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Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-180 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Refer to the output.
feature otv
otv site-vlan 2
otv site-identifier 256
!
interface ethernet 2/0
ip address 192.0.2.1/24
ip igmp version 3
!
interface ethernet 2/1
ip address 192.0.2.2/24
ip igmp version 3
!
interface Overlay1
otv control-group 239.1.1.1
otv join-interface ethernet 2/0
otv extend-vlan 3-100
!
interface Overlay2
otv control-group 239.1.1.1
otv join-interface ethernet 2/1
otv extend-vlan 101-115
Which command best represents where the control plane configurations are applied?
A. switch(config-if-overlay)# otv isis hello-interval 30
B. switch(config-if)# otv isis hello-interval 30
C. switch(config-vlan)# otv isis hello-interval 30
D. switch(config)# otv isis hello-interval 30
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
Which two conditions can prevent vFC from coming up? (Choose two.)
A. PFC is enabled.
B. DCBX is disabled.
C. LDP is disabled.
D. vPC is enabled.
E. VSAN trunking is enabled.
Correct Answer: CE
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/troubleshooting/guide/N5K_Troubleshooting_Guide/n5K_ts_fcoe.html

 

QUESTION 3
Which action do you take to determine why the interface e1/10 is not present in the core VDC for configuration?
A. Check the admin VDC to see the port e1/10 is allocated.
B. Check the core VDC to see if the port e1/10 is allocated.
C. Check to see if the cable is connected to the e1/10 interface,
D. Check to see if vPC is enabled
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 4
What are the two most common causes of the “SFP validation failed” error on an interface when you attempt to connect
a Cisco Nexus 2148T Fabric Extender to a Cisco Nexus 5548UP Switch? (Choose two.)
A. The port must be in switchport monitor mode.
B. It is a hardware limitation of the Cisco Nexus 2148T.
C. The wrong speed is configured on the interface.
D. The incorrect license has been applied on the Cisco Nexus 5548UP.
E. The wrong switchport mode is configured on the interface.
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 5
A customer is configuring LAN pin groups in a Cisco UCS domain. The customer has two fabric interconnects and
would like to associate the pin group with only one interconnect. Which statement about this configuration is true?
A. In a system with two fabric interconnects, you can associate the pin group with only one fabric interconnect, and the
other fabric interconnect will not be usable.
B. In a system with two fabric interconnects, you can only associate the pin group with both fabric interconnects; you
cannot associate the pin group with only one fabric interconnect.
C. In a system with two fabric interconnects, you can associate the pin group with only one fabric interconnect or with
both fabric interconnect. This is a supported configuration.
D. This configuration is not supported in a Cisco UCS domain.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-180 exam question q6

What does this adapter output indicate?
A. The target of the configured zone does not match the target of the configured boot order.
B. The port types between the target and initiator are incorrectly configured.
C. The target device configuration is not allowing the initiator to access the LUN.
D. The configured initiator LUN ID does not match the configured target LUN ID.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 7
Which two options describe the correct requirements for non-disruptive ISSU on Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches?
(Choose two.)
A. updated kickstart and system images may be staged in bootflash on single-supervisor switches
B. updated kickstart and system images may be staged in bootflash on dual-supervisor switches
C. updated kickstart and system images may be staged remotely on single-supervisor switches
D. dual supervisors
E. clock synchronization
Correct Answer: AD

 

QUESTION 8
A switch is configured with the following command:
switch(config)# aaa authentication login default group tacacs+
What occurs when an AAA login authentication request fails to communicate with any of the servers in the group?
A. The authentication request fails.
B. The local database is used for authentication.
C. The authentication request is successful.
D. A server in another server group is used, if present.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
When you look at the HSRP state for devices on a VLAN that is extended by OTV, you see the following states: Active,
Standby, and Listen. However, you intended each data center device to show the state as Active and Standby. What is
the problem?
A. HSRP is not configured correctly.
B. A VACL is missing.
C. A PACL is missing.
D. This cannot be done.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 10
After disassociating a service profile from a server, you attempt to associate the service profile to a different server.
Which policy in the service profile can prevent it from being associated to a different server?
A. SAN connectivity
B. maintenance
C. LAN connectivity
D. power management
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 11
Your customer is an ISP providing service to thousands of end customers. Its main concerns are focused on using up
the total number of 4096 VLANs per VDC, wasting an unused block of IP addresses, and IP address management.
Which technique will address these concerns?
A. create a separate VDC to scale VLAN limitation and upgrade to Cisco Nexus 7018 Switch
B. segment VLANs using secondary IP addresses, which will reduce the management domain
C. create mapping between the VLAN and VSAN to run FCoE to consolidate VLAN and IP addresses
D. use PVLANs, which will solve the scalability problem and provide IP address management
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 12
Which two statements about configuring NPV are true? (Choose two.)
A. Only F, E, and SD ports are supported in NPV mode.
B. Only targets can be connected to an NPV device.
C. Distribute the NPV core switch links to different port groups for improved scalability.
D. If DPVM is configured on the NPV core switch for an end device that is connected to the NPV device, then that end
device must be configured to be in the same VSAN.
E. NPV does not support NPIV-capable module servers (nested NPIV).
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 13
The traffic across your port channels seems to be favoring one link over the other. How can you adjust the load-
balancing policy to include source and destination MAC addresses, IP address, and TCP port?
A. kcdc-5010-1(config-if)# port-channel load-balance ethernet source-dest-port
B. kcdc-5010-1(config-if)# port-channel load-balance ethernet source-dest mac ip port
C. kcdc-5010-1(config)# port-channel load-balance ethernet source-dest-port
D. kcdc-5010-1(config)# port-channel load-balance ethernet source-dest mac ip port
Correct Answer: C

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Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-175 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Drag Drop This question concerns the installation of a Cisco Unified Computing System blade server AC power supply.
Drag the options on the left to the right side in the correct order when performing the installation. Note: Not all of the
steps on the left will be used.
Select and Place:lead4pass 300-175 exam question q1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 300-175 exam question q1-2

 

QUESTION 2
Which feature must be configured for Linux VMs to be able to transition from Cisco VM-FEX standard mode to universal
passthrough mode?
A. RSS
B. MSI Interrupt Mode
C. VEMDPA Agent
D. Execute Disabled Bit
E. Processor C State
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
What is the Overlay Transport Virtualization site VLAN used for?
A. to allow multiple site AEDs to communicate with each other
B. to detect devices at the site that are not capable of OTV
C. to facilitate communications between OTV edge devices within the site
D. to allow the join interfaces at different sites to communicate
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
When you migrate a mission-critical application, which method requires the least amount of downtime and data loss?
A. overnight migration; cold conversion
B. overnight migration; hot conversion
C. gradual migration; cold conversion
D. gradual migration; hot conversion
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
Which option can you secure by using a keyring certificate in Cisco UCS Manager?
A. Console management Access
B. Server link connections
C. HTTPS management Access
D. Uplink connections
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
Which two data center technologies would provide Layer 2 resiliency, maximize bandwidth, and ensure lossless packet
delivery over a congestion-aware network? (Choose two.)
A. DCBX
B. vPC
C. STP PortFast
D. FabricPath
E. FIP
Correct Answer: AB


QUESTION 7
Which policy would you change to form a port channel between a Cisco UCS 6248 and a Cisco UCS 2208?
A. link aggregation policy
B. chassis discovery policy
C. IOM connection policy
D. link discovery policy
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
Which two policy resolution control options are available when registering a Cisco UCS domain in UCS Manager and
UCS Central? (Choose Two)
A. Global
B. Universal
C. Server
D. Local
E. Host
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 9
Which item represents a secure method of transmitting fault data with Cisco Call Home?
A. Cisco Transport Gateway
B. RSA Digital Certificate
C. IPsec
D. secure XML
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 10
Which authentication provider requires a custom attribute?
A. TACACS+
B. RADIUS
C. LDAP
D. local authentication
Correct Answer: A
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/unified_computing/ucs/sw/gui/config/guide/141/UCSM_GUI_Configuration_Guide_141_chapter7.html

 

QUESTION 11
You must update your certificates after the name of a Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect cluster changes. Which action do
you take?
A. Use the built-in default key ring certificate in Cisco UCS Manager.
B. Regenerate the certificate manually.
C. Request a new public-key certificate from the intermediate CA.
D. Request a new root certificate from the root CA.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
A Cisco UCS administrator configuring QoS, Which two options are valid QoS system classes in a Cisco UCS blade
system? (Choose two )
A. drop eligible
B. transactaional data
C. best effort
D. scavenger
E. Fibre Channel
Correct Answer: CElead4pass 300-175 exam question q12

 

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. You bind the service profile to the updating template. You plan to update the template. Which
impact on the service profile when you update the template is true?lead4pass 300-175 exam question q13

A. Changes to the service profile are locked after the profile is created.
B. The update to the service profile fails.
C. The service profile must be updated manually.
D. The service profile is updated automatically.
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Which three devices are analyzed by the Cisco Unified Communications Dialed Number Analyzer? (Choose three.)
A. gatekeeper
B. remote destination
C. CTI route point
D. trunk
E. phone
F. gateway
Correct Answer: DEF

 

QUESTION 2
Which statement about the relationship between gateways and route groups is true?
A. Each gateway can belong to only one route group and can be listed only once within that route group.
B. Each gateway can belong to only one route group and can be listed multiple times within that route group.
C. Each gateway can belong to multiple route groups and can be listed only once within each route group.
D. Each gateway can belong to multiple route groups and can be listed multiple times within each route group.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
Which three options are types of media resources in CUCM? (Choose three.)
A. Music on hold
B. H.323 trunk
C. Media Termination Point
D. Meet-Me Conference
E. SIP trunk
F. Transcoder
Correct Answer: ACF


QUESTION 4
Which two options are forms of redundancy provided by Cisco Unified Communications Manager? (Choose two.)
A. Media resource redundancy
B. CTI redundancy
C. Voice-mail redundancy
D. Emergency responder redundancy
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 5
Which two SIP issues should be considered when deploying KPML? (Choose two.)
A. Additional MTP resources will be required.
B. There will be significantly more signaling traffic on the network.
C. Additional configuration steps will be required for SIP phone dial rules.
D. Social engineering will be required to educate users about how to dial a call with SIP.
E. There will be additional processing demands on the Cisco Unified Communications Manager server.
Correct Answer: BE

 

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-070 exam question q6

ABC Company uses the digit 9 to get a dial tone and type a DN. A user needs to type 8811202 and automatically send
the call to a cellphone. The Network Administrator did this configuration, but it is not working. Which two actions can the
Administrator take to solve this problem? (Choose two)
A. In the Translation Pattern option, delete the digit “8”.
B. In the Translation Pattern option, delete the digit “9”.
C. In the Route Option option, select Block this Pattern.
D. In the Called Party Transform Mask option, prefix the digit “9”.
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 7
Which statement about the DiffServ QoS deployment architecture is true?
A. DiffServ does not differentiate traffic types and thus cannot provide service levels.
B. DiffServ architecture differentiates and classifies various types of traffic and provides several levels of service based
on that classification.
C. Resource Reservation Protocol is an example of a DiffServ mechanism where each router on the path for packet
transmission is informed of the upcoming packet stream.
D. DiffServ architecture provides QoS by assuring treatment for a specific traffic flow.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
You want to set up a Cisco TelePresence Server 8710 cluster. Which statement is true?
A. All blades in a cluster must be running the same version of software.
B. Up to four blades can be clustered in version 2.2.
C. The administrator can mix the type of blades in the cluster.
D. The support key can be installed in a single blade during the implementation.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 9
You are a Voice Engineer at ABC Company. You want to implement a voice translation profile to perform the following
manipulation: The incoming DNIS 9876562XXX should be modified to 2XXX. Which four commands are required to
configure the translation profile? (Choose four.)
A. voice translation-rule 1
B. rule 1 /^ 9876562/ /2/
C. voice translation-profile incoming-calls
D. translate called 1
E. rule 1 /^ 9876562$/ /2/ type subscriber
F. translation-profile incoming incoming-calls
G. translate calling 1
H. translate called rule 1
Correct Answer: ABCD


QUESTION 10
Which two codecs are required for Cisco WebEx Enabled TelePresence? (Choose two.)
A. G.711 codec for audio
B. H.264 codec for video
C. G.729 codec for audio
D. G.711 or G.729 codec for audio
E. H.263 codec for video
F. H.264 or H.263 codec for video
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 11
Which option describes how you add software conference bridges to Cisco Unified Communications Manager?
A. By adding a Cisco Unified CM server to the cluster
B. By adding a software conference bridge using Conference Bridge Configuration
C. By installing DSP to a Cisco Unified CM server
D. By reassigning other media resources to conference resources
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
Which device uses an MTP to insert itself into and force media through a call flow?
A. conference resource
B. TRP
C. SCCP
D. H 323 gateway
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
In which two places can a calling-party transformation CSS be selected that makes it available for use by a phone?
(Choose two.)
A. on a softkey
B. on a route pattern
C. on a line
D. device pool of the phone
E. on the device itself
Correct Answer: BD

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Latest Cisco CCNP Data Center 300-170 Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
Which two options are benefits of using the configuration synchronization feature? (Choose two )
A. Supports the feature command
B. Supports existing session and port profile functionality
C. can be used by any Cisco Nexus switch
D. merges configurations when connectivity is established between peers O supports FCoE in vPC topologies
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 2
At the bash prompt, you run the bash$ source environment-setup-x86_64-wrs-linux command.
Which purpose of running this command is true?
A. to set up the source for the plugins added to the shell environment
B. to move the build application to the target switch
C. to prepare the environment for the SDK installation
D. to add SDK-specific paths to the shell environment during environment initialization
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 300-170 exam question q3

Which device supports the Logical Switching mode of traffic forwarding as part of the ACI infrastructure?
A. Cisco AVS
B. Cisco nexus 1000V DVS
C. Cisco ACE
D. CVS
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
What occurs when the Cisco ACI fabric receives multi destination traffic?
A. The traffic is forwarded as broadcast traffic
B. The traffic is forwarded as multicast traffic
C. The traffic is suppressed
D. The traffic is forwarded as unicast traffic
Correct Answer: B
http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/1- x/aci-fundamentals/b_ACI-Fundamentals/b_ACI-Fundamentals_chapter_010010.pdf


QUESTION 5
You have a VSM that experiences a failure. Which two options are results of the failure? (Choose two )
A. CLI access to the virtual switch continues to work without any interruption
B. VEM stops working
C. Traffic forwarding stops for a short period of time and then continues to work normally
D. Traffic forwarding continues to work without any interruption
E. VMware vMotion stops working
Correct Answer: BE

 

QUESTION 6
Which statement about POAP temporary licensing is true?
A. It is invoked by using the license grace-period command.
B. It is invoked by using the license install command.
C. It is enabled automatically and 1S valid for go days.
D. It is enabled automatically and is valid for 30 day.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 7
Why should you configure DHCP relay for Virtual Machine Manager integration?
A. to create VTEP VMK interfaces on each host for the OpFlex control channel
B. to provide IP addresses to ESXi hosts
C. to provide IP addresses to virtual hosts through the VXLAN infrastructure
D. to ensure that virtual hosts have the same address when they are moved by using VMware vMotion
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
You plan to implement access policies. Choose the correct order of policy items:
1.
interface profile
2.
AEP
3.
switch profile
4.
interface policy
A. 1.3.2.4
B. 3.1.2.4
C. 3.1.4.2
D. 4.2.1.3
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 9
Which action does a VEM on a Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch take when an untagged packet is received on an
access port?
A. It adds the ports access VLAN to the packet.
B. It adds a native VLAN tag to the packet.
C. It drops the packet.
D. It forwards the packet as is.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 10
Which action occurs first when a device that has the POAP feature boots and cannot find the startup configuration?
A. The device locates a DHCP server
B. The device enters POAP mode
C. The device obtains the IP address of a TFTP server
D. The device installs software image and a configuration file
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: PowerOn Auto Provisioning (POAP) automates the process of upgrading software images and installing
configuration files on devices that are being deployed in the network for the first time. When a device with the POAP
feature boots and does not find the startup configuration, the device enters POAP mode, locates a DHCP server, and
bootstraps itself with its interface IP address, gateway, and DNS server IP addresses. The device also obtains the IP
address of a TFTP server or the URL of an HTTP server and downloads a configuration script that enables the switch to
download and install the appropriate software image and configuration file

 

QUESTION 11
Which two parameters are part of the Cisco APIC first time setup and must be configured? (Choose two )
A. the fabric node vector configuration
B. the LLDP adjacency configuration
C. the out of-band management configuration
D. the cluster configuration
E. the APIC LLDP configuration
Correct Answer: CE

 

QUESTION 12lead4pass 300-170 exam question q12

Refer to the exhibit
You are verifying connectivity within a leaf device You attempt to connect to a destination server in VLAN 17, and you
then run the show mac address-table command as shown Why does the show mac address-table output show a
different VLAN?
A. The wrong AEP is attached to the leaf ports
B. The VLAN configuration on the leaf switch is incorrect
C. The VLAN ID shown is used for identification and internal mapping within the ACI leaf
D. When traffic appears, the Cisco ACI marks ports with VLAN 17
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 13
You are trouble shooting node discovery issues by using the acidiag fnvread command. Which description of the node
status when the CLI output shows a status of Discovering is true?
A. The node is decommissioned
B. The node ID is configured, but not discovered yet
C. The node is discovered, but an IP address is not assigned yet
D. The node is discovered, but the node ID policy is not configured yet
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
You experience an issue on a Cisco Nexus 7700 Series switch. You must gather detailed information about the system
state and the configuration of the switch. Which command should you run?
A. switch# show logging > bootflash:Log.txt
B. switch# show tech-support > bootflash:Log.txt
C. switch# show running-config > bootflash:Log.txt
D. switch# show system > bootflash:Log.txt
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which two actions are required when configuring LISP virtual machine mobility across subnets? (Choose two.)
A. Filter HSRP hello messages across data centers to create an active-active HSRP setup
B. Enable proxy ARP on the interfaces that allow virtual machine mobility
C. Configure different MAC addresses across all the HSRP groups
D. Ensure that all the HSRP virtual IP addresses are different in the extended LANs
E. Propagate ARP packets across all the broadcast domains of the data center.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3
Which statement about the Layer 3 card on the Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switch is true?
A. BGP support is not provided, but RIP, EIGRP, and OSPF support is provided.
B. Up to two 4-port cards are supported with up to 160 Gb/s of Layer 3 forwarding capability.
C. Up to 16 FEX connections are supported.
D. Port channels cannot be configured as Layer 3 interfaces.
Correct Answer: C
From the Cisco NX-OS 5.1(3)N1(1) release and later releases, each Cisco Nexus 5500 Series device can manage and
support up to 24 FEXs without Layer 3. With Layer 3, the number of FEXs supported per Cisco Nexus 5500 Series
device
is 8. With Enhanced vPC and a dual-homed FEX topology each FEX is managed by both Cisco Nexus 5000 Series
devices. As a result, one pair of Cisco Nexus 5500 Series devices can support up to 24 FEXs and 16 FEXs for Layer 2
and
Layer 3.
Reference:
http://www.cisco.com/en/US/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus5000/sw/mkt_ops_guides/513_n1_1/n5k_enhanced_vpc.html

QUESTION 4
What is the grace period in a graceful restart situation?
A. how long the supervisor waits for NSF replies
B. how often graceful restart messages are sent after a switchover
C. how long NSF-aware neighbors should wait after a graceful restart has started before tearing down adjacencies
D. how long the NSF-capable switches should wait after detecting that a graceful restart has started, before verifying
that adjacencies are still valid
Correct Answer: C
Graceful restart (GR) refers to the capability of the control plane to delay advertising the absence of a peer (going
through control-plane switchover) for a “grace period,” and thus help minimize disruption during that time (assuming the
standby control plane comes up). GR is based on extensions per routing protocol, which are interoperable across
vendors. The downside of the grace period is huge when the peer completely fails and never comes up, because that
slows down the overall network convergence, which brings us to the final concept: nonstop routing (NSR). NSR is an
internal (vendor-specific) mechanism to extend the awareness of routing to the standby routing plane so that in case of
failover, the newly active routing plane can take charge of the already established sessions.
http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=1395746andseqNum=2

QUESTION 5
Which statement about FabricPath and private VLANs is true?
A. FabricPath ports can be put into a private VLAN.
B. All VLANs in the private VLAN must in the same mode.
C. Private VLANs are not supported with FabricPath.
D. FabricPath is the only mode supported for private VLANs.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
What can be identified by running the show install all impact kickstart bootflash:n5000-uk9-kickstart.7.0.7.N.1.1.bin
system bootflash:n5000-uk9.7.0.7.N1.1a.bin command?
A. whether the specified kickstart image is compatible with the start-up config
B. whether the specified system image supports the kickstart image
C. whether bootflash is supported for the specified Cisco NX-OS images
D. whether ISSU is supported for the specified Cisco NX-OS images
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which statement accurately describes MP-BGP EVPN?
A. MP-BGP EVPN is a Layer 3 overlay alternative to VXLANs.
B. The control plane of the VXLAN overcomes the flood-and-learn limitations of MP-BGP EVPN.
C. The MP-BGP EVPN control plane overcomes the flood-and-learn limitations of the VXLAN.
D. MP-BGP EVPN is a Layer 2 overlay alternative to VXLANs.
Correct Answer: B
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/border-gateway-protocol-bgp/200952-Configuration-and-Verification-VXLAN-wit.html

QUESTION 8
Which statement about the implementation of Cisco TrustSec on Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches is true?
A. While SGACL enforcement and SGT propagation are supported on the M and F modules, 802.1AE (MACsec)
support is available only on the M module.
B. SGT Exchange Protocol is required to propagate the SGTs across F modules that lack hardware support for Cisco
TrustSec.
C. AAA authentication and authorization is supported using TACACS or RADIUS to a Cisco Secure Access Control
Server.
D. Both Cisco TrustSec and 802.1X can be configured on an F or M module interface.
Correct Answer: A
The M -Series modules on the Nexus 7000 support 802.1AE MACSEC on all ports, including the new M2-series
modules. The F2e modules will have this feature enabled in the future. It is important to note that because 802.1AE
MACSEC is
a link-level encryption, the two MACSEC-enabled endpoints, Nexus 7000 devices in our case, must be directly L2
adjacent.
This means we direct fiber connection or one facilitated with optical gear is required. MACSEC has integrity checks for
the frames and intermediate devices, like another switch, even at L2, will cause the integrity checks to fail. In most
cases,
this means metro-Ethernet services or carrier-provided label switched services will not work for a MACSEC connection.
http://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=2065720

 

QUESTION 9
Which GLBL load-balancing method ensures that a client is always mapped to the same virtual MAC address?
A. host-dependent
B. vmac-weighted
C. dedicated-vmac-mode
D. shortest-path and weighting
Correct Answer: A
Reference: http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/ios-nx-os-software/ip-services/product_data_sheet0900aecd803a546c.html

 

QUESTION 10
Which command specifies a load-balancing method based on the MAC address of a host where the same forwarder is
always used for a particular host while the number of GLBP group members remains unchanged?
A. load-balancing host-dependent
B. load-balancing mac-pinning
C. load-balancing round-robin
D. load-balancing weighted
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which action limits the maximum number of routes that are allowed in the routing table?
A. Use a BGP filter.
B. Use only static routes.
C. Use the maximum routes command inside address family.
D. Use a route map to filter routes.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 12
Which feature does the spanning-tree port type network command enable?
A. TrustSec
B. Bridge Assurance
C. BPDU Guard
D. Rapid PVST+
Correct Answer: B
Network ports are connected only to switches or bridges. Bridge Assurance is enabled only on network ports.

QUESTION 13
Which two benefits are realized when deploying Cisco Catalyst 6500 VSS 1440 functionality in a data center? (Choose
two.)
A. Stateful Switchover across chassis
B. enhanced security of network equipment
C. enhanced speed of spanning-tree convergence
D. reduced number of Inter-Switch Links
E. implementation of Multichassis EtherChannel
F. deployment of VRRP and HSRP
Correct Answer: AE

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QUESTION 1
Which Cisco MDS model supports the most Fibre Channel ports per chassis?
A. MDS 9513
B. MDS 9509
C. MDS 9506
D. MDS 9250i
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 2
What is the maximum distance that the 40GBASE-LR4 Ethernet standard can span?
A. 550 m
B. 10 km
C. 40 km
D. 80 km
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 010-151 exam question q3Which call-out accurately shows the current running version of the Cisco UCS Manager management software?
A. A – UCS Manager running version 1.4(1m)
B. B – IO Module 1 running version 1.4(1m)
C. C – Interface Card 1 running version 1.4(1m)
D. D – Kernel running version 4.2(1)N(1.4m)
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 010-151 exam question q4Which statement correctly identifies the front panel LEDs on the Cisco UCS C220 Server?
A. A is power button and power status LED; B is identification button and LED; C is system status LED; D is network link
activity LED.
B. A is network link activity LED; B is system status LED; C is power button and power status LED; D is identification
button and LED.
C. A is system status LED; B is network link activity LED; C is power button and power status LED; D is identification
button and LED.
D. A is network link activity LED; B is system status LED; C is identification button and LED; D is power button and
power status LED.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
Up to what speed can Category 5e UTP cable transmit data?
A. 10 Mb/s
B. 100 Mb/s
C. 1000 Mb/s
D. 10000 Mb/s
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 6
Up to what speed can Category 5 UTP cable transmit data?
A. 10 Mb/s
B. 100 Mb/s
C. 1000 Mb/s
D. 10000 Mb/s
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 7
Which type of optics module is supported by a 6-port 40 GE Cisco Nexus 7000 M2 Series I/O module?
A. CPAK
B. QSFP+
C. SFP/SFP+
D. CFP
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 8
Which three statements about FCoE are true? (Choose three.)
A. Allows Fibre Channel and Ethernet networks to share a single, integrated infrastructure.
B. Encapsulates Fibre Channel frames into Ethernet frames, which allows them to run alongside traditional IP traffic.
C. Increases capital costs due to the difficulty to manage.
D. Consolidates I/O traffic in the data center.
Correct Answer: ABD


QUESTION 9
Which fiber optic cable type is used most often with a Subscriber connector?
A. dual-mode
B. single-mode
C. straight-mode
D. multi-mode
E. subscriber-mode
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 10
When the Cisco UCS Manager is used to verify the B- or C-Series device, which two types of Overall Status are
acceptable and do not indicate a failure? (Choose two.)
A. Online
B. OK
C. Unassociated
D. Active
Correct Answer: BC


QUESTION 11
If the Overall Status for a Cisco UCS B-Series Blade Server indicates a failure in the Cisco UCS Manager, such as
discovery-failed, which statement is true?
A. The server shuts down.
B. The server automatically reboots reboot in 3 minutes.
C. The endpoints on that server cannot be upgraded.
D. The server is online, but the administrator cannot assign a service profile to that blade.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 010-151 exam question q12Where is the best place to see whether the system is ready for a Fabric Interconnect failover?
A. A – Overall Status operable
B. B – L1 Connection
C. C – Part Details
D. D – Access
E. E – High Availability Details
Correct Answer: E


QUESTION 13
Which tool does a network administrator not need when installing hardware?
A. cable tester
B. wrench set
C. cable wraps
D. needle-nose pliers
E. PCMCIA memory
F. soldering iron with grounded tip
Correct Answer: F


QUESTION 14
Which two Cisco Nexus switches provide the foundation of the Cisco Application Centric Infrastructure? (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 7718 switch
B. Cisco Nexus 9508 switch
C. Cisco Nexus 7710 switch
D. Cisco Nexus 93128TX switch
E. Cisco Nexus 6004 switch
Correct Answer: BD


QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit.

lead4pass 010-151 exam question q15

Which item does F represent?
A. HDD 1
B. TFP Module
C. SuperCap Module
D. CPU 2
E. CMOS Battery
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 16
How do you find the serial number of a Cisco UCS 5108 Blade Server chassis?
A. Use the Cisco UCS Admin.
B. Use the Cisco UCS Application.
C. Use the Cisco UCS Assistant.
D. Use the Cisco UCS Manager.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 17
Which three statements about powering down a Cisco UCS C-Series Rack-Mount Server to perform maintenance or
replacement are true? (Choose three.)
A. Standby power mode: Power is supplied only to the service processor and the cooling fans, and it is safe to power off
the server from this mode.
B. Power status LED. Green indicates that the server is in main power mode and can be safely powered off.
C. Graceful shutdown: Press and release the power button. The operating system performs a graceful shutdown, and
the server goes to standby mode, which is indicated by an amber power status LED.
D. Disconnect the power cords from the power supplies in your server to completely power off the server.
E. Only an emergency shutdown can be performed using the power button on the server front panel.
F. The Cisco UCS C-Series Rack-Mount Server has only one power mode.
Correct Answer: ACD


QUESTION 18
Which three steps do you perform to troubleshoot when a rack server powers on with no video? (Choose three.)
A. Check that the front I/O dongle is properly seated.
B. Check the front I/O cable connection to the motherboard.
C. Check for memory subsystem failure.
D. Verify the power source to equipment.
E. Reseat the DIMMs, CPU, and PCI cards.
Correct Answer: ABC


QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit.

lead4pass 010-151 exam question q19

This image shows a CPU Pick-and-Place tool and a CPU Socket Protective Cap Removal tool.
Which types of Cisco UCS servers and Intel Xeon processors do these tools support?
A. Cisco UCS B22 Blade Server, C22 Rack Server, and C24 Rack Sever with Intel Xeon E5- 2400 Series processors
B. Cisco UCS B22 Blade Server, C22 Rack Server, and C24 Rack Sever with Intel Xeon E5- 2600 Series processors
C. Cisco UCS B200 M3 Blade Server, B420 M3 Blade Server, C220 Rack Server, C240 Rack Sever, and C420 Rack
Sever with Intel Xeon E5-2400 Series processors
D. Cisco UCS B200 M3 Blade Server, B420 M3 Blade Server, C220 Rack Server, C240 Rack Sever, and C420 Rack
Sever with Intel Xeon E5-2600 Series processors
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 20
Drag the password recovery procedures on a Cisco NX-OS switch from the left to the right and place them in order.
Select and Place:lead4pass 010-151 exam question q20Select and Place: lead4pass 010-151 exam question q20-1Correct Answer: lead4pass 010-151 exam question q20-2

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QUESTION 1
In which ways can your Cisco WebEx account be accessed?
A. web portal, WebEx productivity tool, and email client plugins
B. web portal only
C. WebEx productivity tool and email client plug-ins
D. Web portal and email client plug-ins
Correct Answer: B
 


QUESTION 2
Which option do you use to set alternate hosts in your Cisco WebEx Personal Room?
A. You can specify one or more individuals to be alternate hosts, or you can allow anyone with a host account on your
site to be alternate hosts.
B. You can specify only one or more individuals to be alternate hosts.
C. You can specify anyone to be alternate hosts, whether or not they have a host account on your site.
D. You can allow anyone with a host account on your site to be alternate hosts or no one.
Correct Answer: A
 


QUESTION 3
Which feature can be customized in your Cisco WebEx Personal Room view?
A. Configure alternate hosts.
B. Automatically lock your room.
C. Change the wall image.
D. Change your PIN.
Correct Answer: C
 


QUESTION 4
Which manager tools Option is available in the Cisco WebEx Support Center?
A. Set up queues with rules-based routing, by availability or skill set.
B. Provide notification when a customer is in your queue.
C. Send out a post-survey and notes.
D. Allow technicians to reboot and reconnect
Correct Answer: C
 


QUESTION 5
Which product in the Cisco Spark Flex Plan offers enterprise-class IP-telephony voice, call control, desktop video, and
Telepresence conference room device support?
A. Cisco Expressway Series Server
B. Cisco Unified Communications Server
C. Cisco Meeting Server
D. Cisco Unity Connection Server
Correct Answer: B
 


QUESTION 6
Which benefit to purchasing a Cisco Spark Flex Plan is true?
A. Enhance flexibility with the ability to choose between on-premises or cloud services.
B. Enhance flexibility with cloud services.
C. Enhance flexibility with the ability to mix and transition between on-premises and cloud services.
D. Enhance flexibility with on-premises services.
Correct Answer: C
 


QUESTION 7
Which feature can be customized in your Cisco WebEx Personal Room view?
A. Change your PIN.
B. Configure alternate hosts.
C. Change the wall image.
D. Automatically lock your room.
Correct Answer: C
 


QUESTION 8
What happens to participants who try to access your Cisco WebEx Personal Room when the Lock option is enabled?
A. Those participants are disconnected.
B. Those participants hear a busy message and then are disconnected.
C. Those participants are presented with busy message and the option to join the meeting or wait until you are free.
D. Those participants are redirected to a virtual waiting room.
Correct Answer: D
 


QUESTION 9
Which benefit to purchasing a Cisco Spark Flex Plan is true?
A. Enhance flexibility with on-premises services.
B. Enhance flexibility with cloud services.
C. Enhance flexibility with the ability to mix and transition between on-premises and cloud services.
D. Enhance flexibility with the ability to choose between on-premises or cloud services.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/unified-communications/spark-flex- plan/index.html#~stickynav=1
 


QUESTION 10
What is a Spark Room?
A. video endpoints that are associated with a user or location
B. video endpoints that are associated with a location
C. video endpoints that are associated with a user
D. UC VoIP and video phones that are associated with a user
Correct Answer: B
 


QUESTION 11
Which option is a way to join the Personal Room meeting of another person?
A. Go to your WebEx site and enter the host\\’s host ID for the Personal Room, which is often the host\\’s username.
B. Go to your WebEx site and enter the host\\’s host ID for the Personal Room, which is often the meeting ID.
C. Go to your WebEx site and enter the host\\’s host ID for the Personal Room, which is often the company\\’s name.
D. Go to your WebEx site and enter the host\\’s host ID for the Personal Room, which is often the host\\’s PIN.
Correct Answer: A
 


QUESTION 12
Which product in the Cisco Spark Flex Plan offers advanced multimodal firewall traversal for mobile and remote access
to unified communications services?
A. Cisco Meeting Server
B. Cisco Unified Communications Server
C. Cisco Expressway Series Servers
D. Cisco Unified Connection Server
Correct Answer: C
 


QUESTION 13
Which devices are participants allowed to use to join WebEx Event Center Meetings?
A. Windows and Mac computers; Android, iPhone and iPad devices; and Cisco Telepresence endpoints
B. Windows and Mac computers and Android, iPhone, and iPad devices
C. Mac computers and iPhone and iPad devices
D. Windows and Mac computers
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Drag and drop the type of evidence from the left onto the correct descnption(s) of that evidence on the right.
Select and Place:lead4pass 210-255 exam question q1

QUESTION 2
Which CVSSv3 metric value increases when the attacker is able to modify all files protected by the vulnerable
component?
A. confidentiality
B. integrity
C. availability
D. complexity
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 3
How is confidentiality defined in the CVSS v3.0 framework?
A. confidentiality of the information resource managed by person due to an unsuccessfully exploited vulnerability
B. confidentiality of the information resource managed by a person due to a successfully vulnerability
C. confidentiality of the information resources managed by a software component due to a successfully exploited
vulnerability
D. confidentiality of the information resource managed by a software component due to an unsuccessfully exploited
vulnerability
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
Which Cyber Kill Chain Model category does attacking a vulnerability belong to?
A. Exploitation
B. Action on Objectives
C. Installation
D. Delivery
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 5
Which of the following is the team that handles the investigation, resolution, and disclosure of security vulnerabilities in
vendor products and services?
A. CSIRT
B. ICASI
C. USIRP
D. PSIRT
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 6
When incident data is collected, it is important that evidentiary cross-contamination is prevented. How is this
accomplished?
A. by allowing unrestricted access to impacted devices
B. by not allowing items of evidence to physically touch
C. by ensuring power is removed to all devices involved
D. by not permitting a device to store evidence if it is the evidence itself.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 7
Which CSIRT category provides incident handling services to their parent organization such as a bank, a manufacturing
company, a university, or a federal agency?
A. internal CSIRT
B. national CSIRT
C. coordination centers
D. analysis centers
E. vendor teams
F. incident response providers
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
What is a listening port?
A. A port that remains open and waiting for incoming connections
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 210-255 exam question q9Which host is likely connecting to a malicious site?
A. 10.0.1.10
B. 10.0.1.1
C. 10.0.1.2
D. 10.0.1.20
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 10
Which component of the NIST SP800-61 r2 incident handling strategy reviews data?
A. preparation
B. detection and analysis
C. containment, eradication, and recovery
D. post-incident analysis
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 11
Which source provides reports of vulnerabilities in software and hardware to a Security Operations Center?
A. Analysis Center
B. National CSIRT
C. Internal CSIRT
D. Physical Security
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 12
Which of the following are the three broad categories of cybersecurity investigations?
A. Public, private, and individual investigations
B. Judiciary, private, and individual investigations
C. Public, private, and corporate investigations
D. Government, corporate, and private investigations
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of log is this an example of?lead4pass 210-255 exam question q13A. syslog
B. NetFlow log
C. proxy log
D. IDS log
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 14
During which phase of the forensic process are tools and techniques used to extract the relevant information from the
collective data?
A. examination
B. reporting
C. collection
D. investigation
Correct Answer: A
Examinations involve forensically processing large amounts of collected data using a combination of automated and
manual methods to assess and extract data of particular interest, while preserving the integrity of the data. Forensic
tools and techniques appropriate to the types of data that were collected are executed to identify and extract the
relevant information from the collected data while protecting its integrity. Examination may use a combination of
automated tools and manual processes.


QUESTION 15
You see confidential data being exfiltrated to an IP address that is attributed to a known Advanced Persistent Threat
group. Assume that this is part of a real attach and not a network misconfiguration. Which category does this event fall
under as defined in the Diamond Model of Intrusion?
A. reconnaissance
B. weaponization
C. delivery
D. action on objectives
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit. Which application protocol is in this PCAP file?lead4pass 210-255 exam question q16A. TCP
B. SSH
C. HTTP
D. SSL
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 17
Which statement about collecting data evidence when performing digital forensics is true?
A. Allowing unrestricted access to impacted devices
B. Not allowing items of evidence to be physically touch
C. Powering off the device after collecting the data
D. It must be preserved and integrity checked
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 18
Which identifies both the source and destination location?
A. IP address
B. URL
C. ports
D. MAC address
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 19
Which statement about threat actors is true?
A. They are any company assets that are threatened.
B. They are any assets that are threatened.
C. They are perpetrators of attacks.
D. They are victims of attacks.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 20
Which option is a misuse variety per VERIS enumerations?
A. snooping
B. hacking
C. theft
D. assault
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 21
Which of the following is an example of a coordination center?
A. Cisco PSIRT
B. Microsoft MSRC
C. CERT division of the Software Engineering Institute (SEI)
D. FIRST
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 22
Which of the following is one of the main goals of the CSIRT?
A. To configure the organization\\’s firewalls
B. To monitor the organization\\’s IPS devices
C. To minimize and control the damage associated with incidents, provide guidance for mitigation, and work to prevent
future incidents
D. To hire security professionals who will be part of the InfoSec team of the organization.
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 23
According to NIST SP800-86, which action describes volatile data collection?
A. collection of data before a system reboot
B. collection of data that contains malware
C. collection of data during a system reboot
D. collection of data after a system reboot
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 24
Which of the following is not true regarding the use of digital evidence?
A. Digital forensics evidence provides implications and extrapolations that may assist in proving some key fact of the
case.
B. Digital evidence helps legal teams and the court develop reliable hypotheses or theories as to the committer of the
crime or threat actor.
C. The reliability of the digital evidence is vital to supporting or refuting any hypothesis put forward, including the
attribution of threat actors.
D. The reliability of the digital evidence is not as important as someone\\’s testimony to supporting or refuting any
hypothesis put forward, including the attribution of threat actors.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 25
Which two useful pieces of information can be collected from the IPv4 protocol header? (Choose two.)
A. UDP port which the traffic is destined
B. source IP address of the packet
C. UDP port from which the traffic is sourced
D. TCP port from which the traffic was source
E. destination IP address of the packet
Correct Answer: BE


QUESTION 26
Which of the following is not an example of reconnaissance?
A. Searching the robots.txt file
B. Redirecting users to a source and scanning traffic to learn about the target
C. Scanning without completing the three-way handshake
D. Communicating over social media
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 27
What is NAC?
A. Non-Admin Closure
B. Network Access Control
C. Nepal Airline Corporations
D. Network Address Control
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 28
What are two security goals of data normalization? (Choose two.)
A. purge redundant data
B. reduce size of data on disk
C. increase data exposure
D. maintain data integrity
E. create data for abstraction
Correct Answer: AD


QUESTION 29
Which event artifact can be used to identify HTTP GET requests for a specific file?
A. HTTP status code
B. TCP ACK
C. destination IP
D. URI
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 30
Drag and Drop
Built inbound TCP connection 463879 for outside: (25.238.89.53/14846) to DMZ: WWW_Server/80 (198.52.1.50/80)
Select and Place:lead4pass 210-255 exam question q30Correct Answer: lead4pass 210-255 exam question q30-1

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Latest effective Cisco 210-250 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Which protocol is primarily supported by the third layer of the Open Systems Interconnection reference model?
A. HTTP/TLS
B. IPv4/IPv6
C. TCP/UDP
D. ATM/ MPLS
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 2
A firewall requires deep packet inspection to evaluate which layer?
A. application
B. Internet
C. link
D. transport
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 3
Which three statements about host-based IPS are true? (Choose three.)
A. It can view encrypted files.
B. It can have more restrictive policies than network-based IPS.
C. It can generate alerts based on behavior at the desktop level.
D. It can be deployed at the perimeter.
E. It uses signature-based policies.
F. It works with deployed firewalls.
Correct Answer: ABC


QUESTION 4
What are two Features of NGFW:
A. Data Mining,
B. Host Based AV
C. Application visibility and control
D. SIEM
E. IDS
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 5
Which hash algorithm is the weakest?
A. SHA-512
B. RSA 4096
C. SHA-1
D. SHA-256
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 6
Which definition of the virtual address space for a Windows process is true?
A. actual physical location of an object in memory
B. set of virtual memory addresses that it can use
C. set of pages that are currently resident in physical memory
D. system-level memory protection feature that is built into the operating system
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 7
Which actions can a promiscuous IPS take to mitigate an attack? Choose three
A. Denying Frames
B. Resetting the TCP Connection
C. Requesting host blocking
D. Modifying packets
E. Denying packets
F. Requesting connection blocking
Correct Answer: BCF


QUESTION 8
Which three options are types of Layer 2 network attack? (Choose three.)
A. ARP attacks
B. brute force attacks
C. spoofing attacks
D. DDOS attacks
E. VLAN hopping
F. botnet attacks
Correct Answer: ACE


QUESTION 9
While viewing packet capture data, you notice that one IP is sending and receiving traffic for multiple devices by
modifying the IP header.
Which option is making this behavior possible?
A. TOR
B. NAT
C. encapsulation
D. tunneling
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 10
What type of algorithm uses the same key to encrypt and decrypt data?
A. A symmetric algorithm
B. An asymmetric algorithm
C. A public key infrastructure algorithm
D. An IP security algorithm
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 11
In which context is it inappropriate to use a hash algorithm?
A. Telnet logins
B. Verifying file integrity
C. SSH logins
D. Digital signature verification
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 12
Which security monitoring data type requires the most storage space?
A. full packet capture
B. transaction data
C. statistical data
D. session data
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.lead4pass 210-250 exam question q13A TFTP server has recently been installed in the Atlanta office. The network administrator is located in the NY office and
has attempted to make a connection to the TFTP server. They are unable to back up the configuration file and Cisco
IOS
of the NY router to the TFTP server.
Which cause of this problem is true?
A. The TFTP server cannot obtain an address from a DHCP Server.
B. The TFTP server has an incorrect IP address.
C. The network administrator computer has an incorrect IP address
D. The TFTP server has an incorrect subnet mask.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 14
Which of the following access control models use security labels to make access decisions?
A. Role-based access control (RBAC)
B. Mandatory access control (MAC)
C. Identity-based access control (IBAC)
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 15
Which of the following are some useful reports you can collect from Cisco ISE related to endpoints? (Select all that
apply.)
A. Web Server Log reports
B. Top Application reports
C. RADIUS Authentication reports
D. Administrator Login reports
Correct Answer: ABD


QUESTION 16
Which data can be obtained using NetFlow?
A. session data
B. application logs
C. network downtime
D. report full packet capture
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 17
What event types does FMC record?
A. standard common event logs types
B. successful login event logs
C. N/A
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 18
What does the sum of the risks presented by an application represent for that application?
A. Application attack surface
B. Security violation
C. Vulnerability
D. HIPPA violation
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 19
Which directory is commonly used on Linux systems to store log files, including syslog and apache access logs?
A. /etc/log
B. /root/log
C. /lib/log
D. /var/log
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 20
Which NTP command configures the local device as an NTP reference clock source?
A. ntp peer
B. ntp broadcast
C. ntp master
D. ntp server
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 21
An attacker installs a rogue switch that sends superior BPDUs on your network.
What is a possible result of this activity?
A. The switch could offer fake DHCP addresses.
B. The switch could become the root bridge.
C. The switch could be allowed to join the VTP domain
D. The switch could become a transparent bridge.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 22
Based on which statement does the discretionary access control security model grant or restrict access?
A. discretion of the system administrator
B. security policy defined by the owner of an object
C. security policy defined by the system administrator
D. role of a user within an organization
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 23
Which definition of a Linux daemon is true?
A. Process that is causing harm to the system by either using up system resources or causing a critical crash.
B. Long ?running process that is the child at the init process
C. process that has no parent process
D. process that is starved at the CPU.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 24
Which two terms are types of cross site scripting attacks? (Choose two )
A. directed
B. encoded
C. stored
D. reflected
E. cascaded
Correct Answer: CD


QUESTION 25
Which two features must a next generation firewall include? (Choose two.)
A. data mining
B. host-based antivirus
C. application visibility and control
D. Security Information and Event Management
E. intrusion detection system
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 26
Which of the following is true about heuristic-based algorithms?
A. Heuristic-based algorithms may require fine tuning to adapt to network traffic and minimize the possibility of false
positives.
B. Heuristic-based algorithms do not require fine tuning.
C. Heuristic-based algorithms support advanced malware protection.
D. Heuristic-based algorithms provide capabilities for the automation of IPS signature creation and tuning.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 27
which security principle is violated by running all processes as root/admin
A. RBAC
B. Principle of least privilege C. Segregation of duty
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 28
What Linux commands show the process for all users?
A. ps –a
B. ps –u
C. ps –d
D. ps –m
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 29
Where does routing occur within the DoD TCP/IP reference model?
A. application
B. internet
C. network
D. transport
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 30
Which term represents the chronological record of how evidence was collected- analyzed, preserved, and transferred?
A. chain of evidence
B. evidence chronology
C. chain of custody
D. record of safekeeping
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Refer to the graphic
lead4pass 200-125 question-1
A static route to the 10.5.6.0/24 network is to be configured on the HFD router. Which commands will accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 0.0.0.255 fa0/0
B. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 0.0.0.255 10.5.4.6
C. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 255.255.255.0 fa0/0
D. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.6.0 255.255.255.0 10.5.4.6
E. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.4.6 0.0.0.255 10.5.6.0
F. HFD(config)# ip route 10.5.4.6 255.255.255.0 10.5.6.0
Correct Answer: CD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The simple syntax of static route:
ip route destination-network-address subnet-mask {next-hop-IP-address | exit-interface} + destination-network-address: destination network address of the remote network + subnet mask: subnet mask of the destination network + next-hop-
IP-address: the IP address of the receiving interface on the next-hop router + exit-interface: the local interface of this router where the packets will go out In the statement “ip route 10.5.6.0 255.255.255.0 fa0/0:
+ 10.5.6.0 255.255.255.0: the destination network
+fa0/0: the exit-interface

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.
lead4pass 200-125 exam question-2
What is the effect of the configuration that is shown?
A. It configures SSH globally for all logins.
B. It tells the router or switch to try to establish an SSh connection first and if that fails to use Telnet.
C. It configures the virtual terminal lines with the password 030752180500.
D. It configures a Cisco network device to use the SSH protocol on incoming communications via the virtual terminal ports.
E. It allows seven failed login attempts before the VTY lines are temporarily shutdown.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Secure Shell (SSH) is a protocol which provides a secure remote access connection to network devices. Communication between the client and server is encrypted in both SSH version 1 and SSH version 2. If you want to prevent non-SSH
connections, add the “transport input ssh” command under the lines to limit the router to SSH connections only.
Straight (non-SSH) Telnets are refused.
Reference: www.cisco.com/warp/public/707/ssh.shtml

QUESTION 3
Which three elements must be used when you configure a router interface for VLAN trunking? (Choose three.)
A. one physical interface for each subinterface
B. one IP network or subnetwork for each subinterface
C. a management domain for each subinterface
D. subinterface encapsulation identifiers that match VLAN tags
E. one subinterface per VLAN
F. subinterface numbering that matches VLAN tags
Correct Answer: BDE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
This scenario is commonly called a router on a stick. A short, well written article on this operation can be found here:
http://www.thebryantadvantage.com/RouterOnAStickCCNACertificationExamTutorial.htm

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
lead4pass exam question-4
What can be determined about the router from the console output?
A. No configuration file was found in NVRAM.
B. No configuration file was found in flash.
C. No configuration file was found in the PCMCIA card.
D. Configuration file is normal and will load in 15 seconds.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
When no startup configuration file is found in NVRAM, the System Configuration Dialog will appear to ask if we want to enter the initial configuration dialog or not.

QUESTION 5
What information does a router running a link-state protocol use to build and maintain its topological database? (Choose two.)
A. hello packets
B. SAP messages sent by other routers
C. LSAs from other routers
D. beacons received on point-to-point links
E. routing tables received from other link-state routers
F. TTL packets from designated routers
Correct Answer: AC
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Neighbor discovery is the first step in getting a link state environment up and running. In keeping with the friendly neighbor terminology, a Hello protocol is used for this step. The protocol will define a Hello packet format and a procedure for
exchanging the packets and processing the information the packets contain.
After the adjacencies are established, the routers may begin sending out LSAs. As the term flooding implies, the advertisements are sent to every neighbor. In turn, each received LSA is copied and forwarded to every neighbor except the one
that sent the LSA.

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
lead4pass exam question-6
The technician wants to upload a new IOS in the router while keeping the existing IOS. What is the maximum size of an IOS file that could be loaded if the original IOS is also kept in flash?
A. 3 MB
B. 4 MB
C. 5 MB
D. 7 MB
E. 8 MB
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
In this example, there are a total of 8 MB, but 3.8 are being used already, so another file as large as 4MB can be loaded in addition to the original file.

QUESTION 7
Which command displays CPU utilization?
A. show protocols
B. show process
C. show system
D. show version
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The “show process” (in fact, the full command is “show processes”) command gives us lots of information about each process but in fact it is not easy to read. Below shows the output of this command (some next pages are omitted)

A more friendly way to check the CPU utilization is the command “show processes cpu history”, in which the total CPU usage on the router over a period of time: one minute, one hour, and 72 hours are clearly shown
lead4pass exam question-7
+ The Y-axis of the graph is the CPU utilization.
+ The X-axis of the graph is the increment within the period displayed in the graph. For example, from the last graph (last 72 hours) we learn that the highest CPU utilization within 72 hours is 37% about six hours ago.

QUESTION 8
A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from OSPF with a metric of 782. The last is from RIPv2 and
has a metric of 4. Which route or routes will the router install in the routing table?
A. the OSPF route
B. the EIGRP route
C. the RIPv2 route
D. all three routes
E. the OSPF and RIPv2 routes
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
When one route is advertised by more than one routing protocol, the router will choose to use the routing protocol which has lowest Administrative Distance. The Administrative Distances of popular routing protocols are listed below:
lead4pass exam question-8

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
lead4pass exam question-9
C-router is to be used as a “router-on-a-stick” to route between the VLANs. All the interfaces have been properly configured and IP routing is operational. The hosts in the VLANs have been configured with the appropriate default gateway.
What is true about this configuration?
A. These commands need to be added to the configuration:
C-router(config)# router eigrp 123
C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0
B. These commands need to be added to the configuration:
C-router(config)# router ospf 1
C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0
C. These commands need to be added to the configuration:
C-router(config)# router rip
C-router(config-router)# network 172.19.0.0
D. No further routing configuration is required.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Since all the same router (C-router) is the default gateway for all three VLANs, all traffic destined to a different VLA will be sent to the C-router. The C-router will have knowledge of all three networks since they will appear as directly
connected in the routing table. Since the C-router already knows how to get to all three networks, no routing protocols need to be configured.

QUESTION 10
If IP routing is enabled, which two commands set the gateway of last resort to the default gateway? (Choose two.)
A. ip default-gateway 0.0.0.0
B. ip route 172.16.2.1 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
C. ip default-network 0.0.0.0
D. ip default-route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1
E. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.2.1
Correct Answer: CE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Both the “ip default-network” and “ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 (next hop)” commands can be used to set the default gateway in a Cisco router.

QUESTION 11
Which two statements about the OSPF Router ID are true? (Choose two.)
A. It identifies the source of a Type 1 LSA.
B. It should be the same on all routers in an OSPF routing instance.
C. By default, the lowest IP address on the router becomes the OSPF Router ID.
D. The router automatically chooses the IP address of a loopback as the OSPF Router ID.
E. It is created using the MAC Address of the loopback interface.
Correct Answer: AD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
r120#show ip ospf data
OSPF Router with ID (10.0.0.120) (Process ID 1)
Next, who are the other routers in our area?
Router Link States (Area 1)
Link IDADV RouterAgeSeq#ChecksumLink count
10.0.0.11110.0.0.1116000x8000023A 0x0092B31
10.0.0.11210.0.0.11212460×80000234 0x009CAC1
10.0.0.11310.0.0.1131480x8000022C0x0043993
10.0.0.12010.0.0.1201520x800002400x0046CB1
We can see OSPF Router ID will be used as source of Type 1 LSA. Also the router will chose the highest loopback interface as its OSPF router ID (if available).

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit
lead4pass exam question-12
The speed of all serial links is E1 and the speed of all Ethernet links is 100 Mb/s. A static route will be established on the Manchester router to direct traffic toward the Internet over the most direct path available. What configuration on the
Manchester router will establish a route toward the Internet for traffic that originates from workstations on the Manchester LAN?
A. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.100.2
B. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 128.107.1.1
C. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.252 128.107.1.1
D. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.100.1
E. ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.100.2
F. ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.255 172.16.100.2
Correct Answer: E
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
We use default routing to send packets with a remote destination network not in the routing table to the next-hop router. You should generally only use default routing on stub networks–those with only one exit path out of the network.
According to exhibit, all traffic towards Internet that originates from workstations should forward to Router R1.Syntax for default route is:
ip route <Remote_Network> <Netmask> <Next_Hop_Address>.

QUESTION 13
Which command reveals the last method used to powercycle a router?
A. show reload
B. show boot
C. show running-config
D. show version
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The “show version” command can be used to show the last method to powercycle (reset) a router
lead4pass exam question-13

QUESTION 14
Why do large OSPF networks use a hierarchical design? (Choose three.)
A. to decrease latency by increasing bandwidth
B. to reduce routing overhead
C. to speed up convergence
D. to confine network instability to single areas of the network
E. to reduce the complexity of router configuration
F. to lower costs by replacing routers with distribution layer switches
Correct Answer: BCD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
OSPF implements a two-tier hierarchical routing model that uses a core or backbone tier known as area zero (0). Attached to that backbone via area border routers (ABRs) are a number of secondary tier areas. The hierarchical approach is
used to achieve the following:
Rapid convergence because of link and/or switch failures ?
Deterministic traffic recovery
?
Scalable and manageable routing hierarchy, reduced routing overhead.

QUESTION 15
Refer to the exhibit.
lead4pass exam question-15
Which of these statements correctly describes the state of the switch once the boot process has been completed?
A. As FastEthernet0/12 will be the last to come up, it will be blocked by STP.
B. Remote access management of this switch will not be possible without configuration change.
C. More VLANs will need to be created for this switch.
D. The switch will need a different IOS code in order to support VLANs and STP.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Notice the line, which says “Interface VLAN1, changed state to administratively down”. This shows that VLAN1 is shut down. Hence remote management of this switch is not possible unless VLAN1 is brought back up. Since VLAN1 is the only
interface shown in the output, you have to assume that no other VLAN interface has been configured with an IP Address.

QUESTION 16
Refer to the exhibit.
lead4pass exam question-16
Based on the exhibited routing table, how will packets from a host within the 192.168.10.192/26 LAN be forwarded to 192.168.10.1?
A. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1.
B. The router will forward packets from R3 to R1 to R2.
C. The router will forward packets from R3 to R2 to R1 AND from R3 to R1.
D. The router will forward packets from R3 to R1.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
From the routing table we learn that network 192.168.10.0/30 is learned via 2 equal-cost paths (192.168.10.9 &192.168.10.5) -> traffic to this network will be load-balancing.

QUESTION 17
What are two enhancements that OSPFv3 supports over OSPFv2? (Choose two.)
A. It requires the use of ARP.
B. It can support multiple IPv6 subnets on a single link.
C. It supports up to 2 instances of OSPFv3 over a common link.
D. It routes over links rather than over networks.
Correct Answer: BD
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Here is a list of the differences between OSPFv2 and OSPFv3:
They use different address families (OSPFv2 is for IPv4-only, OSPFv3 can be used for IPv6-only or both protocols
OSPFv3 introduces new LSA types
OSPFv3 has different packet format
OSPFv3 uses different flooding scope bits (U/S2/S1) OSPFv3 adjacencies are formed over link-local IPv6 communications OSPFv3 runs per-link rather than per-subnet
OSPFv3 supports multiple instances on a single link, Interfaces can have multiple IPv6 addresses
OSPFv3 uses multicast addresses FF02::5 (all OSPF routers), FF02::6 (all OSPF DRs)
OSPFv3 Neighbor Authentication done with IPsec (AH) OSPFv2 Router ID (RID) must be manually configured, still a 32-bit number
Reference: http://www.networkworld.com/article/2225270/cisco-subnet/ospfv3-for-ipv4-and- ipv6.html

QUESTION 18
Refer to the exhibit.
lead4pass exam question-18
The company uses EIGRP as the routing protocol. What path will packets take from a host on the 192.168.10.192/26 network to a host on the LAN attached to router R1?
A. The path of the packets will be R3 to R2 to R1.
B. The path of the packets will be R3 to R1 to R2.
C. The path of the packets will be both R3 to R2 to R1 AND R3 to R1.
D. The path of the packets will be R3 to R1.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Host on the LAN attached to router R1 belongs to 192.168.10.64/26 subnet. From the output of the routing table of R3 we learn this network can be reach via 192.168.10.9, which is an IP address in 192.168.10.8/30 network (the network
between R1 & R3) -> packets destined for 192.168.10.64 will be routed from R3 -> R1 -> LAN on R1.

QUESTION 19
A Cisco router is booting and has just completed the POST process. It is now ready to find and load an IOS image. What function does the router perform next?
A. It checks the configuration register.
B. It attempts to boot from a TFTP server.
C. It loads the first image file in flash memory.
D. It inspects the configuration file in NVRAM for boot instructions.
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Default (normal) Boot Sequence
Power on Router – Router does POST – Bootstrap starts IOS load – Check configuration register to see what mode the router should boot up in (usually 0x2102 to read startup- config in NVRAM / or 0x2142 to start in “setup-mode”) – check the
startup-config file in NVRAM for boot-system commands – load IOS from Flash.

QUESTION 20
Refer to the exhibit
lead4pass exam question-20
According to the routing table, where will the router send a packet destined for 10.1.5.65?
A. 10.1.1.2
B. 10.1.2.2
C. 10.1.3.3
D. 10.1.4.4
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The destination IP address 10.1.5.65 belongs to 10.1.5.64/28, 10.1.5.64/29 & 10.1.5.64/27 subnets but the “longest prefix match” algorithm will choose the most specific subnet mask -> the prefix “/29 will be chosen to route the packet.
Therefore the next-hop should be 10.1.3.3 ->.

QUESTION 21
Which parameter would you tune to affect the selection of a static route as a backup, when a dynamic protocol is also being used?
A. hop count
B. administrative distance
C. link bandwidth
D. link delay
E. link cost
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
By default the administrative distance of a static route is 1, meaning it will be preferred over all dynamic routing protocols. If you want to have the dynamic routing protocol used and have the static route be used only as a backup, you need to
increase the AD of the static route so that it is higher than the dynamic routing protocol.

QUESTION 22
Which command would you configure globally on a Cisco router that would allow you to view directly connected Cisco devices?
A. enable cdp
B. cdp enable
C. cdp run
D. run cdp
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
CDP is enabled on Cisco routers by default. If you prefer not to use the CDP capability, disable it with the no cdp run command. In order to reenable CDP, use the cdp run command in global configuration mode. The “cdp enable” command is
an interface command, not global.

QUESTION 23
Which parameter or parameters are used to calculate OSPF cost in Cisco routers?
A. Bandwidth
B. Bandwidth and Delay
C. Bandwidth, Delay, and MTU
D. Bandwidth, MTU, Reliability, Delay, and Load
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The well-known formula to calculate OSPF cost is
Cost = 108 / Bandwidth

QUESTION 24
Refer to the graphic
lead4pass exam question-24
R1 is unable to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with R3. What are possible reasons for this problem? (Choose two.)
A. All of the routers need to be configured for backbone Area 1.
B. R1 and R2 are the DR and BDR, so OSPF will not establish neighbor adjacency with R3.
C. A static route has been configured from R1 to R3 and prevents the neighbor adjacency from being established.
D. The hello and dead interval timers are not set to the same values on R1 and R3.
E. EIGRP is also configured on these routers with a lower administrative distance.
F. R1 and R3 are configured in different areas.
Correct Answer: DF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
This question is to examine the conditions for OSPF to create neighborhood. So as to make the two routers become neighbors, each router must be matched with the following items:
1. The area ID and its types;
2. Hello and failure time interval timer;
3. OSPF Password (Optional).

QUESTION 25
Refer to the exhibit.
lead4pass exam question-25
A network administrator configures a new router and enters the copy startup-config running-config command on the router. The network administrator powers down the router and sets it up at a remote location. When the router starts, it enters
the system configuration dialog as shown. What is the cause of the problem?
A. The network administrator failed to save the configuration.
B. The configuration register is set to 0x2100.
C. The boot system flash command is missing from the configuration.
D. The configuration register is set to 0x2102.
E. The router is configured with the boot system startup command.Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The “System Configuration Dialog” appears only when no startup configuration file is found. The network administrator has made a mistake because the command “copy startup-config running-config” will copy the startup config (which is
empty) over the running config (which is configured by the administrator). So everything configured was deleted. Note: We can tell the router to ignore the start-up configuration on the next reload by setting the register to 0?142. This will make
the “System Configuration Dialog” appear at the next reload.

QUESTION 26
On a corporate network, hosts on the same VLAN can communicate with each other, but they are unable to communicate with hosts on different VLANs. What is needed to allow communication between the VLANs?
A. a router with subinterfaces configured on the physical interface that is connected to the switch
B. a router with an IP address on the physical interface connected to the switch
C. a switch with an access link that is configured between the switches
D. a switch with a trunk link that is configured between the switches
Correct Answer: A
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Different VLANs can’t communicate with each other, they can communicate with the help of Layer3 router. Hence, it is needed to connect a router to a switch, then make the sub- interface on the router to connect to the switch, establishing
Trunking links to achieve communications of devices which belong to different VLANs.
When using VLANs in networks that have multiple interconnected switches, you need to use VLAN trunking between the switches. With VLAN trunking, the switches tag each frame sent between switches so that the receiving switch knows to
what VLAN the frame belongs. End user devices connect to switch ports that provide simple connectivity to a single VLAN each. The attached devices are unaware of any VLAN structure.
By default, only hosts that are members of the same VLAN can communicate. To change this and allow inter-VLAN communication, you need a router or a layer 3 switch.
Here is the example of configuring the router for inter-vlan communication RouterA(config)#int f0/0.1
RouterA(config-subif)#encapsulation ?
dot1Q IEEE 802.1Q Virtual LAN
RouterA(config-subif)#encapsulation dot1Q or isl VLAN ID RouterA(config-subif)# ip address x.x.x.x y.y.y.y

QUESTION 27
Which command would you use on a Cisco router to verify the Layer 3 path to a host?
A. tracert address
B. traceroute address
C. telnet address
D. ssh address
Correct Answer: B
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
In computing, traceroute is a computer network diagnostic tool for displaying the route (path) and measuring transit delays of packets across an Internet Protocol (IP) network. The history of the route is recorded as the round-trip times of the
packets received from each successive host (remote node) in the route (path); the sum of the mean times in each hop indicates the total time spent to establish the connection. Traceroute proceeds unless all (three) sent packets are lost more
than twice, then the connection is lost and the route cannot be evaluated. Ping, on the other hand, only computes the final round-trip times from the destination point.

QUESTION 28
The network administrator cannot connect to Switch1 over a Telnet session, although the hosts attached to Switch1 can ping the interface Fa0/0 of the router
lead4pass exam question-28
Given the information in the graphic and assuming that the router and Switch2 are configured properly, which of the following commands should be issued on Switch1 to correct this problem?
A. Switch1(config)# line con0
Switch1(config-line)# password cisco
Switch1(config-line)#login
B. Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1
Switch1(config-if)# ip address 192.168.24.3 255.255.255.0
C. Switch1(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.24.1
D. Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1
Switch1(config-if)# duplex full
Switch1(config-if)# speed 100
E. Switch1(config)# interface fa0/1
Switch1(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Since we know hosts can reach the router through the switch, we know that connectivity, duplex. Speed, etc. are good. However, for the switch itself to reach networks outside the local one, the ip default-gateway command must be used.

QUESTION 29
Which statements describe the routing protocol OSPF? (Choose three.)
A. It supports VLSM.
B. It is used to route between autonomous systems.
C. It confines network instability to one area of the network.
D. It increases routing overhead on the network.
E. It allows extensive control of routing updates.
F. It is simpler to configure than RIP v2.
Correct Answer: ACE
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The OSPF protocol is based on link-state technology, which is a departure from the Bellman-Ford vector based algorithms used in traditional Internet routing protocols such as RIP. OSPF has introduced new concepts such as authentication
of routing updates, Variable Length Subnet Masks (VLSM), route summarization, and so forth. OSPF uses flooding to exchange link-state updates between routers. Any change in routing information is flooded to all routers in the network.
Areas are introduced to put a boundary on the explosion of link-state updates. Flooding and calculation of the Dijkstra algorithm on a router is limited to changes within an area.

QUESTION 30
A network administrator needs to allow only one Telnet connection to a router. For anyone viewing the configuration and issuing the show run command, the password for Telnet access should be encrypted. Which set of commands will
accomplish this task?
A. service password-encryption
access-list 1 permit 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255
line vty 0 4
loginpassword cisco
access-class 1
B. enable password secret
line vty 0
login
password cisco
C. service password-encryption
line vty 1
login
password cisco
D. service password-encryption
line vty 0 4
login
password cisco
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Only one VTY connection is allowed which is exactly what’s requested.
Incorrect answer: command.
line vty0 4
would enable all 5 vty connections.

QUESTION 31
What is the default administrative distance of OSPF?
A. 90
B. 100
C. 110
D. 120
Correct Answer: C
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Administrative distance is the feature that routers use in order to select the best path when there are two or more different routes to the same destination from two different routing protocols. Administrative distance defines the reliability of a
routing protocol. Each routing protocol is prioritized in order of most to least reliable (believable) with the help of an administrative distance value.
Default Distance Value Table
This table lists the administrative distance default values of the protocols that Cisco supports:
Route Source
Default Distance Values
Connected interface
Static route
Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (EIGRP) summary route External Border Gateway Protocol (BGP)
Internal EIGRP
IGRP
OSPF
Intermediate System-to-Intermediate System (IS-IS) Routing Information Protocol (RIP)
Exterior Gateway Protocol (EGP)
On Demand Routing (ODR)
External EIGRP
Internal BGP
Unknown*

QUESTION 32
Refer to the exhibit.
lead4pass exam question-32
The network administrator requires easy configuration options and minimal routing protocol traffic. What two options provide adequate routing table information for traffic that passes between the two routers and satisfy the requests of the
network administrator? (Choose two.)
A. a dynamic routing protocol on InternetRouter to advertise all routes to CentralRouter.
B. a dynamic routing protocol on InternetRouter to advertise summarized routes to CentralRouter.
C. a static route on InternetRouter to direct traffic that is destined for 172.16.0.0/16 to CentralRouter.
D. a dynamic routing protocol on CentralRouter to advertise all routes to InternetRouter.
E. a dynamic routing protocol on CentralRouter to advertise summarized routes to InternetRouter.
F. a static, default route on CentralRouter that directs traffic to InternetRouter.
Correct Answer: CF
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The use of static routes will provide the necessary information for connectivity while producing no routing traffic overhead.

QUESTION 33
Refer to the exhibit
lead4pass exam question-33
What is the reason that the interface status is “administratively down, line protocol down”?
A. There is no encapsulation type configured.
B. There is a mismatch in encapsulation types.
C. The interface is not receiving any keepalives.
D. The interface has been configured with the shutdown command.
E. The interface needs to be configured as a DTE device.
F. The wrong type of cable is connected to the interface.
Correct Answer: D
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Interfaces can be enabled or disabled with shutdown/no shutdown command. If you interface is down, it will display administratively down status. You can bring up an interface having administratively down interface using no shutdown
command.

QUESTION 34
Drag each definition on the left to the matching term on the right.
Select and Place
lead4pass exam question-34
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 35
Drag the Cisco default administrative distance to the appropriate routing protocol or route. (Not all options are used.)
lead4pass exam question-35
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 36
Routing has been configured on the local router with these commands:
Local(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.1
Local(config)# ip route 10.1.0.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.2
Local(config)# ip route 10.1.0.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.3.3
Drag each destination IP address on the left to its correct next hop address on the right.
Select and Place:
lead4pass exam question-36
Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
If we have many entries matching for next hop ip address then the router will choose the one with most specific path to send the packet. This is called the “longest match” rule, the route with the most bits in the mask set to “1 will be chosen to
route packet.

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