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The Best Cisco CCDP 300-101 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (Q13-Q40)

QUESTION 13
Which command denies the default route?
A. ip prefix-list deny-route seq 5 deny 0.0.0.0/32
B. ip prefix-list deny-route seq 5 deny 0.0.0.0/8
C. ip prefix-list deny-route seq 5 deny 0 0 0.0/0
D. ip prefix-list deny-route seq 5 deny 0.0.0.0/16
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
300-101 dumps
Base on the output, which option is the next hop to get to the 130.0.1.0/24 network?
A. 10.30.30.1
B. 10.0.11.1
C. 10.20.20.1
D. 10.10.10.1
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which feature can mitigate fragmentation issues within network segments that are between GRE endpoints?
A. PMTU
B. ICMP DF bit
C. TCP Flow Control
D. TCP MSS
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
300-101 dumps
The excerpt was taken from the routing table of router SATX. Which option ensures that routes from 51.51.51.1 are preferred over routes from 52.52.52.2?
A. SATX(config-router)#distance 90 51.51.51.10.0.0.0
B. SATX(config-router)#distance 89.52.52.52.2 0.0.0.0
C. SATX(config-router)#distance 90.52.52.52.2 0.0.0.0
D. SATX(config-router)#administrative distance 91 51.51.510.0.0.0
E. SATX(config-router)#distance 89 51.51.51.10.0.0.0
F. SATX(config-router)#administrative distance 91 52.52.52.2 0.0.0.0
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which Cisco Express Forwarding table or tables hold forwarding information?
A. FIB table only
B. adjacency tables only
C. FIB and adjacency tables only
D. FIB,RIB, and adjacency tables
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
router eigrp 65535
no auto-summary
network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255
router ospf 1
network 192.168.5.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
passive-interface loopback0
redistribute eigrp 65535
If this configuration is applied to a device that redistributes EIGRP routes into OSPF. Which two statements about the behavior of the device are true? (Choose two)
A. EIGRP routes appears in the routing table as E2 OSPF routes
B. The device router ID is set to Loopback0 automatically
C. The device redistributes all EIGRP networks into OSPF
D. EIGRP routes appears in the routing table as N2 OSPF routes
E. The device redistributes only classful EIGRP networks into OSPF.
F. EIGRP routes appears as type 3 LSAs in the OSPF database.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 19
300-101 dumps
A network engineer has configured NTP on a Cisco router, but the time on the router is still incorrect.
What is the reason for this problem?
A. The router is not syncing with the peer, even though the NTP request and response packets are being exchanged.
B. The router is not syncing with peer, and the NTP request and response packets are not being exchanged.
C. The router is syncing with the peer, and the NTP request and response packets are being exchanged.
D. The router is dropping all NTP packets.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which two technologies can encapsulate an IPv6 payload in an IPv4 packet for transmission across a network? (Choose two)
A. L2TPv3
B. trunking
C. AToM
D. ISATAP
E. NAT-PT
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 21
300-101 dumps Which command do you enter to filter only routing updates that are sent through interface GigabitEthemet0/0?
A. R1(config-if)#passive-interface GigabitEthemet0/0
B. R1(config-router)#no passive-interface GigabitHthemet0/0
C. R1config-router)#passrve-interface GigabitEthemet0/0
D. R1(conffg-router)passive-interface default
E. R1(config-if)#passive-interface default
F. R1(config-router)#distribute-list 1 GigabitEthemet0/0 out
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
300-101 dumps
A network engineer is unable to make VRF lite EIGRP adjacency work.There is nothing wrong with communication between R1 and R2. What command will eliminate the issue when executed on both routes?
A. (config-router-if)autonomous-system 100
B. (config)#ip-multicast-routing
C. (config-vrf)#route-target both 100:1
D. (config-router-af)#network 209.165.202.128 0.0.0.31
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
What does the number 16 in the following command represent?
Router(config)#snmp-server user abed public v2c access 16
A. the mask of the files that are allowed to use community string public
B. the standard named access list 16, which contains the access rules that apply to user abed.
C. the number of concurrent users who are allowed to query the SNMP community
D. the user ID that is allowed to use the community string public
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
Which value does a point-to-point GRE tjunnel use to identify a peer?
A. MAC address
B. configured multicast address.
C. DLCI
D. IP address
E. VC ID
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
Which two statements about uRPF are true? (Choose two)
A. The Keyword any can be used with both strict mode and loose mode
B. Strict mode may drop legitimate traffic.
C. tt is enabled globally.
D. Strict mode is most appropriate for networks with asymmetric routing.
E. Loose mode may drop traffic when asymmetric routing occurs on the network
F. It is enabled on a per interface basis.
Correct Answer: BF

QUESTION 26
A network engineer is configuring a DHCP server to support a specialized application. Which additional DHCP feature must be enabled to support the delivery of various additional parameters to DHCP clients?
A. modules
B. vendor extensions
C. options
D. Scopes
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
In SNMP v3, which security level provides encryption of the data?
A. authMember
B. noAuthNoPriv
C. authNoPriv
D. authPriv
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 28
Which three functionalities are specific to stateful NAT64? (Choose Three)
A. It requires IPv4-transalable IPv6 address
B. It requires either manual or DHCPv6 based address assignment for IPv6 host.
C. It helps ensure end-to-end address transparency and scalability
D. A state or bindings are created on every unique translation
E. it conserves IPV4 addresses
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 29
Which two options are components of a dual stack?(choose two)
A. EIGRP
B. OSPF
C. IPV6 traffic
D. IPv4 traffic
E. layer 3 switch
F. layer 2 switch
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 30
Which technology uses the many-to-one method of mapping IP addresses?
A. static NAT
B. dynamic NAT
C. NAT-PT
D. PAT
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 31
Which three statements about IPv6 EIGRP are true? 300-101 dumps (Choose Three)
A. EIGRP neighbor relationships are formed using the link-local address
B. EIGRP neighbor relationships can be formed only on the configured IPv6 address.
C. It supports ELM-64 addresses only.
D. EIGRP route advertisement is configured under the interface configuration
E. An IPv6 EIGRP router ID is required.
F. EIGRP route advertisement is configured under the ipv6 router eigrp configuration
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 32
300-101 dumps
A network engineer is working on the network topology and executes the command no ip split- horizon on interface S0/0 of the hum router. What is the result of this command?
A. A routing loop is created.
B. Each of the spoke routers can see the routes that are advertised from the other spoke routers
C. The Spoke routers can see the routes that are advertised by the hub router
D. The hub router can see the routes that are advertised by the spoke routers
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 33
300-101 dumps
All interfaces on each router are participating in the EIGRP 100 process. Interface Loopback 2 on HQR2 is currently in shutdown mode. An engineer issues the eigrp stub command on router BR1.
Which statements about the query messages sent from router HQ-R2 for a route to reach the 12.12.12.12/32 network is true?
A. Router HQ-R2 sends a query message to the feasible successor for a route to 12.12.12.12/32 network.
B. BR1 receives query messages from HQ-R2 for a route to 12.12.12.12/32 network
C. Router HQ-R1 receives query messages from HQ-R2 for a route to 12.12.12.12/32 network.
D. Router HQ-R1 and BR1 receives query messages from HQ-R2 for a route to 12.12.12/32 network.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 34
Which set of actions does a network engineer perform to set the IPv6 address of a DHCP relay server at the VLAN interface level?
A. Enter the VLAN interface configuration mode and define the IPv6 address of a DHCP relay server
B. Enter the global configuration mode and enable the IPv6 DHCP relay
C. Enter the global configuration mode, enable IPv6 DHCP relay from interface configuration mode and define the IPv6 address of a DHCP relay server
D. Enter the VLAN interface configuration mode, enable IPv6 DHCP relay, and define the IPv6 address of a DHCP relay server
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 35
which two types of authentication dose EIGRP offer ?(choose two)
A. TKIP
B. MD5
C. WPA
D. Plain text
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 36
Refer to the following
Logging Console7
Which option is one of the effects entering this command on a Cisco IOS router, with no additional logging configuration?
A. Debug messages can be seen on the console by enabling “terminal monitor.”
B. Debug messages are logged only on active console connections.
C. A user that is connected via SSH sees level 7 messages
D. The router can experience high CPU utilization
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 37
Which two options can you use to configure an EIGRP stub router? (Choose two)
A. summary-only
B. receive-only
C. external
D. summary
E. totally-stubby
F. not-so-stubby
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 38
After configuring the routes, the network engineer executes the show ip route command. What is the expected results?
A. Gateway of last resort is 10.0.2.1 to network 0.0.0.0 10.0.0.0/24 is subnetted, 2 subnets C 10.0.2.0is directly connected, FastEthernetO/O 10.0.1.0 is directly connected, FastEthernet0/l S”0.0.0.0/0[1/0] via 10.0.2.1(1/0] via 10.0.1.1
Router#
B. Gateway of last resort is 10 0.2 1 to network 0 0 00 10 0.0 0/24 is subnetted, 1 subnet C 10.0.2 isdirectly connected, FastEthernetO/O S 0.0.0 0/0 [1/0] via 10.0.2.1
Router#
C. Gateway of last report is not set
Router #
D. Gateway of test resort is 10.0.1.1 to network 0.0.0.0 10.0.0.0/24 is subnetted 1 subnet C 10.0.1.0 is directly connected FastEthernetO/1 S” 0.0.0?/0 [1/0] via 10.0.1.1
Router#
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 39
Which two statements about NTP stratum are true? 300-101 dumps (Choose two )
A. Stratum 15 indicates a device that is not synchronized
B. Stratum 1 devices receive their time from a peer that is connected directly to an authoritative time source.
C. The highest stratum level a synchronized device can have is 16
D. Stratum 2 devices receive their time from a peer that is connected directly to an authoritative time source
E. Stratum 0 devices are connected directly to an authoritative time source
F. Stratum 1 devices are connected directly to an authoritative time source
Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 40
Which technology dose Easy virtual network use?
A. MP-BGP
B. DMVPN
C. MPLS
D. VRF-Lite
Correct Answer: D

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[2018 PDF Free Download] 100% Pass Latest Cisco CCNP Collaboration 300-075 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers Youtube Update (Q11-Q30)

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The Best Cisco CCNP Collaboration 300-075 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (Q11-Q30)

QUESTION 11
When device mobility mode is enabled or disabled for a cluster, to which does the cluster setting apply?
A. all phones in the cluster that support device mobility
B. all phones in the cluster that subscribed to device mobility
C. mobile phones in the cluster that support device mobility
D. mobile phones in the cluster that are in default mode
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.
300-075 dumps
To stream multicast MOH to the remote site across the WAN, what should the minimum value for the Max Hops be configured as?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
The Max Hops field in the Music On Hold (MOH) Server Configuration window indicates the maximum number of routers that an audio source is allowed to cross. If max hops is set to zero, the audio source must remain in its own subnet. If max hops is set to one, the audio source can cross up to one router to the next subnet. Cisco recommends setting max hops to two.

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.
300-075 dumps
The HQ site uses area code 650. The BR1 site uses area code 408. The long distance national code for PSTN dialing is 1. To make a long distance national call, an HQ or BR1 user dials access code 9, followed by 1, and then the 10-digit number.
Both sites use MGCP gateways. AAR must use globalized call routing using a single route pattern. Assume that all outgoing PSTN numbers are localized at the egress gateway as shown in the exhibit.
How many route lists and route groups should be configured for AAR at a minimum?
A. a single route list with a local route group for each site
B. two route lists and two route groups for each site
C. a single route list and four route groups for each sitea
D. None. The AAR CSS can point directly to the route pattern.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit.
300-075 dumps
What must be configured on the HQ Cisco Unified Communications Manager to allow HQ users to dial the SAF learned directory number pattern 3XXX?
A. Route pattern 3XXX should be configured and made available to HQ users through the phone CSS.
B. Route pattern 3XXX should be configured and made available to HQ phone users through the phone AAR CSS.
C. The SAF partition assigned to the SAF learned patterns must be available to the HQ phone users through the phone CSS.
D. The SAF partition assigned to the SAF learned patterns must be available to the HQ phone users through the phone AAR CSS.
E. The SAF directory number pattern 3XXX will be made available to all users automatically as soon as the SAF partition is selected.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Incorrect answer: ABD
By adopting the SAF network service, the call control discovery feature allows Cisco Unified Communications Manager to advertise itself along with other key attributes.

QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit.
300-075 dumps
All HQ phones are configured to use HQ_MRGL and all BR phones are configured to use BR_MRGL. 300-075 dumps For the HQ phones always to use the hardware conference bridge as a first choice, which configuration should be implemented?
A. Ensure that both the hardware and software conference bridges are listed in the HQ_MRG. Ensure that the instance ID for the hardware conference bridge is 0.
B. Ensure that both the hardware and software conference bridges are listed in the HQ_MRG. The hardware conference bridge must be configured first.
C. Assign the hardware conference bridge to HQ_MRG. Configure a second HQ_MRG_2 and assign the software conference bridge to it. Add both the HQ_MRG and HQ_MRG_2 to the HQ_MRGL and list the HQ_MRG first.
D. Assign the hardware conference bridge to HQ_MRG. Configure a second HQ_MRG_2 and assign the software conference bridge to it. Configure an additional HQ_MRGL_2. Add the HQ_MRG to HQ_MRGL. Add HQ_MRG_2 to HQ_MRGL_2. The HQ_MRGL should be assigned to the HQ phones. The HQ_MRGL_2 should be assigned to the HQ device pool.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
To ensure that the hardware bridge is utilized first with all its resources BEFORE the software bridge is used … you need to have two separate MRG’s and list the hardware MRG 1st in the MRGL …

QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.
300-075 dumps
Which pattern will be advertised try the Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. 3XXX and the ToDID will be 0:.
B. 3XXX and the TnOID will be 0:44228822.
C. 3XXX and the ToDID will be 44228822.
D. 3XXX and the ToDID will be 0:+44228822.
E. 3XXX and the ToDID will be 0:+
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Incorrect answer: BCD
the number of digits that want stripped from the hosted DN if the call fails over to the PSTN.
Value can enter 0 and 16. Here 0 is defined.

QUESTION 17
Which task must you perform before deleting a transcoder?
A. Delete the dependency records.
B. Unassign it from a media resource group.
C. Use the Reset option.
D. Remove the device pool.
E. Remove the subunit.
F. Delete the common device configuration.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
What command is used to map internal extensions to the corresponding E.164 PSTN number when using Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express in SRST mode?
A. ephone-dn
B. dialplan-pattern
C. number
D. number-e.164
E. ephone-transnumber
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit.
300-075 dumps
The exhibit shows a SAF Forwarder configuration attached to a Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
Which minimum configuration for a Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express SAF Forwarder is needed to establish a SAF neighbor relationship with this SAF Forwarder?
A. router eigrp SAF
i
service-family ipv4 autonomous-system 1
!
topology base
exit-sf-topology
exit-service-family
voice service saf
profile trunkroute 1
session protocol sip interface Loopback1 transport tcp port 5060 !
B. router eigrp SAF
!
service-family ipv4 autonomous-system 1
!
topology base
exit-sf-topology
exit- service-family
!
voice service saf
profile trunk-route 1
session protocol sip interface Loopback1 transport tcp port 5060 !
profile dn-block 1 alias-prefix 1972555
pattern 1 type extension 4xxx
!
profile callcontrol 1
dn-service
trunk-route 1
dn-block 1
dn-block 2
!
channel 1 vrouter SAF asystem 1
subscribe callcontrol wildcarded
publish callcontrol 1
!
C. router eigrp SAF
!
service-family ipv4 autonomous-system 1
!
topology base
exit-sf-topology
exit-service-family
!
D. None of above configurations contain sufficient information.
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Incorrect answer: ABD
only following configuration is enough
router eigrp SAF
service-family ipv4 autonomous-system 1
exit-service-family

QUESTION 20
When multiple Cisco Extension Mobility profiles exist, which actions take place when a user tries to log in to Cisco Extension Mobility?
A. The login will fail because only a single Cisco Extension Mobility profile is allowed.
B. The user must select the desired profile.
C. The user must login to both profiles in the order they are presented.
D. The user may login to both profiles in any order.
E. Login will only be allowed to multiple profiles if the service parameter Allow Multiple Logins is enabled.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
Refer to the exhibit.
300-075 dumps
300-075 dumps
300-075 dumps
When a call is placed from Phone 1 to Phone 2 and RSVP Agent 2 is not registered to Cisco Unified Communications Manager, what happens?
A. The caller hears a busy tone.
B. The call proceeds as normal since the location setting for the BR site is unlimited.
C. An RSPV call is attempted but fails. The call will fall back to local QoS.
D. the call fails.
E. The phone displays a message that advises the user that the call has been queued.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
Which configuration command disables the secondary dial tone on the branch office ISR for users calling from the PSTN into the branch office during a WAN failure? 300-075 dumps
A. direct-inward-dial
B. voice translation-rule
C. incoming called-number
D. application
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
What is the fastest way for an engineer to test the implementation of SRST in a production environment?
A. Shut down the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Servers.
B. Shut down the switch ports connected to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Servers.
C. Add a null route to the publisher Cisco Unified Communications Manager at the remote router. Remove the null route when the operation is verified.
D. Unplug the IP phones from their switch ports.
E. Verification is not needed.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
What is an advantage of TEHO?
A. TEHO implemented with ISRs eliminates PSTN toll charges.
B. TEHO implemented with ISRs can reduce PSTN toll charges.
C. TEHO implemented with AAR reduces toll charges.
D. TEHO implemented with CFUR reroutes calls.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit.
300-075 dumps
Assuming the regions configuration to BR only permits G.729 codec, how many calls are allowed for the BR location?
A. Total of four calls; two incoming and two outgoing.
B. Total of two calls in either direction.
C. Total of four calls to the BR location. Outgoing calls are not impacted by the location configuration.
D. Total of four calls in either direction.
E. Two outgoing calls. Incoming calls are unlimited.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
Incorrect answer: ABCE
In performing location bandwidth calculations for purposes of call admission control, Cisco Unified Communications Manager assumes that each G.729 call stream consumes 24 kb/s amount of bandwidth.

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.
300-075 dumps
What should the destination IP address be configured as on the HQ and BR1 SIP trunks?
A. The HQ SIP trunk destination IP address should be 10.1.6.10. The BR1 SIP trunk destination IP address should be 10.1.5.10.
B. The destination IP address is not configurable. Each cluster will learn about the remote trunk IP address through SAF learned routes.
C. The destination IP address will be learned automatically and configured on the SIP trunks after the Cisco Unified Communications Managers discover themselves.
D. The HQ SIP trunk destination IP address should be the HQ SAF Forwarder IP address. The BR1 SIP trunk destination IP address should be the BR1 SAF Forwarder IP address.
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
Incorrect answer: ACD
The gatekeeper changes the IP address of this remote device dynamically to reflect the IP address of the remote device.

QUESTION 27
How do RSVP-enabled locations differ from Cisco Unified Communications Manager locations?
A. RSVP is configured in the ISR independent of Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
B. RSVP enables AAR within Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
C. RSVP is topology aware.
D. RSVP is configured in Cisco Unified Communications Manager independent of the ISR.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 28
Which two options are effective mechanisms to restrict the maximum number of voice calls on a WAN link? (Choose two.)
A. Configure a gatekeeper with an SIP trunk.
B. Configure a gatekeeper and a gatekeeper-controlled trunk in Cisco Unified Communications Manager with bandwidth control.
C. Configure Cisco Unified Communications Manager regions.
D. Configure Cisco Unified Communications Manager locations.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 29
Which statement about RSVP is true?
A. MTP is typically used for RSVP agent configuration.
B. If the RSVP agent cannot reserve the required bandwidth on first effort, it enables low latency queuing and tries to connect the call again.
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager uses the RSVP-configured bandwidth between sites as a method of determining if there is sufficient bandwidth for the call.
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager uses an RSVP-enabled infrastructure and an RSVP-controlled agent to request a bandwidth reservation from the network in order to place a call.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 30
300-075 dumps How is the region assigned to a device such as an IP phone?
A. Regions are assigned directly in the device configuration page.
B. Regions can be assigned only through a device pool.
C. Regions can be assigned either directly on the device configuration page or through the device pool. If both configurations exist, the device pool region configuration takes precedence.
D. Regions can be assigned either directly on the device configuration page or through the device pool. If both configurations exist, the device region configuration takes precedence.
Correct Answer: B

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The Best Cisco CCNP Collaboration 300-070 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers (Q1-Q30)

QUESTION 1
Which statement about the relationship between gateways and route groups is true?
A. Each gateway can belong to only one route group and can be listed only once within that route group.
B. Each gateway can belong to only one route group and can be listed multiple times within that route group.
C. Each gateway can belong to multiple route groups and can be listed only once within each route group.
D. Each gateway can belong to multiple route groups and can be listed multiple times within each route group.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which dial plan function is used to restrict calls that are made by a lobby phone to internal extensions only?
A. Path selection.
B. Endpoint addressing.
C. Manipulation of dialed destination.
D. Calling privileges.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which two are enterprise parameters? (Choose two.)
A. User search limit
B. T302 parameter
C. Enable Call Detail Records
D. Enable Dependency Records
E. codecs parameters for voice media-streaming applications
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 4
A user’s phone Call Forward No Answer setting has been configured to forward to a hunt pilot. If all call hunting options have been exhausted and the Forward Hunt No Answer feature has been configured to use Personal Preference settings, to which of these will calls to this phone be forwarded?
A. the default destination configured under Service Parameters
B. any destination configured under the user’s DN Personal Settings configuration
C. the destination specified under the user’s Call Forward No Coverage settings
D. voice mail
E. no other destination; each call will continue to ring until the caller hangs up
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
You can implement the personal preferences option. To do so, configure a user phone so that the Forward No Answer field redirects the call to a hunt pilot, which searches for someone else to answer the call. If call hunting fails because all the hunting options are exhausted or because a timeout period expires, the call can be sent to a personalized destination for the person who was originally called. For example, if you set the Forward No Coverage field in the Directory Number Configuration page to a voice-mail number, the call will be sent to the voice mailbox of that person if hunting fails.

QUESTION 5
Which three are functions of Cisco Unified Border Element? 300-070 dumps (Choose three.)
A. client registration
B. H.323 and SIP interworking
C. Lync interworking
D. transcoding
E. phone proxy
F. mobile and remote access
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 6
Which configuration output indicates a properly configured T1 digital voice interface?
A. controller T1 0/0/0framing esflinecode b8zspri-group timeslots 1-24!
B. isdn switch-type primary-ni!controller T1 0/0/0framing esflinecode b8zs!
C. isdn switch-type primary-ni!controller T1 0/0/0framing esflinecode b8zspri-group timeslots 1-24isdn switch-type primary-ni!
D. isdn switch-type primary-ni!controller T1 0/0/0framing esflinecode b8zs!dial-peer voice 1 potsdestination-pattern 54….direction-inward.dialport 0/0/0:23
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
300-070 dumps
Which option is the most highly recommended option to install Cisco TelePresence Conductor on the virtual machine?
A. Thick Provision Eager Zeroed
B. Thick Provision Lazy Zeroed
C. Thick Provision
D. Thin Provision
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Callers inform you that they hear a second dial tone after dialing the number 4085550123. Which dial-peer configuration command resolves this issue?
A. answer-address 408555….
B. destination-pattern 91[2-9]..[2-9]…..
C. forwarddigits all
D. direct-inwarddial
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
An organization has built their video infrastructure to perform ad hoc video calls, but they also need to conduct managed video conference calls. Which hardware component is needed to conduct these calls?
A. VCS-E
B. IOS gateway
C. MCU
D. TelePresence server
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which command is used to enter the DSP farm profile configuration mode?
A. dspfarm-profile 100 transcode
B. dspfarmprofile 100 transcode
C. dspfarm profile 100 transcode
D. dspfarm 100 profile transcode
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Refer to Exhibit:
300-070 dumps
If the user at extension 1001 dials the user at extension 2002, which dial peer is used to route the call?
A. 3
B. 2
C. 4
D. 1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
You are a Network Engineer at ABC Company. You want to ensure that when the contact center agent for the company makes an external call, the extension 897 654 300 is displayed. How do you resolve this issue?
A. Configure a Line Text Label on the Directory Number configuration page.
B. Configure an external phone number mask on the Directory Number configuration page.
C. Configure a translation pattern with the pattern 897654300.
D. Configure an external phone number mask on the Device configuration page.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Which three CLI commands allow you to verify the correct VoIP dial-peer matching? 300-070 dumps (Choose three.)
A. debug ccsip messages
B. debug voip ccapi inout
C. debug dialpeer match
D. debug voip dialpeer inout
E. show dialplan number
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit and configuration output.
300-070 dumps
A user in New York (5001) is trying to call a user in London (6001), but the call cannot be completed. Assuming that the WAN uplink is failing and the voice traffic has to go out toward the PSTN, which command do you need to add to dial peer to solve this issue?
dial-peer voice 3 pots
destination-pattern 6…
preference 1
port 0/0/0:23
dtmf-relay sip-notify
A. num-exp 512602 6001
B. prefix 757385
C. forward-digits 2
D. forward-digits 4
E. prefix 5126
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
Which two of these describe where phone services can appear on an IP phone and who can subscribe to phone services? (Choose two.)
A. end user
B. administrator
C. end user and administrator
D. Services button
E. Services and Directories buttons
F. Services, Directories, and Messages buttons
Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.
300-070 dumps
A Cisco Unified Communications Manager group is configured with the subscriber (10.1.5.3) listed first and the publisher (10.1.5.2) listed second. Which Cisco Unified Communications Manager is used for incoming calls through an MGCP gateway?
A. the publisher
B. both the publisher and subscriber in a round-robin format
C. the first server listed in the Cisco Unified Communications Manager group list
D. the subscriber
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which two of the following DSPs can be used in heterogeneous conferencing to achieve the required trans-sizing and transcoding functionality? (Choose two.)
A. PVDM3-256
B. PVDM2-256
C. PVDM-192
D. PVDM3-32
E. PVDM3-192
F. PVDM2-128
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 18
Managers have asked to be able to have an extension call them back if it is busy when they try to call it. In what two places can this feature be assigned to the Managers phone? (Choose two.)
A. Device Settings > Softkey Template
B. Device Settings > Default Device Profile Configuration
C. Device Settings > Phone Button Template
D. Device Settings > Device Profile
E. Device Settings > Device Defaults
F. Device Settings > Firmware Load Information
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 19
Which three elements are used to configure calling privileges? (Choose three)
A. Route pattern.
B. Calling search space.
C. Replica.
D. User.
E. Partition
F. Time schedule.
Correct Answer: BEF

QUESTION 20
Which two statements describe the function of the off-net option in a route pattern? (Choose two.)
A. The off-net option indicates that if a call is not routed through this route pattern, it is considered off the local network, or “off-net”.
B. This option could be used to block an external call from transferring to an internal party.
C. This option could be used to block an external call from transferring to an external party.
D. The off-net option indicates that if a call is routed through this route pattern, it is considered off the local network, or “off-net.”
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 21
What are two characteristics that are associated with the End User and User account types? (Choose two.)
A. They cannot use LDAP.
B. They are used to authorize applications.
C. They can utilize LDAP.
D. The Application is associated with the End User and User account types.
E. They can be listed in a directory.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 22
Refer to Exhibit:
300-070 dumps
If the user at extension 1001 dials the user at extension 2111, which dial peer is used to route the call?
A. 3
B. 2
C. 4
D. 1
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
Refer to the exhibit. Bob has set his phone to forward calls to extension 5000. When a call is placed to extension 2000, which phone will ring?
300-070 dumps
A. Phone A
B. Phone B
C. Phone C
D. Phone D
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
Which two options are resources in a route list that route calls that match a defined route pattern? 300-070 dumps (Choose two.)
A. gateways
B. route groups
C. virtual machine servers
D. IP phones
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 25
Which statement about a partition is true?
A. A partition is a logical group of transformation patterns with similar accessibility characteristics.
B. A partition is a group of gateways with similar accessibility characteristics.
C. A partition is a logical group of directory numbers with similar accessibility characteristics.
D. A partition is a logical group of route patterns with similar accessibility characteristics.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
Which statement about translation patterns and transformation patterns is true?
A. Both transformation patterns and translations patterns support only numeric values.
B. Both transformation patterns and translations patterns support numeric and alphanumeric values.
C. Transformation patterns support numeric and alphanumeric values, whereas translations patterns supportonly numeric values.
D. Translation patterns support numeric and alphanumeric values, whereas transformation patterns supportonly numeric values.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
Which three Cisco Unified Communications Manager settings can be used to support IP phone services? (Choose three.)
A. Device Defaults
B. Enterprise Parameters
C. IP Phone Service Configuration window
D. Common Phone Profile
E. Service Parameters
F. Phone Configuration window
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 28
Refer to the exhibit.
300-070 dumps
A Network Administrator needs to create a SIP route pattern to communicate with Monterrey’s Gateway. The Administrator does not understand why this is not working properly. Which two statements explain the issue and resolve the problem? (Choose two.)
A. The Administrator needs to set up a SIP trunk between Monterrey’s Gateway and Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
B. The Administrator should type the reload command into Monterrey’s Gateway
C. The issue is caused by a failure of communication between the Monterrey’s Gateway and Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
D. The issue is caused by incorrect protocol integration between Monterrey’s Gateway and Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 29
If the route patterns 5XXX, 51XX, 513X and 5134 exist within a call route database, which pattern would be matched if the dialed number was 5324?
A. 5XXX
B. 51XX
C. 513X
D. 5134
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
You are a Voice Engineer at ABC Company. You want to provision a new voice gateway for a remote site, and you need to configure 24 channels of a T1 CAS interface. Which set is the correct set of commands for this configuration?
A. R1(config)# controller t1 1/0R1(config-controller)# framing esfR1(config-controller)# linecode b8zsR1(config-controller)# primary-group 1 timeslot 1-24 type fxo-loop-start
B. R1(config)# controller t1 1/0R1(config-controller)# linecode hdb3R1(config-controller)# framing crc4R1(config-controller)# clock source lineR1(config-controller)# ds0-group 1 timeslot 1-24 type fxo-loop-start
C. R1(config)# isdn switch-type primary-5essR1(config)# controller t1 t1/0R1(config- controller)# pri-group timeslots 1-24
D. R1(config)# controller t1 1/0R1(config-controller)# framing esfR1(config-controller)# linecode b8zsR1(config-controller)# clock source lineR1(config-controller)# ds0-group 1 timeslot 1-24 type fxo-loop-start
Correct Answer: D

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High Quality Cisco CCDP 300-115 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers Update (Q7-Q30)

QUESTION 7
Which option is the minimum frame size for an 802.1Q frame?
A. 64 bytes
B. 68 bytes
C. 1518 bytes
D. 1522 bytes
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
After UDLD is implemented, a NetworkAdministrator noticed that one port stops receiving UDLD packets. This port continues to reestablish until after eight failed retries. The port then transitions into the errdisable state.
Which option describes what causes the port to go into the errdisable state?
A. Normal UDLD operations that prevent traffic loops.
B. UDLD port is configured in aggressive mode.
C. UDLD is enabled globally.
D. UDLD timers are inconsistent.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Interfaces are assigned to a VLAN, and then the VLAN is deleted. Which state are these interfaces in after the VLAN is deleted?
A. They remain up, but they are reassigned to the default VLAN.
B. They go down until they are reassigned to a VLAN.
C. They go down, but they are reassigned to the default VLAN.
D. They remainup, but they are reassigned to the native VLAN.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
Which option is the most likely explanation of the duplicate address message logged?
A. spanning-tree loop
B. HSRP misconfiguration
C. a PC with IP of 10.10.1.1
D. a hardware problem
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
300-115 dumps Which statement about the use of SDM templates in a Cisco switch is true?
A. SDMtemplates are used to configure system resources in the switch to optimize support for specific features, depending on how the switch is used in the network.
B. SDM templates are used to create Layer 3 interfaces (switch virtual interfaces) to permit hostsin one VLAN to communicate with hosts in another VLAN.
C. SDM templates are used to configure ACLs that protect networks and specific hosts from unnecessary or unwanted traffic.
D. SDM templates are used to configure a set of ACLs that allows the users tomanage the flow of traffic handled by the route processor.
E. SDM templates are configured by accessing the switch using the web interface.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
How does VTP pruning enhance network bandwidth?
A. by restricting unicast traffic across VTP domains
B. by reducing unnecessary flooding of traffic to inactive VLANs
C. by limitingthe spreading of VLAN information
D. by disabling periodic VTP updates
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
When using EtherChannel misconfiguration guard, which technology is used to prevent this type of misconfiguration from affecting the network?
A. STP
B. port security
C. LACP
D. PAgP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
After anEtherChannel is configured between two Cisco switches, interface port channel 1 is in the down/down state.
Switch A is configured with channel-group 1 mode active, while Switch B is configured with channel-group 1 mode desirable.
Why is the EtherChannel bundle not working?
A. The switches are using mismatched EtherChannel negotiation modes.
B. The switch ports are not configured in trunking mode.
C. LACP priority must be configured on both switches.
D. The channel group identifier must be different for Switch A and Switch B.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which feature describes MAC addresses that are dynamically learned or manually configured, stored in theaddress table, and added to the running configuration?
A. sticky
B. dynamic
C. static
D. secure
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Which database is used to determine the validity of an ARP packet based on a valid IP-to- MAC address binding?
A. DHCP snooping database
B. dynamic ARP database
C. dynamic routing database
D. static ARP database
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
A network engineer changed the port speed and duplex setting of an existing EtherChannel bundle that uses the PAgP protocol. Which statement describes what happens to all ports in the bundle?
A. PAgP changes the port speed and duplex for all ports in the bundle.
B. PAgP drops the ports that do not match the configuration.
C. PAgP does not change the port speed and duplex for all ports in the bundle until the switch is rebooted.
D. PAgP changes the port speed but notthe duplex for all ports in the bundle.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
You want to configure a switched internetwork with multiple VLANs as shown above. Which of the following commands should you issue on SwitchA for the port connected to SwitchB? (Select the best answer.)
300-115 dumps
A. switchport mode trunk
B. switchport access vlan 5
C. switchport mode access vlan 5
D. switchport trunk native vlan 5
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Routers R1 and R2 are configured for HSRP as shown below:
Router R1: interface ethernet 0 ip address 20.6.2.1 255.255.255.0 standby 35 ip 20.6.2.21 standby 35 priority 100 interface ethernet 1 ip address 20.6.1.1.2 255.255.255.0 standby 34 ip 20.6.1.21 Router R2: interface ethernet 0 ip address 20.6.2.2 255.255.255.0 standby 35 ip 20.6.2.21 interface ethernet 1 ip address 20.6.1.1.1 255.255.255.0 standby 34 ip 20.6.1.21 standby 34 priority 100 You have configured the routers R1 andamp;R2 with HSRP. 300-115 dumps While debugging router R2 you notice very frequent HSRP group state transitions. What is the most likely cause of this?
A. physical layer issues
B. no spanning tree loops
C. use of non-default HSRP timers
D. failure to set the command standby 35 preempt
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which technique automatically limits VLAN traffic to only the switches that require it?
A. access lists
B. DTP in nonegotiate
C. VTP pruning
D. PBR
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
Whichfour LACP components are used to determine which hot-standby links become active after an interface failure within an EtherChannel bundle? (Choose four.)
A. LACP system priority
B. LACP port priority
C. interface MAC address
D. system ID
E. port number
F. hot-standby link identification number
G. interface bandwidth
Correct Answer: ABDE

QUESTION 22
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
Which configuration ensures that the Cisco Discovery Protocol packet update frequency sent from DSW1 to ALS1 is half of the default value?
A. DSW1(config)#cdp timer 90
B. DSW1(config-if)#cdp holdtime 60
C. DSW1(config)#cdp timer 30
D. DSW1(config)#cdp holdtime 90
E. DSW1(config-if)#cdp holdtime 30
F. DSW1(config-if)#cdp timer 60
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 23
It a switch stack is configured to used SDM templates, where are the templates stored?
A. stack master
B. TFTP server
C. flash memory
D. all stack members
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Ferris Plastics, Inc. is a medium sized company, with an enterprise network (access, distribution andcore switches) that provides LAN connectivity from user PCs to corporate servers. The distribution switches are configured to use HSRP to provide a high availability solution.
– DSW1 -primary device for VLAN 101 VLAN 102 and VLAN 105
– DSW2 – primarydevice for VLAN 103 and VLAN 104
A failure of GigabitEthemet1/0/1 on primary device should cause the primary device to release its status as the primary device, unless GigabitEthernet1/0/1 on backup device has also failed.
Troubleshooting hasidentified several issues. Currently all interfaces are up. Using the running configurations and show commands, you have been asked to investigate and respond to the following question.
300-115 dumps
300-115 dumps
300-115 dumps
During routine maintenance, it became necessary to shut down the GigabitEthernet1/0/1 interface on DSW1. All other interfaces were up. During this time, DSW1 remained the active device for the VLAN 102 HSRP group. You have determined that there is an issue with the decrement value in the track command for the VLAN102 HSRP group. What needs to be done to make the group function properly?
A. The decrement value on DSW1 should be greaterthan 5 and less than 15. 0
B. The decrement value on DSW1 should be greaterthan 9 and less than 15.
C. The decrement value on DSW1should be greaterthan 11 and less than 19.
D. The decrement value on DSWTs should be greaterthan 190 and less than 200.
E. The decrement value on DSWTs should be greaterthan 195 and less than 205.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
VLAN maps have been configured on switch R1. 300-115 dumps Which of the following actions are taken in a VLAN map that does not contain a match clause?
A. Implicit deny feature at end of list.
B. Implicit denyfeature at start of list.
C. Implicit forward feature at end of list
D. Implicit forward feature at start of list.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
Users of PC-1 experience slow connection when a webpage is requested from the server. To increase bandwidth, the network engineer configured an EtherChannel on interfaces Fa1/0 and Fa0/1 of the server farm switch, as shown here:
Server_Switch#sh etherchannel load-balance
EtherChannel Load-Balancing Operational State (src-mac):
Non-IP: Source MAC address
IPv4: Source MAC address
IPv6: Source IP address
Server_Switch#
However,traffic is still slow. Which action can the engineer take to resolve this issue?
A. Disable EtherChannel load balancing.
B. Upgrade the switch IOS to IP services image.
C. Change the load-balance method to dst-mac.
D. Contact Cisco TAC to report a bug onthe switch.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Which two statements about SPAN source and destination ports during an active session are true? (Choose two.)
A. The source port can be only an Ethernet physical port.
B. The source port can be monitored in multiple SPAN sessions.
C. Thedestination port can be destination in multiple SPAN sessions.
D. The destination port does not participate in STP.
E. You can mix individual source ports and source VLANs within a single session.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 28
Which two statements about the HSRP priority are true? (Choose two)
A. To assign the HSRP router priority in a standby group, the standby group-number priority priority-value global configuration command must be used.
B. The default priority of a router is zero (0).
C. The no standby priority command assigns a priority of 100 to the router.
D. Assuming that preempting has also been configured, the router with the lowest priority in an HSRP group would become the active router.
E. When two routers in an HSRP standby group are configured with identical priorities, the router with the highest configured IP address will become the active router.
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 29
Refer to the exhibit.
300-115 dumps
Which statement about switch S1 is true?
A. Physical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 2 port-channel interface using an open standard protocol.
B. Logical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 2 physical port- channel interface using a Cisco proprietary protocol.
C. Physical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 3 port-channel interface using a Cisco proprietary protocol.
D. Logical port Fa0/13, Fa0/14, and Fa0/15 successfully formed a Layer 3 physical port- channel interface using an open standard protocol.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Refer to the exhibit. What is the result of setting GLBP weighting at 105 with lower threshold 90 and upper threshold 100 on this router?
300-115 dumps
A. Only if both tracked objects are up will this router will be available as an AVF for group 1.
B. Only if the state of both tracked objects goes down will this router release its status as an AVF for group 1.
C. If both tracked objects go down and then one comes up, but the other remains down, this router will be available as an AVF for group 1.
D. This configuration is incorrect and will not have any effect on GLBP operation.
E. If the state of one tracked object goes down then this router will release its status as an AVF for group 1.
Correct Answer: B

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Latest Cisco CCDA 200-310 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (31-60)

QUESTION 31
What IPv4 addressing technique is used for proper address planning to reduce the number of entries in a routing table?
A. Filtering
B. Tunneling
C. Summarization
D. Translation
E. Supernetting
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 32
When designing the threat detection and mitigation portion for the enterprise data center network, which of the following would be the most appropriate solution to consider?
A. 802.1x
B. ACL in the Core layer
C. Cisco Security MARS
D. Cisco Firewall Services Module
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 33
What three considerations should be taken into account when selecting a routing protocol? (Choose three.)
A. Classful routing
B. Scalability
C. Default route origination
D. Multi vendor support
E. Link load balancing
F. Hop count
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 34
Which network access control technology is recommended to use with Layer 2 access layer switches?
A. 802.1q
B. 802.1x
C. 802.3af
D. 802.3q
E. 802.11n
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 35
What is the primary advantage of implementing a wireless LAN controller in a wireless LAN design?
A. Roaming between APs
B. RADIUS user authentication
C. Radio resource management
D. accelerated data transfer
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 36
Which option is a benefit of Cisco Discovery Protocol? 200-310 dumps
A. Provides information about directly connected Cisco devices
B. Provides greater detail about collected data, including time stamping
C. Combines with the network layer data that is gathered by NetFlow when using a NetFlow collector
D. Part of the IEEE 802.1ab standard
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 37
Which two statements best describe an OSPF deployment? (Choose two.)
A. ABR provides automatic classful network boundary summarization
B. ABR requires manual configuration for classful network summarization
C. External routes are propagated into the autonomous system from stub areas via ASBR
D. External routes are propagated into the autonomous system from regular areas or NSSA via ASBR
E. External routes are propagated into the autonomous system from regular areas or NSSA via ABR
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 38
A dynamically routed private line and a statically routed IPsec tunnel connect two offices.
What routing configuration prefers the IPsec tunnel only in the event of a private line failure?
A. Floating static entry
B. EIGRP variance
C. Bandwidth metric
D. OSPF maximum path
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 39
A network engineer has finished designing and implementing a new network. What two protocols would they use to gain insight into the network and determine the components that require optimization? (Choose two.)
A. CDP
B. NetFlow
C. ICMP Echo
D. NMAP
E. SNMP
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 40
What is the key limitation of using Internet circuits as a backup to a private enterprise WAN?
A. Circuit bandwidth
B. Prioritization
C. Security
D. Operational expense
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 41
Which protocol is used for voice bearer traffic?
A. MGCP
B. RTP
C. SCCP
D. CDP
E. ICMP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 42
Which two enterprise campus layers are combined in a medium-sized LAN? (Choose two.)
A. Core
B. Distribution
C. Access
D. Backbone
E. Aggregation
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 43
200-310 dumps
A network engineer at a technical call center receives a call from a customer complaining that only 56 kbps of data can be transferred over the T1 Frame Relay WAN circuit at a remote site. 200-310 dumps The engineer checks the Frame Relay switch and confirms that only 56 kbps is being transferred over the circuit. The engineer requests the router configuration of the customer headquarters site router.
What is causing this issue to occur?
A. The wrong CIR is configured
B. The BECN configuration is causing this issue
C. The class name is spelled wrong under the interface
D. The wrong DLCI number is assigned to the interface
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 44
Which WAN technology is a cost-effective method to deliver 100Mb of bandwidth to multiple branch offices?
A. DSL
B. DWDM
C. ISDN
D. Metro Ethernet
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 45
Which IP telephony component supports VoIP, PoE, and QoS?
A. Client Endpoints
B. Voice-enabled infrastructure
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager
D. Cisco Unified Contact Center
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 46
What two SAN protocols will allow a customer to utilize 10GbE for SAN access? (Choose two.)
A. iSCSI
B. FCoE C. SATA
D. Fiber Channel
E. AoE
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 47
200-310 dumps
Which configuration can be used to implement FHRP protocol and load balancing at the same time?
A. R1 interface Ethernet0 ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0 standby 1 preempt standby 1 ip 171.16.6.100 standby 1 track Serial0 standby 2 preempt standby 2 ip 171.16.6.200 standby 2 track Serial0 standby 2 priority 95 ! R2 interface Ethernet0 ip address 171.16.6.6 255.255.255.0 standby 1 preempt standby 1 ip 171.16.6.100 standby 1 track Serial0 standby 2 preempt standby 2 ip 171.16.6.200 standby 2 track Serial0
B. R1 interface Ethernet0 ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0 standby 1 preempt standby 1 ip 171.16.6.100 standby 1 track Serial0 standby 1 priority 95 ! R2 interface Ethernet0 ip address 171.16.6.6 255.255.255.0 standby 1 preempt standby 1 ip 171.16.6.100 standby 1 track Serial0 standby 1 priority 95
C. R1 interface Ethernet0 ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0 standby 1 preempt standby 1 ip 171.16.6.100 standby 1 track Serial0 standby 1 priority 95 standby 2 preempt standby 2 ip 171.16.6.200
standby 2 track Serial0
standby 2 priority 95
!
R2
interface Ethernet0
ip address 171.16.6.6 255.255.255.0
standby 1 preempt
standby 1 ip 171.16.6.100
standby 1 track Serial0
standby 2 preempt
standby 2 ip 171.16.6.200
standby 2 track Serial0
D. R1 interface Ethernet0 ip address 171.16.6.5 255.255.255.0 standby 1 preempt standby 1 ip 171.16.6.100 standby 1 track Serial0 standby 1 priority 95 ! R2 interface Ethernet0 ip address 171.16.6.6 255.255.255.0 standby 1 preempt standby 1 ip 171.16.6.100
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 48
What business trend allows employees to use personal devices to access enterprise data and systems?
A. ISE
B. BYOD
C. SAN
D. IOE
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 49
Which two of the following are benefits of using a modular approach to network design? (Choose two.)
A. Improve flexibility
B. Facilitates implementation
C. Lowers implementation costs
D. Improves customer participation in the design process
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 50
Which two states are RSTP port states? (Choose two.)
A. Discarding
B. Learning
C. Blocking
D. Listening
E. Disabled
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 51
Which two statements about designing the Enterprise Data Center Access submodule are correct? (Choose two)
A. Multiport NIC servers should each have their own IP address
B. Layer 3 connectivity should never be used in the access layer
C. Layer 2 connectivity is primarily implemented in the access layer
D. Multiport NIC servers should never be used in the access layer
E. Layer 2 clustering implementation requires servers to be Layer 2 adjacent
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 52
Which type of structure consists of the addressing, routing protocols, QoS, and security components?
A. Logical
B. Physical
C. Layered
D. Virtual
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 53
When designing for a remote worker, which two are typical requirements? 200-310 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Best-effort interactive and low-volume traffic patterns
B. Connections to the enterprise edge using Layer 2 WAN technologies
C. Always-on connection with SLA from ISP
D. Voice and IPsec VPN support
E. High-end security devices with stateful firewall filtering
F. Dual or multihoming to ISPs
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 54
What is the recommended spanning tree protocol to use for all Layer 2 deployments in a branch office environment?
A. CST
B. RSPT
C. PVST
D. MISTP
E. Rapid PVST+
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 55
Why would an engineer implement variable length subnet masks?
A. To make a subnet public
B. To prevent wasting IP addresses
C. To make a subnet its own VLAN
D. To expand an existing subnet
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 56
When is the Cisco FlexConnect design model recommended?
A. When remote-site APs are centrally managed
B. When each remote site has its own wireless controller
C. When each remote site runs VSS
D. When the remote sites use WAN optimization
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 57
What three primary sources of information are needed to perform a network audit? (Choose three.)
A. Existing documentation
B. New documentation
C. Existing network management software
D. New network management tools
E. Management personnel
F. Technical personnel
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 58
What are the three models that are required in the systematic approach of the top-down design methodology? (Choosethree.)
A. Logical
B. Physical
C. Layered
D. Network components
E. Technological
F. Protocols
G. Virtual
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 59
Your supervisor has asked you to deploy a routing protocol within the lab environment that will allow for unequal cost multipath routing. Which should you choose?
A. EIGRP
B. OSPF
C. IS-IS
D. RIP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 60
A company would like to distribute a VM hosting cluster between three data centers with the capability to move VMs between sites. The connectivity between data centers is IP only, and the new design should use existing WAN.
Which layer 2 tunneling technology should be used?
A. VPLS
B. L2TPv3
C. OTV
D. AToM
Correct Answer: C

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200-310 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which three solutions are part of the Borderless Network Services? (Choose three.)
A. Wireless
B. Routing
C. TrustSec
D. MediaNet
E. Swicthing
F. EnergyWise
G. Next-Gen WAN
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 2
Which option cause deep-packet examination to determine the specific nature of an attack?
A. Network IPS
B. Netflow collector
C. Stateful firewall
D. Syslog server
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
What is a characteristic of campus core design?
A. Fast transport
B. Security
C. Summarization
D. Redistribution
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
A company has dark fiber between headquarters and its data center. It is presently configured as a 10GbE connection.
Network utilization shows high utilization on the connection. What technology can be implemented to increase capacity without acquiring another circuit?
A. MPLS
B. DWDM
C. VPLS
D. DMVPN
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which two Cisco data center can participate in Cisco FabricPath? 200-310 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switches
B. Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches
C. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches
D. Cisco Nexus 4900 Series Switches
E. Cisco MDS 9500 Series Multilayer Directors
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6
An application uses broadcast traffic to send data to IPv4 hosts. How can the application communicate using IPv6?
A. Anycast
B. Unicast
C. Broadcast
D. Multicast
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
When considering the three VoIP design models – single site, centralized multisite, and distributed multisite – which question would help to eliminate one of the options?
A. Will the witches be required to provide inline power?
B. Will users need to make offsite calls, beyond the enterprise?
C. Will users require applications such as voice mail and interactive voice response?
D. Are there users whose only enterprise access is via a QoS-enabled WAN?
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
A network engineer is following the Cisco Enterprise Architecture model. To which network layer would a branch office connect to using a private VLAN?
A. Enterprise Campus
B. Enterprise Edge
C. SP Edge Premise
D. Remote Module
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Application servers require load balancing and security services. Where in the data center network should these services be provisioned?
A. Core
B. Aggregation
C. Layer 3 access
D. Distribution
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
A network design engineer is seeking a dynamic routing protocol that supports fast convergence in a Cisco environment.
What protocol allows for this?
A. EIGRP
B. OSPF
C. RIP
D. BGP
E. IS-IS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Why would an engineer implement variable length subnet masks?
A. To make a subnet public
B. To prevent wasting IP addresses
C. To make a subnet its own VLAN
D. To expand an existing subnet
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
The red lines refer to STP blocked ports. What happens if the HSRP active moves to the right distribution, and the STP root remains on the left distribution? 200-310 dumps
A. The STP root becomes the gateway
B. The interdistribution link is used for transit
C. The HSRP standby becomes the gateway
D. The interaccess link is used for transit
E. Host traffic is unable to reach the HSRP active
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
In the traditional hierarchical LAN design,Which two statement about the distribution layer are true? (Choose two.)
A. It typically is connected directly to the internet It provides users direct access to the network
B. It uses Layer 2 switching only
C. It aggregates data from the access layer
D. Policy is implemented at this layer
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
What three design requirements are key to design a Campus Core?
A. Low latency
B. Access control
C. Traffic filtering
D. High speed
E. Redundant links
F. QoS tagging
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 15
When designing the threat detection and mitigation portion for the enterprise data center network, which of the following would be the most appropriate solution to consider?
A. 802.1x
B. ACL in the Core layer
C. Cisco Security MARS
D. Cisco Firewall Services Module
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
A network engineer has been asked to follow a top down design approach. Which layer of the OSI model is used to start the design?
A. Physical
B. Network
C. Transport
D. Application
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Which two design approaches provide management of Enterprise Network devices? (Choose two.)
A. In-band
B. Out-of-line
C. Out-of-band
D. In-line
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 18
Which two design decision can improve network resiliency? (you have to chose 2 answers)
A. Implement redundant link
B. Increase data plane bandwidth
C. Implement serial device connection
D. Reduce network size
E. Implement redundant topology
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 19
In which phase of PPDIOO are the network requirements identified? 200-310 dumps
A. Design
B. Plan
C. Prepare
D. Implement
E. Operate
F. Optimize
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
What IPv4 addressing technique is used for proper address planning to reduce the number of entries in a routing table?
A. Filtering
B. Tunneling
C. Summarization
D. Translation
E. Supernetting
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
If two routing protocols have the same route and prefix, which effect do thery have on the routing table?
A. Only the route with the lowest administrative distance is added
B. Only the route with the highest administrative distance is added
C. Both routes are added
D. Neither route is added, and a loop is formed
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which three are associated with the distribution layer within the campus design? (Choose three.)
A. Access layer aggregation
B. Route summarization
C. Network trust boundary
D. Next-hop redundancy
E. Layer-2 switching
F. Port security
G. Broadcast suppression
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 23
What network virtualization technology can be leveraged within the data center to reduce the number of physical devices?
A. VLANs
B. VPLS
C. VDC
D. VSS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
What three customer supported details identifies network requirements based on the PPDIOO design model? 200-310 dumps (Choose three.)
A. Goals
B. Budget
C. User needs
D. Locations
E. Policies
F. Tasks
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 25
DataQuirk is a web-based medical transcription company for exotic-animal veterinarians. The company recently added a third ISP for international business. They are organizing the enterprise network into a fully operational Enterprise Edge.
To which two modules will the three ISPs be directly related? (Choose two.)
A. PSTN
B. E-Commerce
C. WAN/MAN
D. Edge Distribution
E. Internet Connectivity
F. Remote Access VPN
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 26
Which two methods are used to reduce the mesh links required between iBGP peers in the same AS? (Choose two.)
A. Community
B. Router reflectors
C. Local preferences
D. Confederations
E. Atomic Aggregate
F. MED
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 27
Which three sources does a network designer use to collect information for characterizing an existing network? (Choose three.)
A. Staff input
B. Visual inventory
C. Network audit
D. Traffic analysis
E. Server statistics
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 28
Which command is correct for creating a virtual interface on Cisco wireless controller?
A. config create interface
B. tag interface
C. config interface address
D. untag interface
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 29
Which statement describes an advantage of the Layer 2 access model over the Layer 3 access model in the data center?
A. It enables NIC teaming
B. It removes STP dependency
C. It increases scalability
D. It decreases convergence
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
What two configurations are Cisco recommended best practices for user access interfaces? (Choose two.)
A. VTP transparent mode
B. BPDU guard
C. Root Guard
D. Portfast
E. Trunk mode
Correct Answer: BD

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300-360 dumps
QUESTION 1
An engineer is tuning RRM parameters to improve client connectivity. Which channel band results in the best 802.11n client compatibility?
A. UNII-2
B. UNII-2e
C. UNII-3
D. UNII
E. UNII-1
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 2
An engineer is installing a wireless network in an industrial area with extreme temperatures and a significant amount of dust. Which enclosure should be used to protect the APs?
A. ACU
B. ADU
C. NEMA
D. WLSE
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What are two advantages of conducting an active survey versus a passive survey when verifying RF coverage? (Choose two.)
A. verifies packet loss
B. verifies roaming
C. verifies SNR
D. verifies signal level
E. verifies interferers
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4
An engineer is deploying an outdoor Mesh network. Which four major factors should be considered? 300-360 dumps (Choose four.)
A. power
B. buildings
C. traffic lights
D. satellite dishes
E. line of sight
F. network connectivity
G. power lines
H. mounting
Correct Answer: AEHF

QUESTION 5
A customer has deployed an N+N redundant wireless infrastructure. In this deployment the access points have been salt and peppered between controllers.
What configuration would be necessary to cut down on the use of mobility tunnels for voice clients?
A. mobility anchor
B. KIS based CAC
C. media session snooping
D. re-anchor roamed voice clients
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which two steps are associated with the active portion of the audit when a post-installation audit is performed with an auditing tool such as Ekahau? (Choose two.)
A. Check for co-channel interference by standing near an access point on one channel and watching for other access points that are on the same channel.
B. Verify smooth roaming.
C. Check to see if the signal level on other access points that are heard on the same channel is at least 19dBm weaker than the access point that you are next to.
D. Check that all channels are supported by the APs regardless of client capabilities.
E. Verify that the network traffic of physical data rate and packet loss meets user requirements.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
300-360 dumps
While testing the post-deployment WLAN network you discover that an AP has been placed in a difficult area. The AP cannot be moved easily because of various requirements. 300-360 dumps The client performance of various Apple and Microsoft operating system-based products does not meet expectations.
Which two options can help mitigate the performance issue? (Choose two.)
A. Add additional APs.
B. Increase the AP power level to maximum.
C. Rotate the AP 90 degrees to change antenna polarity.
D. Replace the AP with an AP and external antenna.
E. Change the AP location to one that is less RF hostile.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 8
An engineer would like to calibrate the RF environment to improve accuracy.
Which wireless attribute is added to the foor-level calculation by calibrating the foor?
A. attenuation
B. TX power
C. multipath
D. SNR
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
An engineer is performing a predictive wireless design for a Parts Distribution Center which requires data and location services. Which three requirements are inputs to the design? (Choose three.)
A. access points with directional antennas
B. continuous -67 dBm coverage from one access point
C. overlapping -75 dBm coverage from three access points
D. overlapping -67 dBm coverage from two access points
E. access points in IPS mode
F. continuous -72 dBm coverage from one access point
G. accesspointsincornersandalongperimeters
Correct Answer: BCG

QUESTION 10
A customer is deploying a Greenfield 802.11ac network on a foor that will support approximately 300 wireless devices.
Which setting needs to be changed on Prime Infrastructure Planning Tool in order to predict the amount of access points the customer needs to service the new foor?
A. Data Coverage Support Margin
B. Demand Settings
C. Add AP Field
D. 802.11n Protocol Support
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which two options describe best practices that must be completed after a wireless installation is finished? 300-360 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Make sure that there are no spaces between the devices on the rack that the Wireless Lan Controller isinstalled.
B. Consult with the customer to ensure that the IT staff has a complete set of design and installationdocuments.
C. Make sure the customer is aware that they should consider purchasing a support contract immediately afterthe installationis complete.
D. Spend time with the customer to show them the controller GUI and inform them how they can reach the Cisco TAC if they have any problems.
E. Test all the customer’s wireless devices and applications to ensure they are working properly.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 12
An engineer is preparing for an outdoor wireless survey to mesh connect a distant remote building to a connected building.
Which two types of antennas are appropriate for this application? (Choose two.)
A. circular polarized
B. patch
C. dish
D. Yagi
E. omni
Correct Answer: CD

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Security
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Exam Code: 210-260
Total Questions: 310 Q&As
lead4pass 210-260 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which feature of the Cisco Email Security Appliance can mitigate the impact of snowshoe spam and sophisticated phishing attacks?
A. contextual analysis
B. holistic understanding of threats
C. graymail management and filtering
D. signature-based IPS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
When a company puts a security policy in place, what is the effect on the company’s business?
A. Minimizing risk
B. Minimizing total cost of ownership
C. Minimizing liability
D. Maximizing compliance
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which EAP method uses Protected Access Credentials?
A. EAP-FAST
B. EAP-TLS
C. EAP-PEAP
D. EAP-GTC
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which tasks is the session management path responsible for? (Choose three.)
A. Verifying IP checksums
B. Performing route lookup
C. Performing session lookup
D. Allocating NAT translations
E. Checking TCP sequence numbers
F. Checking packets against the access list
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 5
What is the purpose of the Integrity component of the CIA triad?
A. to ensure that only authorized parties can modify data
B. to determine whether data is relevant
C. to create a process for accessing data
D. to ensure that only authorized parties can view data
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which Cisco product can help mitigate web-based attacks within a network?
A. Adaptive Security Appliance
B. Web Security Appliance
C. Email Security Appliance
D. Identity Services Engine
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
lead4pass 210-260 dumps
If a supplicant supplies incorrect credentials for all authentication methods configured on the switch, how will the switch respond?
A. The supplicant will fail to advance beyond the webauth method.
B. The switch will cycle through the configured authentication methods indefinitely.
C. The authentication attempt will time out and the switch will place the port into the unauthorized state.
D. The authentication attempt will time out and the switch will place the port into VLAN 101.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
What security feature allows a private IP address to access the Internet by translating it to a public address?
A. NAT
B. hairpinning
C. Trusted Network Detection
D. Certification Authority
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
What is one requirement for locking a wired or wireless device from ISE?
A. The ISE agent must be installed on the device.
B. The device must be connected to the network when the lock command is executed.
C. The user must approve the locking action.
D. The organization must implement an acceptable use policy allowing device locking.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
What is the purpose of a honeypot IPS?
A. To create customized policies
B. To detect unknown attacks
C. To normalize streams
D. To collect information about attacks
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
In which three ways does the RADIUS protocol differ from TACACS? (Choose three.)
A. RADIUS uses UDP to communicate with the NAS.
B. RADIUS encrypts only the password field in an authentication packet.
C. RADIUS authenticates and authorizes simultaneously, causing fewer packets to be transmitted.
D. RADIUS uses TCP to communicate with the NAS.
E. RADIUS can encrypt the entire packet that is sent to the NAS.
F. RADIUS supports per-command authorization.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 12
Which statement about extended access lists is true?
A. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on source and destination and are most effective when applied to the destination
B. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on source and destination and are most effective when applied to the source
C. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on destination and are most effective when applied to the source
D. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on source and are most effective when applied to the destination
Correct Answer: B

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND2
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-105
Total Questions: 204 Q&As
100-105 dumps
QUESTION 1
What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two.)
A. Administratively shut down the interface.
B. Physically secure the interface.
C. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group command.
D. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.
E. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 2
Which EIGRP for IPv6 command can you enter to view the link-local addresses of the neighbors of a device?
A. show ipv6 eigrp 20 interfaces
B. show ipv6 route eigrp
C. show ipv6 eigrp neighbors
D. show ip eigrp traffic
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
A network administrator has configured access list 173 to prevent Telnet and ICMP traffic from reaching a server with the address of 192.168.13.26. 200-105 dumps Which commands can the administrator issue to verify that the access list is working properly? (Choose three.)
A. Router# ping 192.168.13.26
B. Router# debug access-list 173
C. Router# show open ports 192.168.13.26
D. Router# show access-lists
E. Router# show ip interface
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 4
Which type of interface can negotiate an IP address for a PPPoE client?
A. Ethernet
B. dialer
C. serial
D. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
It has become necessary to configure an existing serial interface to accept a second Frame Relay virtual circuit. Which of the following are required to solve this? (Choose three)
A. configure static frame relay map entries for each subinterface network.
B. remove the ip address from the physical interface
C. create the virtual interfaces with the interface command
D. configure each subinterface with its own IP address
E. disable split horizon to prevent routing loops between the subinterface networks
F. encapsulate the physical interface with multipoint PPP
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 6
Which component of the Cisco SDN solution serves as the centralized management system?
A. Cisco OpenDaylight
B. Cisco ACI
C. Cisco APIC
D. Cisco IWAN
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
At the end of an RSTP election process, 200-105 dumps which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role?
A. Switch3, port fa0/1
B. Switch3, port fa0/12
C. Switch4, port fa0/11
D. Switch4, port fa0/2
E. Switch3, port Gi0/1
F. Switch3, port Gi0/2
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
What three actions will the switch take when a frame with an unknown source MAC address arrives at the interface? (Select three.)
A. Send an SNMP trap.
B. Send a syslog message.
C. Increment the Security Violation counter.
D. Forward the traffic.
E. Write the MAC address to the startup-config.
F. Shut down the port.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1?
A. It has more than one interface that is connected to the root network segment.
B. It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802.1d spanning tree.
C. It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge.
D. It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
What are the benefit of using Netflow? 200-105 dumps (Choose three.)
A. Network, Application & User Monitoring
B. Network Planning
C. Security Analysis
D. Accounting/Billing
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 11
What is a difference between TACACS+ and RADIUS in AAA?
A. Only TACACS+ allows for separate authentication.
B. Only RADIUS encrypts the entire access-request packet.
C. Only RADIUS uses TCP.
D. Only TACACS+ couples authentication and authorization.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which statement about QoS default behavior is true?
A. Ports are untrusted by default.
B. VoIP traffic is passed without being tagged.
C. Video traffic is passed with a well-known DSCP value of 46.
D. Packets are classified internally with an environment.
E. Packets that arrive with a tag are untagged at the edge of an administrative domain.
Correct Answer: E

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Cloud
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cloud Fundamentals
Exam Code: 210-451
Total Questions: 60 Q&As
210-451 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which option contains server hardware identifiers, firmware, state, configuration, and connectivity characteristics?
A. pools
B. policies
C. service profiles
D. resource groups
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which two options are benefits of the Cisco InterCloud Solution? (Choose two.)
A. enforces standardization on a single hypervisor product
B. provides self service for hybrid resources
C. management of heterogeneous SAN solutions
D. secure connectivity between public and private Clouds
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
Which option is an open and extensible southbound protocol that supplies policy directly to data center networks? 210-451 dumps
A. OpFlex
B. vPath
C. VM-FEX
D. OpenDaylight
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Refer to the command line display below:
vsan database
vsan 1000 name FCoE
vlan 1000
fcoe vlan 1000
int e1/1
switchport mode trunk
switchport trunk allowed vlan 1000
no shut
int vfc10
bind interface e1/1
switchport trunk allowed vsan 1000
no shut
On which line does the error occur that prevents FCoE from operating correctly in a Cisco Nexus switch?
A. fcoe vlan 1000
B. switchport trunk allowed vsan 1000
C. int vfc10
D. bind interface e1/1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
What is an invalid Cloud deployment model?
A. distributed
B. private
C. community
D. hybrid
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which option is one essential characteristic of Cloud computing? 210-451 dumps
A. It must use virtualization.
B. It must provide load balancing services.
C. It must provide on-demand self service.
D. It must run on open source software.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which two descriptions of VXLAN are true? (Choose two.)
A. The VXLAN Identifier space is 24 bits.
B. VXLAN uses the Internet Protocol as the transport medium.
C. VXLAN adds 24 bytes of overhead to each packet.
D. VXLAN is primarily designed for small environments.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 8
Which two technologies support running Linux and Windows virtual machines? (Choose two.)
A. KVM
B. LXD
C. Docker
D. Microsoft Hyper-V
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 9
What are two characteristics of a LUN? (Choose two.)
A. A LUN must be fully comprised of one physical disk
B. A LUN handles file system creation
C. A LUN can be comprised of multiple physical disks
D. A LUN is a unique identifier
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 10
Which Cloud service model is appropriate for a physical data center move to the Cloud?
A. Infrastructure as a Service
B. Platform as a Service
C. Compute as a Service
D. Software as a Service
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which of the following is a feature that improves the performance of software applications that run on the Cisco UCS servers in a data center by bypassing the kernel when sending and receiving networking packets?
A. A, vPath
B. VM-FEX
C. usNIC
D. VMware PassThrough
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which of the following best describes the order of operations of FCoE Initialization Protocol? 210-451 dumps
A. VLAN Discovery, FCF Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery, FC Command
B. VLAN Discovery, FCF Discovery, PLOGI Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery
C. FCF Discovery, PLOGI Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery
D. VLAN Discovery, FCF Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery
Correct Answer: D

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