptography. The engineer must mitigate similar incidents in the future and ensure that clients and servers always negotiate with the most secure protocol versions and cryptographic parameters. Which action does the engineer recommend?

A. Upgrade to TLS v1 3.

B. Install the latest IIS version.

C. Downgrade to TLS 1.1.

D. Deploy an intrusion detection system

Correct Answer: B

New Question 15:

During which phase of the forensic process is data that is related to a specific event labeled and recorded to preserve its integrity?

A. examination

B. investigation

C. collection

D. reporting

Correct Answer: C

Download the Cisco 200-201 PDF for free sharing online:

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1NvgnmVOH2wzbAtjRlNnpN57M70GgdSeW/
https://drive.google.com/file/d/1Hq9tXhs7kyJzL3cTTXNNYoTOKZOld2X7/

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Cisco CCIE Collaboration 350-801 dumps with PDF and VCE have been updated

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Cisco CCIE Collaboration 350-801 dumps exam questions and answers:

New Question 1:

An administrator executes the debug ISDN q931 command while debugging a failed call. After a test call is placed, the logs return a disconnect cause code of 1. What is the cause of this problem?

A. The dialed number is not assigned to an endpoint.
B. The destination number rejects the call.
C. The destination number is busy.
D. The media resource is unavailable.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/dial-access/integrated-services-digital-networks-isdn-channel-associated-signaling-cas/8607-isdn-disc-code.html

New Question 2:

An engineer configures a SIP trunk for MWI between a Cisco UCM cluster and Cisco Unity Connection. The Cisco UCM cluster fails to receive the SIP notification messages. Which two SIP trunk settings resolve this issue? (Choose two.)

A. transmit security status
B. accept unsolicited notification
C. allow charging header
D. accept out-of-band notification
E. accept out-of-dialog refer

Correct Answer: BE

New Question 3:

Which action enables Cisco MRA?

A. Cisco UCC Express clients can obtain VPN connectivity to Cisco UCC Enterprise.
B. VPN connectivity can be established to Cisco UCM.
C. Clients such as Cisco Jabber can use call control on Cisco UCM.
D. Internal SIP clients registered to Cisco UCM can call external companies

Correct Answer: C

New Question 4:

How can an administrator stop Cisco Unified Communications Manager from advertising the OPUS codec for recording-enabled devices?

A. Route recorded calls through Cisco Unified Border Element because it does not support OPUS.
B. Go to the phone\’s configuration page and set “Advertise OPUS Codec” to be “false”.
C. Integrate the Cisco Unified CM with 3 recording solution that does not support OPUS.
D. In CUCM Service Parameters set “Opus Codec Enabled” to “Enabled for all Devices Except Recording-Enabled Devices.”

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/unified-communications/unified-communications-manager-callmanager/211297-Configure-Opus-Support-on-Cisco-Unified.pdf

New Question 5:

A remote office has a less-than-optimal WAN connection and experiences packet loss, delay, and jitter.

Which VoIP codec should be used in this situation?

A. G.711ulaw
B. iLBC
C. G.722.1
D. G.729A

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/collaboration-voice-and-video/summary-of-cucm-supported-codecs/ta-p/3162905

New Question 6:

Refer to the exhibit.

The translation rule is configured on the voice gateway to translate DNIS.

What is the outcome if the gateway receives 0255-343-1234 as DNIS?

A. The translation is not matched because DNIS contains “-“.
B. The translation is not matched because DNIS does not end with a “$”.
C. The translation is matched and the translated number is 02553431234.
D. The translation is matched and the translated number is 025553431234.

Correct Answer: C

New Question 7:

Which type of greeting in the Call Handler configuration in Cisco Unity Connection overtimes all other greetings?

A. holidays
B. supervisory
C. alternate
D. priority

Correct Answer: C

New Question 8:

Which program is required to deploy the Cisco Jabber client on an on-premises Cisco collaboration solution?

A. Cisco Unity Connection
B. Cisco Expressway-C
C. Cisco UCM
D. Cisco UCM IM and Presence

Correct Answer: C

New Question 9:

What does average rate limiting allow?

A. transmits traffic bursts up to the Bc size
B. more traffic than the CIR to be sent when there is available bandwidth
C. bandwidth up to the Be size
D. traffic to burst to the Be size when there is available bandwidth

Correct Answer: D

New Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit. What is the registration state of the analog port in this debug output?

A. The MGCP Gateway is not communicating with the Cisco UCM.
B. The analog port failed to register to Cisco UCM with an error code 200.
C. The analog port is currently shut down.
D. The analog port is registered to Cisco UCM.

Correct Answer: D

New Question 11:

An engineer encounters third-party devices that do not support Cisco Discovery Protocol. What must be configured on the network to allow device discovery?

A. LACP
B. TFTP
C. LLDP
D. SNMP

Correct Answer: C

New Question 12:

Which two elements of a dial plan define the domains that are accessible and are assigned to an endpoint? (Choose two.)

A. Call Admissions Control
B. Route patterns
C. Calling Search Spaces
D. Translation patterns
E. partitions

Correct Answer: CE

New Question 13:

What is a characteristic of video traffic that governs QoS requirements for video?

A. Video is typically variable bit rate.
B. Voice and video traffic are different, but they have the same QoS requirements.
C. Video is typically constant bit rate.
D. Voice and video traffic are the same, so they have the same QoS requirements.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/voice_ip_comm/cucm/srnd/collab11/collab11/cac.html

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Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 350-401
Exam Name: Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR)
Certification: CCNP Enterprise
Duration: 120 minutes
Languages: English
Price: $400 USD
Number of Questions: about 100±
350-401 dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/350-401.html (Total Questions: 853 Q&A)

Cisco 350-401 exam questions online practice test:

Tips: Verify the answer at the end of the article

Question 1:

How does Cisco Trustsec enable more access controls for dynamic networking environments and data centers?

A. uses flexible NetFlow

B. assigns a VLAN to the endpoint

C. classifies traffic based on the contextual identity of the endpoint rather than its IP address

D. classifies traffic based on advanced application recognition

Question 2:

Which technology provides a secure communication channel for all traffic at Layer 2 of the OSI model?

A. MACsec

B. IPsec

C. SSL

D. Cisco Trustsec

Question 3:

What does Cisco DNA southbound APIs provide?

A. Interface between the controller and the network devices

B. NETCONF API interface for orchestration communication

C. RESful API interface for orchestrator communication

D. Interface between the controller and the consumer

The Southbound API is used to communicate with network devices.

Question 4:

Which NGFW mode block flows crossing the firewall?

A. Passive

B. Tap

C. Inline tap

D. Inline

Question 5:

Which two pieces of information are necessary to compute SNR? (Choose two.)

A. EIRP

B. noise floor

C. antenna gain

D. RSSI

E. transmit power

Question 6:

Which requirement for an Ansible-managed node is true?

A. It must be a Linux server or a Cisco device.

B. It must have an SSH server running.

C. It must support ad hoc commands.

D. It must have an Ansible Tower installed.

Question 7:

What is the difference between the enable password and the enable secret password when password encryption is enabled on an IOS device?

A. The enable password is encrypted with a stronger encryption method.

B. There is no difference and both passwords are encrypted identically.

C. The enable password cannot be decrypted.

D. The enabled secret password is protected via stronger cryptography mechanisms.

Question 8:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration establishes EBGP neighborship between these two directly connected neighbors and exchanges the loopback network of the two routers through BGP?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Question 9:

In which part of the HTTP message is the content type specified?

A. HTTP method

B. URI

C. header

D. body

Question 10:

Which behavior can be expected when the HSRP versions are changed from 1 to 2?

A. Each HSRP group reinitializes because the virtual MAC address has changed.

B. No changes occur because versions 1 and 2 use the same virtual MAC OUI.

C. Each HSRP group reinitializes because the multicast address has changed.

D. No changes occur because the standby router is upgraded before the active router.

Question 11:

A response code of 404 is received while using the REST API on Cisco UNA Center to POST to this URI.

/dna/intent/api/v1 /template-programmer/project

What does the code mean?

A. The client made a request for a resource that does not exist.

B. The server has not implemented the functionality that is needed to fulfill the request.

C. The request was accepted for processing, but the processing was not completed.

D. The POST/PUT request was fulfilled and a new resource was created, Information about the resource is in the response body.

Question 12:

What is the structure of a JSON web token?

A. three parts separated by dots header payload, and signature

B. header and payload

C. three parts separated by dots version header and signature

D. payload and signature

Question 13:

Which OSPF network types are compatible and allow communication through the two peering devices?

A. broadcast to nonbroadcast

B. point-to-multipoint to nonbroadcast

C. broadcast to point-to-point

D. point-to-multipoint to broadcast

Question 14:

At which Layer does Cisco DNA Center support REST controls?

A. EEM applets or scripts

B. Session layer

C. YMAL output from responses to API calls

D. Northbound APIs

Question 15:

Which statement about agent-based versus agentless configuration management tools is true?

A. Agentless tools require no messaging systems between master and slaves.

B. Agentless tools use proxy nodes to interface with slave nodes.

C. Agent-based tools do not require a high-level language interpreter such as Python or Ruby on slave nodes.

D. Agent-based tools do not require the installation of additional software packages on the slave nodes.

……

Verify answer:

Numbers:Answers:Explain:
Q1C
Q2A
Q3A
Q4DFirepower Threat Defense (FTD) provides six interface modes which are: Routed, Switched, Inline Pair, Inline Pair with Tap, Passive, Passive (ERSPAN).

When Inline Pair Mode is in use, packets can be blocked since they are processed inline When you use Inline Pair mode, the packet goes mainly through the FTD Snort engine When Tap Mode is enabled, a copy of the packet is inspected and dropped internally while the actual traffic goes through FTD unmodified
Q5BDsignal-to-noise ratio (SNR) A measure of received signal quality, calculated as the difference between the signal\’s RSSI and the noise floor. A higher SNR is preferred.
Q6B
Q7D
Q8A
Q9C
Q10A
Q11AThe 404 (Not Found) error status code indicates that the REST API can\’t map the client\’s URI to a resource but may be available in the future. Subsequent requests by the client are permissible.
Q12A
Q13AThe following different OSPF types are compatible with each other:

+ Broadcast and Non-Broadcast (adjust hello/dead timers) + Point-to-Point and

Point-to-Multipoint (adjust hello/dead timers) Broadcast and Non-Broadcast networks elect DR/BDR so they are compatible. Point-topoint/ multipoint do not elect DR/BDR so they are compatible.
Q14D
Q15A

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CCNA 200-301 Dumps & Labs | Cisco Certified Network Associate exam material

CCNA 200-301 Dumps are Cisco Certified Network Associate exam material for entry-level candidates. Lead4Pass 200-301 dumps prepare candidates for Cisco Certified Network Associate exam questions and answers including the latest 2022 mock labs, https://www.lead4pass.com/200-301.html helping you earn your Cisco Certified Network Associate certification.

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Ccna FAQs: About, Value, Exam Material & labs

About 200-301 CCNA: What You Need to Know

Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 200-301
Exam Name: Cisco Certified Network Associate
Certification: CCNA
Languages: English and Japanese
Price: $300 USD
Duration: 120 mins
Number of Questions: 100-120 questions
Passing score: 82%
200-301 dumps: https://www.lead4pass.com/200-301.html (CCNA exam dump maps to Cisco 200-301 CCNA exam objectives) Include 2022 Newest Simulation Labs
200-301 dumps (Number of Questions): 824 Q&A
Last update time: Jun 26, 2022

Is CCNA worth it?

Yes, the CCNA is definitely worth it — it’s one of the best certifications a network administrator could earn at any point in their career.
The CCNA is worth it because Cisco technology provides service provider and enterprise router solutions to nearly 40% of the world.
Of course, there are plenty of non-Cisco networks, but there’s basically no other certification that can all at once prepare you for all the devices and jobs that the CCNA does.

–source:https://www.cbtnuggets.com/it-training/cisco/ccna

Free share of a portion of the Cisco Certified Network Associate 200-301 exam material (Including labs Q7):

QUESTION 1:

Refer to the exhibit.

exam1

Each router must be configured with the last usable IP address in the subnet. Which configuration fulfills this requirement?

exam1-1

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2:

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is asked to config router CB-R1 so that it forms an OSPF single-area neighbor relationship with CB-R2.

Which command sequence must be implemented to configure the router?

A. router ospf 10
network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
network 10.0.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

B. router ospf 10
network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
network 10.0.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

C. router ospf 10
network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.3 area 0
network 10.0.2.0 255.255.255.0 area 0

D. router ospf 10
network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.252 area 0
network 10.0.1.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3:

Refer to the exhibit.

How many JSON objects are represented?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4:

Refer to the exhibit.
Which two configurations would be used to create and apply a standard access list on R1, so that only the 10.0.70.0/25 network devices are allowed to access the internal database server? (Choose two)

A. R1(config)# interface GigabitEthernet0/0
R1(config-if)# ip access-group 5 out

B. R1(config)# access-list 5 permit 10.0.54.0 0.0.1.255

C. R1(config)# interface Serial0/0/0
R1(config-if)# ip access-group 5 in

D. R1(config)# access-list 5 permit 10.0.70.0 0.0.0.127

E. R1(config)# access-list 5 permit any

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 5:

Refer to the exhibit. What is the next hop for traffic entering R1 with a destination of 10.1.2.126?

A. 10.165 20.126
B. 10.165.20.146
C. 10.165.20.166
D. 10.165 20.226

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6:

Refer to the exhibit. The given Windows PC is requesting the IP address of the host at www.cisco.com. To which IP address is the request sent?

A. 192.168.1.226
B. 192.168.1.100
C. 192.168.1.254
D. 192.168.1.253

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7*:

CCNA Lab simulation 6

All physical cabling between the two switches is installed. Configure the network connectivity between the switches using the designated VLANs and interfaces.

  1. Configure VLAN 100 named Compute and VLAN 200 named Telephony where required for each task.
  2. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW2 to use the existing VLAN named Available.
  3. Configure the connection between the switches using access ports.
  4. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW1 using data and voice VLANs.
  5. Configure Ethemet0/1 on SW2 so that the Cisco proprietary neighbor discovery protocol is turned off for the designated interface only.

See the Explanation below.

A. Check the Explanation below
B. Place Holder
C. Place Holder
D. Place Holder

Correct Answer: A

Answer as below configuration:
on sw1
enable
conf t
vlan 100
name Compute
vlan 200
name Telephony
int e0/1
switchport voice vlan 200
switchport access vlan 100
int e0/0
switchport mode access
do wr

on sw2
Vlan 99
Name Available
Int e0/1
Switchport access vlan 99
do wr

QUESTION 8:

Drag and Drop
Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 9:

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 10:

Drag and Drop
Refer to Exhibit.

Rotor to the exhibit. The IP address configurations must be completed on the DC-1 and HQ-1 routers based on these requirements:

  1. DC-1 Gi1/0 must be the last usable address on a /30
  2. DC-1 Gi1/1 must be the first usable address on a /29
  3. DC-1 Gi1/2 must be the last usable address on a /28
  4. HQ-1 Gil/3 must be the last usable address on a /29

Drag and drop the commands from the left onto the destination interfaces on the right. Not all commands are used
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 11:

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the DNS lookup components from the left onto the functions on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 12:

Drag and Drop
An interface has been configured with the access list that is shown below.

On the basis of that access list, drag each information packet on the left to the appropriate category on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 13:

Drag and Drop
Drag and drop the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller security settings from the left onto the correct security mechanism categories on the right.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Layer 2 Security Mechanism includes WPA+WPA2, 802.1X, Static WEP, CKIP while Layer 3 Security Mechanisms (for WLAN) includes IPSec, VPN Pass-Through, Web Passthrough …

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/wireless/4400-series-wireless-lan-controllers/106082-wlc-compatibility-matrix.html

QUESTION 14:

Refer to the exhibit.
CertBus-R1# show ip route

What is the next hop for traffic entering CertBus-R1 with a destination of 10.1.2 126?

A. 10.165 20.126
B. 10.165.20.146
C. 10.165.20.166
D. 10.165 20.226

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15:

An engineer has configured the domain name, user name, and password on the local router. What is the next step to complete the configuration tor a Secure Shell access RSA key?

A. crypto key Import rsa pem
B. crypto key pubkey-chain rsa
C. crypto key generate rsa
D. crypto key zeroize rsa

Correct Answer: C

……

[Free Download]Cisco Certified Network Associate 200-301 exam material (Including labs):https://drive.google.com/file/d/1bEpMJLRNFn4w7PqhOXcF23dWnrUoLX35/

The above are free to share 15 200-301 CCNA exam material, click here to get more exam questions and answers.

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300-420 exam details you should know:

Next, I will share some Cisco 300-420 ENSLD Exam basics that you must know.

ENSLD is the abbreviation of the Designing Cisco Enterprise Networks exam name, and 300-420 is the exam code. For specific information, see:

Vendor: Cisco
Exam Code: 300-420
Exam Name: Designing Cisco Enterprise Networks (ENSLD)
Certification: CCNP
Duration: 90 minutes
Languages: English and Japanese
Price: $300 USD

The 300-420 ENSLD Exam is just one step:

You must also know that the 300-420 ENSLD Exam is one of the Concentration exams. But if you want to get the CCNP Enterprise certification, you need to do it in two steps:

Step 1: Choose one of the following exams

  • 300-410 ENARSI
  • 300-415 ENSDWI
  • 300-420 ENSLD
  • 300-425 ENWLSD
  • 300-430 ENWLSI
  • 300-435 ENAUTO

Step 2: Take the Core exam, this step also includes your ticket to participate in the CCIE lab, provided you must pass the exam, but don’t worry, you can find the answer on the VCEcert 350-401 page.

  • 350-401 ENCOR

Next, you can also get 300-420 free dumps of online exercises

QUESTION 1:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must design an automatic failover solution. The solution should allow HSRP to detect a WAN 1 failure and initiate an automatic failover, making router R2 the active HSRP router. Which two solutions should the engineer choose? (Choose two.)

A. Implement Enhanced Object Tracking on roster R1
B. use a floating static route
C. Implement IP SLA on router R1
D. Implement PBR on router R1
E. use IP source routing

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 2:

An engineer must design a VPN solution for a company that has multiple branches connecting to the main office. What are two advantages of using DMVPN instead of IPsec tunnels to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

A. support for AES 256-bit encryption
B. greater scalability
C. support for anycast gateway
D. lower-traffic overhead
E. dynamic spoke-to-spoke tunnels

Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 3:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is designing an OSPF network for a client. Requirements dictate that the routers in Area 1 should receive all routers belonging to the network, including EIGRP, except the ones originated in the RIP domain. Which action should the engineer take?

A. Make area 1 an NSSA.
B. Make area 1 a stub.
C. Make area 1 a standard OSPF area.
D. Make the area 1 router part of area 0.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4:

Which NETCONF operation creates filtering that is specific to the session notifications?

A.
B.
C.

D.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5:

A large chain of stores currently uses MPLS-based T1 lines to connect their stores to their data center. An architect must design a new solution to improve availability and reduce costs while keeping these considerations in mind:

1.
The company uses multicast to deliver training to the stores.
2.
The company uses dynamic routing protocols and has implemented QoS.
3.
To simplify deployments, tunnels should be created dynamically on the hub when additional stores open.
Which solution should be included in this design?

A. VPLS
B. GET VPN
C. DMVPN
D. IPsec

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6:

An organization is designing a detailed QoS plan that limits bandwidth to specific rates. Which two parameters are supported by the traffic policing feature? (Choose two.)

A. violating
B. marking
C. shaping
D. bursting
E. conforming

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 7:

An engineer is creating a design to enable IPv6 to run on an existing IPv4 IS-IS network. The IPv4 and IPv6 topologies will match exactly, and the engineer plans to use the same IS-IS router levels for each protocol per interface. Which IS-IS design is required?

A. multi-topology without enabling transition feature
B. multi-topology with transition feature enabled
C. single topology without enabling transition feature
D. single topology with transition feature enabled

Correct Answer: B

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/iproute_isis/configuration/15-mt/irs-15-mt-book/ip6-route-multi-isis.html

QUESTION 8:

Which nonproprietary mechanism can be used to automate rendezvous point distribution in a large PIM domain?

A. Embedded RP
B. BSR
C. Auto-RP
D. Static RP

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9:

Which method does Cisco SD-WAN use to avoid fragmentation issues?

A. PMTUD is used.
B. Access circuits are configured with 1600 byte MTU settings.
C. Jumbo frames are enabled.
D. Traffic is marked with the DF bit set.

Correct Answer: A

https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/solutions/collateral/enterprise-networks/sd-wan/nb-06-cisco-sd-wan-ebook-cte-en.pdf

QUESTION 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must improve the current IS-IS environment. The Catalyst switch is equipped with dual supervisors.

Each time a stateful switchover occurs, the network experiences unnecessary route recomputation. Which solution addresses this issue if the upstream router does not understand graceful restart messaging?

A. Enable IS-IS remote LFA FRR on both devices.
B. Enable NSR on the switch.
C. Enable NSF on the switch.
D. Configure ISIS aggressive timers on both devices.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11:

An engineer must design a multicast network for a financial application. Most of the multicast sources also receive multicast traffic (many-to-many deployment model). To better scale routing tables, the design must not use source trees.

Which multicast protocol satisfies these requirements?

A. PIM-SSM
B. PIM-SM
C. MSDP
D. BIDIR-PIM

Correct Answer: D

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipmulti_pim/configuration/xe-16/imc-pim-xe-16-book/imc-tech-oview.html

Bidir-PIM is designed to be used for many-to-many applications within individual PIM domains. Multicast groups in bidirectional PIM mode can scale to an arbitrary number of sources without incurring overhead due to the number of sources.

QUESTION 12:

An engineer is working with NETCONF and Cisco NX-OS-based devices. The engineer needs a YANG model that supports a specific feature relevant only to Cisco NX-OS. Which model must the engineer choose?

A. Native
B. IEEE
C. OpenConfig
D. IETF

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13:

How is the sub-second failure of a transport link detected in a Cisco SD-WAN network?

A. Hellos are sent between the WAN Edge routers and the vSmart controller.
B. BFD runs on the IPsec tunnels between WAN Edge routers.
C. BGP is used between WAN Edge routers and the vSmart controller.
D. Link state change messages are sent between vSmart controllers.

Correct Answer: B

……

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New Cisco Small Business Technical Overview Exam 700-755 Real Dumps

New Cisco Small Business Technical Overview exam 700-755 has been published for all candidates.
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Question 1:

Which Cisco Catalyst 9100 AP feature adds capacity by automatically changing the access points from 2.4 and 5GHz to Dual 5GHz?

A. FRA

B. SMU

C. CleanAir

D. wIPS

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

When enabled which two features will help extend the retention capacity of the Meraki MV smart cameras? (Choose two)

A. Direct stream-based retention

B. Schedule-based retention

C. Hybrid archives

D. Cloud archives

E. Motion-based retention

Correct Answer: BE


Question 3:

In the event an entire site went down: which activity does Cisco\’s HyperFlex Stretched Cluster still enable a user to do?

A. continue VM replication synchronously

B. access the entire cluster

C. access only the remaining node or nodes in the cluster

D. recover lost data

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

What separates Cisco Meraki from its competitors?

A. kit obtained via promotional seminars can be added and integrated into the POC kit to enhance the service offering

B. the cloud architecture and product experience itself

C. testing the gear live by attending marketing webinars

D. dedicated team and the Cisco Meraki sales specialist attend every whiteboarding session to better illustrate complex topics

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

Which two features are included in every licensed MX security appliance as part of its unified threat management solution? (Choose two )

A. Stateless L3/L7 firewalls

B. OA (change of authorization)

C. SD-WAN

D. Umbrella integration (DNS firewall)

E. Auto VPN (site-to-site VPN)

Correct Answer: CE


Question 6:

Which two capabilities are included in the System Manager\’s robust enterprise mobility management (EMM) feature set? (Choose two )

A. Rapid provisioning (enrollment)

B. Emergency broadcast (alerts)

C. Remote troubleshooting

D. RFID tag tracking

E. OS version control

Correct Answer: AC


Question 7:

What is one of the mam functionalities of the Meraki Go mobile app?

A. used to manage and renew Meraki Go licenses

B. for opening support tickets with the Meraki Go support team

C. to assist with the fast onboarding of Meraki Go products

D. to help reduce the power consumption of network devices

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

Using Cisco Security, what is the remediation time for a previously unknown threat?

A. under 10 minutes

B. under 15 minutes

C. under 5 minutes

D. under 8 minutes

E. under 30 minutes

Correct Answer: A

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/security/aag-why-cisco-security-for-sb.html#:~:text=With %20Cisco\’s%20threat%20intelligence%2C%20you,to%20remediation%20in%20the%20industry.


Question 9:

By how much can Cisco UCS reduce provisioning time?

A. 6 hours to 1 minute

B. 12 weeks to 10 minutes

C. 1 month to 1 hour

D. 6 months to 2 weeks

E. 2 weeks to 6 hours

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

Which two products are considered a part of the Cisco Meraki full-stack? (Choose two.)

A. MX security appliances

B. MR wireless access points

C. Catalyst switches

D. UCS servers

E. Aironet wireless access points

Correct Answer: AB


Question 11:

Which layout can Cisco Webex flexible video conference support?

A. active speaker video view where the participant talking will have the most prominent view on the screen

B. active-active video view where two participants can engage on-screen at the same time

C. presenter video view where the meeting host shares their desktop on the screen

D. grid view where the active speaker is visible and other participants show on the bottom strip

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

Which two Cisco Small Business series switches are smart-managed? (Choose two.)

A. 220

B. 250

C. 550X

D. 350X

E. 110

Correct Answer: AB


Question 13:

Which three product families comprise the Meraki Go network stack? (Choose three )

A. Access points

B. Security content filters

C. Network routers

D. Security gateway and firewall

E. Network switches

Correct Answer: ADE


Question 14:

What is the built-in technology on the MR platform that utilizes one-way beacon advertising to interact with applications?

A. Adaptive Radio Management

B. BLE (Bluetooth Low Energy)

C. BeamFlex

D. Radio Resource Management

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

What are the two most frequent attack vectors used in cyber attacks against small businesses? (Choose two.)

A. malware

B. viruses

C. social engineering

D. phishing

E. pop-ups

Correct Answer: BC

……


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Successfully pass the Securing Networks with Cisco Firepower (SNCF) exam using the updated Cisco 300-710 dumps

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QUESTION 1

Which limitation applies to Cisco FMC dashboards in a multi-domain environment?

A. Child domains are able to view but not edit dashboards that originate from an ancestor domain.
B. Child domains have access to only a limited set of widgets from ancestor domains.
C. Only the administrator of the top ancestor domain is able to view dashboards.
D. Child domains are not able to view dashboards that originate from an ancestor domain.

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/60/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev60/Using_Dashboards.html

QUESTION 2

An engineer is implementing Cisco FTD in the network and is determining which Firepower mode to use. The organization needs to have multiple virtual Firepower devices working separately inside of the FTD appliance to provide traffic segmentation.
Which deployment mode should be configured in the Cisco Firepower Management Console to support these requirements?

A. Multiple Deployment
B. single-context
C. Single deployment
D. multi-instance

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3

A network administrator reviews the file report for the last month and notices that all file types, except exe. show a disposition of unknown. What is the cause of this issue?

A. The malware license has not been applied to the Cisco FTD.
B. The Cisco FMC cannot reach the Internet to analyze files.
C. A file policy has not been applied to the access policy.
D. Only Spero file analysis is enabled.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4

A network administrator needs to create a policy on Cisco Firepower to fast-path traffic to avoid Layer 7 inspection. The rate at which traffic is inspected must be optimized. What must be done to achieve this goal?

A. Enable the FXOS for multi-instance.
B. Configure a prefilter policy.
C. Configure modular policy framework.
D. Disable TCP inspection.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5

A network administrator is configuring SNORT inspection policies and is seeing failed deployment messages in Cisco FMC. What information should the administrator generate for Cisco TAC to help troubleshoot?

A. A “troubleshoot” file for the device in question.
B. A “show tech” file for the device in question.
C. A “troubleshoot” file for the Cisco FMC.
D. A “show tech” for the Cisco FMC.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/620/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev62/troubleshooting_the_system.html

QUESTION 6

An engineer is configuring a Cisco IPS to protect the network and wants to test a policy before deploying it. A copy of each incoming packet needs to be monitored while traffic flow remains constant. Which IPS mode should be implemented to meet these requirements?

A. routed
B. passive
C. transparent
D. inline tap

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7

Which two actions can be used in an access control policy rule? (Choose two.)

A. Block with Reset
B. Monitor
C. Analyze
D. Discover
E. Block ALL

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firesight/541/firepower-module-user-guide/asa-firepowermodule-user-guide-v541/AC-Rules-Tuning-Overview.html#71854

QUESTION 8

An engineer is working on a LAN switch and has noticed that its network connection to the inline Cisco IPS has gone down. Upon troubleshooting, it is determined that the switch is working as expected. What must have been implemented for this failure to occur?

A. The upstream router has a misconfigured routing protocol.
B. Link-state propagation is enabled.
C. The Cisco IPS has been configured to be in fail-open mode.
D. The Cisco IPS is configured in detection mode.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9

Which function is the primary function of the Cisco AMP threat Grid?

A. flood attack detection.
B. secure boot
C. image signing
D. DDoS mitigation
E. SYN flood detection

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 10

Which policy rule is included in the deployment of a local DMZ during the initial deployment of a Cisco NGFW through the Cisco FMC GUI?

A. a default DMZ policy for which only a user can change the IP addresses.
B. deny ip any
C. no policy rule is included
D. permit IP any

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11

Administrator is attempting to remotely log into a switch in the data center using SSH and is unable to connect. How does the administrator confirm that traffic is reaching the firewall?

A. by running Wireshark on the administrator\’s PC.
B. by performing a packet capture on the firewall.
C. by running a packet tracer on the firewall.
D. by attempting to access it from a different workstation.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12

Which command-line mode is supported by the Cisco Firepower Management Center CLI?

A. privileged
B. user
C. configuration
D. admin

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/firepower/660/configuration/guide/fpmc-config-guidev66/command_line_reference.pdf


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