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QUESTION 1
A company is deciding between an HVR and SVR solution in order to finalize a virtualization project proposal. Which is an advantage of a HVR solution versus a SVR solution?
A. A HVR solution implements dedicated data plane resources.
B. A HVR solution implements shared control plane resources.
C. A HVR solution introduces significant contention of resources.
D. A HVR solution implements dedicated chassis resources.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Two routers that are running MPLS and LDP have multiple links that connect then to each other. An engineer wants to ensure that the label bindings are not flushed from the LIB if one of the links fails. 400-201 pdf Which configuration meets this requirement?
A. The mpls ip command on an MPLS TE tunnel.
B. The mpls idp sync command under router process configuration mode.
C. The mpls Idp autoconfig command.
D. The mpls Idp discovery targeted-hello accept command
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. The Service Provider does not have IPv6 support in the core, however it does have MPLS support. Customer requires IPv6 connectivity in all sites including Internet access. 400-201 dumps Without a requirement to create VRF, which method is preferred to support IPv6 traffic between these sites?
400-201 dumps
A. 6VPE
B. H-VPLS
C. L2TPv3
D. VPLS
E. 6CE
F. 6PE
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 4
Which QoS method is available when GRE is used to provide MPLS VPN services over an IP-only core?
A. matching MPLS EXP on the physical interface
B. matching EXP on the tunnel interface
C. matching DSCP on the physical interface
D. matching DSCP on the tunnel interface
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
In an end-to-end Layer 2 service, which technology provides the capability to detect, verify, isolate, and report faults across a provider network?
A. carrier detect
B. UDLD
C. BFD
D. CFM
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Select two valid administratively scoped multicast addresses in networks running Interior Gateway protocols like EIGRP and OSPF (Choose two). 400-201 dumps
A. 239.255.255.255
B. 224.0.0.10
C. 239.0.0.1
D. 224.0.0.5
Correct Answer: A,C

QUESTION 7
What loop prevention mechanism can be used for ospf type 3 sla in L3VPN?
A. DNbit
B. Pending
C. Pending
D. Pending
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Retaining LDP session if one links fail out of two for two neighbors. 400-201 pdf
A. MPLS LDP targeted-hello accept
B. MPLS LDP sync
C. MPLS IP
D. MPLS LDP autoconfig
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
A service provider requires that the PE-CE link must be optimized by only compressing the TCP header regards to business traffic policy. Neither voice traffic nor other traffic policies must be compressed. Which solution meets these requirements?
A. enhanced RTP header compression
B. class-based TCP header compression
C. RTP header compression over satellite links
D. Header compression using IPHC profiles
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which description is true of that the fast-reroute keep all paths command accomplishes when used under OSPF process? 400-201 dumps
A. All possible alternate routes are installed in the OSPF RIB, even if the alternate paths do not meet the LFA criteria (the LFA inequalities)
B. By default, only the /32 routes have a backup path installed. This command creates a backup path for the router with any subnet mask.
C. Besides the regular LFA backup paths, this command also installs the remote LFA backup paths.
D. All backup routes – not only the best backup route are installed in the OSPF RIB.
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Some routers have been configured with default routes. What are some of the advantages of using default routes? (Choose two)
A. They establish routes that will never go down.
B. They keep routing tables small.
C. They require a great deal of CPU power.
D. They allow connectivity to remote networks that are not in the routing table
E. They direct traffic from the internet into corporate networks.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
B. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
C. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
D. block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? 100-105 pdf (Choose two.)
A. There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast.
B. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.
C. Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address.
D. The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.
E. Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.      100-105 dumps
100-105 dumps
HostX is transferring a file to the FTP server. Point A represents the frame as it goes toward the Toronto router. What will the Layer 2 destination address be at this point?
A. abcd.1123.0045
B. 192.168.7.17
C. aabb.5555.2222
D. 192.168.1.1
E. abcd.2246.0035
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 5
The ip helper-address command does what?
A. assigns an IP address to a host
B. resolves an IP address from a DNS server
C. relays a DHCP request across networks
D. resolves an IP address overlapping issue
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
A receiving host has failed to receive all of the segments that it should acknowledge. What can the host do to improve the reliability of this communication session?
A. decrease the window size
B. use a different source port for the session
C. decrease the sequence number
D. obtain a new IP address from the DHCP server
E. start a new session using UDP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which layer of the TCP/IP stack combines the OSI model physical and data link layers? 100-105 pdf
A. Internet layer
B. transport layer
C. application layer
D. network access layer
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
The command ip route 192.168.100.160 255.255.255.224 192.168.10.2 was issued on a router. No routing protocols or other static routes are configured on the router. Which statement is true about this command?
A. The interface with IP address 192.168.10.2 is on this router.
B. The command sets a gateway of last resort for the router.
C. Packets that are destined for host 192.168.100.160 will be sent to 192.168.10.2.
D. The command creates a static route for all IP traffic with the source address 192.168.100.160.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which statements are TRUE regarding Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses? (Choose three.)
A. An IPv6 address is divided into eight 16-bit groups.
B. A double colon (::) can only be used once in a single IPv6 address.
C. IPv6 addresses are 196 bits in length.
D. Leading zeros cannot be omitted in an IPv6 address.
E. Groups with a value of 0 can be represented with a single 0 in IPv6 address.
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 10
What must occur before a workstation can exchange HTTP packets with a web server? 100-105 dumps
A. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
B. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
C. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
D. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
E. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
F. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following statements is correct about how the FortiGate unit verifies username and password during user authentication? NSE4 pdf
A. If a remote server is included in a user group, it will be checked before local accounts.
B. An administrator can define a local account for which the password must be verified by querying a remote server.
C. If authentication fails with a local password, the FortiGate unit will query the authentication server if the local user is configured with both a local password and an authentication server.
D. The FortiGate unit will only attempt to authenti ate against Action Directory if Fortinet Server Authentication Extensions are installed and configured.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What advantages are there in using a hub-and-spoke IPSec VPN configuration instead of a fully-meshed set of IPSec tunnels? (Select all that apply.)
A. Using a hub and spoke topology is required to achieve full redundancy.
B. Using a hub and spoke topology simplifies configuration because fewer tunnels are required.
C. Using a hub and spoke topology provides stronger encryption.
D. The routing at a spoke is simpler, compared to a meshed node.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the FortiGuard Services Web Filtering Override configuration as illustrated in the exhibit?      NSE4 dumps
NSE4 dumps
A. Any client on the same subnet as the authenticated user is allowed to access www.yahoo.com/images/.
B. A client with an IP of address 10.10.10.12 is allowed access to any subdirectory that is part of the www.yahoo.com web site.
C. A client with an IP address of 10.10.10.12 is allowed access to the www.yahoo.com/images/ web site and any of its offsite URLs.
D. A client with an IP address of 10.10.10.12 is allowed access to any URL under the www.yahoo.com web site, including any subdirectory URLs, until August 7, 2009.
E. Any client on the same subnet as the authenticated user is allowed to access www.yahoo.com/images/until August 7, 2009.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which of the following statements are correct about the HA diag command diagnose sys ha reset-uptime?(Select all that apply.)
A. The device this command is executed on is likely to switch from master to slave status if master override is disabled.
B. The device this command is executed on is likely to switch from master to slave status if master override is enabled.
C. This command has no impact on the HA algorithm.
D. This command resets the uptime variable used in the HA algorithm so it may cause a new master to become elected.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 5
When the SSL proxy inspects the server certificate for Web Filtering only in SSL Handshake mode, which certificate field is being used to determine the site rating? NSE4 dumps
A. Common Name
B. Organization
C. OrganizationalUnit
D. Serial Number
E. Validity
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the NAC Quarantine feature?
A. With NAC quarantine, files can be quarantined not only as a result of antivirus scanning, but also for other forms of content inspection such as IPS and DLP.
B. NAC quarantine does a client check on workstations before they are permitted to have administrative access to FortiGate.
C. NAC quarantine allows administrators to isolate clients whose network activity poses a security risk.
D. If you chose the quarantine action, you must decide whether the quarantine type is NAC quarantine or File quarantine.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which of the following Session TTL values will take precedence? NSE4 pdf
A. Session TTL specified at the system level for that port number
B. Session TTL specified in the matching firewall policy
C. Session TTL dictated by the application control list associated with the matching firewall policy
D. The default session TTL specified at the system level
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is an advantage of using SNMP v3 instead of SNMP v1/v2 when querying the FortiGate unit?
A. Packetencryption
B. MIB-based report uploads
C. SNMP access limits through access lists
D. Running SNMP service on a non-standard port is possible
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
The FortiGate unit can be configured to allow authentication to a RADIUS server. The RADIUS server can use several different authentication protocols during the authentication process. Which of the following are valid authentication protocols that can be used when a user authenticates to the RADIUS server? (Select all that apply.)
A. MS-CHAP-V2 (Microsoft Challenge-Handshake Authentication Protocol v2)
B. PAP (Password Authentication Protocol)
C. CHAP (Challenge-Handshake Authentication Protocol)
D. MS-CHAP (Microsoft Challenge-Handshake Authentication Protocol v1)
E. FAP (FortiGate Authentication Protocol)
Correct Answer: ABCD

QUESTION 10
Which of the following statements is not correct regarding virtual domains (VDOMs)? NSE4 dumps
A. VDOMs divide a single FortiGate unit into two or more virtual units that function as multiple, independent units.
B. A management VDOM handles SNMP, logging, alert email, and FDN-based updates.
C. A backup management VDOM will synchronize the configuration from an active management VDOM.
D. VDOMs share firmware versions, as well as antivirus and IPS databases.
E. Only administrative users with a super_admin profile will be able to enter all VDOMs to make configuration changes.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Refer to the following configuration command.
router(config)# ip nat inside source static tcp 172.16.10.8 8080 172.16.10.8 80
Which statement about the command is true?
A. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP port address of 172.16.10.8:80 is translated to 172.16.10.8:8080.
B. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP port address of 172.16.10.8:8080 is translated to 172.16.10.8:80.
C. The router accepts only a TCP connection from port 8080 and port 80 on IP address 172.16.10.8
D. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP address of 172.16.10.8 is redirected to port 8080 or port 80.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which option is one way to mitigate symmetric routing on an active/active firewall setup for TCP-based connections? 300-101 pdf
A. performing packet captures
B. disabling asr-group commands on interfaces that are likely to receive asymetric traffic
C. replacing them with redundant routers and allowing load balancing
D. disabling stateful TCP checks
Correct Answer: D
300-101 dumps
QUESTION 3                    300-101 dumps
Which option is invalid when configuring Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding?
A. allow self ping to router
B. allow default route
C. allow based on ACL match
D. source reachable via both
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which traffic characteristic is the reason that UDP traffic that carries voice and video is assigned to the queue only on a link that is at least 768 kbps?
A. typically is not fragmented
B. typically is fragmented
C. causes windowing
D. causes excessive delays for video traffic
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
What type of IPv6 packet will indicate traffic from single host and single node?
A. multicast
B. unicast
C. broadcast
D. anycast
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
A network engineer receives reports about poor voice quality issues at a remote site. The network engineer does a packet capture and sees out-of-order packets being delivered. Which option can cause the VOIP quality to suffer? 300-101 dumps
A. traffic over backup redundant links
B. misconfigured voice vlan
C. speed duplex link issues
D. load balancing over redundant links
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which three IP SLA performance metrics can you use to monitor enterprise-class networks? (Choose three.)
A. Packet loss
B. Delay
C. bandwidth
D. Connectivity
E. Reliability
F. traps
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 8
A network engineer is configuring the router for NetFlow data exporting. What is required in order for NDE to begin exporting data?
A. Source
B. Flow mask
C. Destination
D. Interface type
E. Traffic type
F. NetFlow version
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which statement is true about IPv6? 300-101 pdf
A. Only one IPv6 address is assigned per node
B. Only one IPv6 address can be assigned to each interface.
C. Each host can autoconfigure its address without the aid of a DHCP server.
D. IPv6 hosts use anycast addresses to assign IP addresses to interfaces
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
How is authentication handled with OSPFv3?
A. OSPFv3 for IPv6 authentication is supported by SHA-1 authentication.
B. OSPFv3 for IPv6 authentication is supported by MD5 authentication
C. OSPFv3 for IPv6 authentication is supported by IPv6 IPsec
D. OSPFv3 for IPv6 authentication is supported by IPv4 IPsec
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
You have implemented mutual route redistribution between OSPF and EIGRP on a border router. When checking the routing table on one of the OSPF routers within the OSPF routing domain, you are seeing some, but not all of the expected routes. Which two things should you verify to troubleshoot this problem? (Choose two.)
A. The border router is using a proper seed metric for OSPF.
B. The border router is using a proper seed metric for EIGRP.
C. The administrative distance is set for OSPF and EIGRP
D. The missing EIGRP routes are present in the routing table of the border router
E. The subnet keyword on the border router in the redistribute EIGRP command
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Your company uses Voice over IP (VoIP). The system sends UDP datagrams containing the voice data between communicating hosts. 300-101 dumps When areas of the network become busy, some of the datagrams arrive at their destination out of order. What happens when this occurs?
A. UDP will send an ICMP Information request message to the source host.
B. UDP will pass the information in the datagrams up to the next OSI layer in the order in which they arrive.
C. UDP will drop the datagrams that arrive out of order.
D. UDP will use the sequence numbers in the datagram headers to reassemble the data into the …
Correct Answer: B

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Question No : 1
EIGRP is being used as the routing protocol on the Company network. While troubleshooting some network connectivity issues, you notice a large number of EIGRP SIA (Stuck in Active) messages. What causes these SIA routes? (Select two)
A. The neighboring router stops receiving ACK packets from this router.
B. The neighboring router starts receiving route updates from this router.
C. The neighboring router is too busy to answer the query (generally caused by high CPU utilization).
D. The neighboring router is having memory problems and cannot allocate the memory to process the query or build the reply packet.
Answer: C,D

Question No : 2
What is the result of configuring the logging console warning command? 300-135 pdf
A. Messages with a severity level of 4 and higher will be logged to all available TTY lines.
B. Only warning messages will be logged on the console.
C. Warning, error, critical, and informational messages will be logged on the console.
D. Warning, critical, alert, and emergency messages will be logged on the console.
E. The logging console warning command needs to be followed in the configuration with logging buffered byte size to specify the message buffer size for the console.
Answer: D

Question No : 3
A customer network engineer has made configuration changes that have resulted in some loss of connectivity. You have been called in to evaluate a switch network and suggest resolutions to the problems. 300-135 dumps
300-135 dumps
PC2 in VLAN 200 is unable to ping the gateway address 172.16.200.1; identify the issue.
A. VTP domain name mismatch on SW4
B. VLAN 200 not configured on SW1
C. VLAN 200 not configured on SW2
D. VLAN 200 not configured on SW4
Correct Answer: C

Question No : 4
Which three management categories are contained in the FCAPS network maintenance model? (Choose three.)
A. Config
B. Fault
C. Storage
D. Accounting
E. Redundancy
F. Telecommunications
Answer: A,B,D

Question No : 5
The following command is issued on a Cisco Router:
Router(configuration)#logging console warnings
Which alerts will be seen on the console?
A. Warnings only
B. debugging, informational, notifications, warnings
C. warnings, errors, critical, alerts, emergencies
D. notifications, warnings, errors
E. warnings, errors, critical, alerts
Answer: C

Question No : 6
What level of logging is enabled on a Router where the following logs are seen? 300-135 pdf
%LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/1, changed state to up
%LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/1, changed
state to up
A. alerts
B. critical
C. errors
D. notifications
Answer: D

Question No : 7
You want to enhance the security within the Company LAN and prevent VLAN hopping. What two steps can be taken to help prevent this? (Select two) 300-135 dumps
A. Enable BPD guard
B. Disable CDP on ports where it is not necessary
C. Place unused ports in a common unrouted VLAN
D. Prevent automatic trunk configuration
E. Implement port security
Answer: C,D

Question No : 8
Refer to the shown below.
%LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface Serial0/0, changed state to up
%LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface Serial0/0, changed state to up
What statement is correct regarding the output shown in the graphic?
A. These two log messages will not have a severity level. They are not errors but are just informational messages.
B. The first log message is categorized as a warning message.
C. These messages regarding interface status are normal output and will always be displayed when you exit config mode.
D. The first log message is an error message with a severity level of 3.
E. The second message would be shown if the logging console warning command had been issued.
Answer: D

Question No : 9
Which statement is true about an IPsec/GRE tunnel?
A. The GRE tunnel source and destination addresses are specified within the IPsec transform set.
B. An IPsec/GRE tunnel must use IPsec tunnel mode.
C. GRE encapsulation occurs before the IPsec encryption process.
D. Crypto map ACL is not needed to match which traffic will be protected.
Answer: C

Question No : 10
Which two statements about the Cisco Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) are true? (Select two) 300-135 pdf
A. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) profile manager feature can create and manage only one profile for the wireless client adapter.
B. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can support only one wireless client adapter installed and used at a time.
C. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can be used to establish the association between the client adapter and the access point, manage authentication to the wireless network, and enable encryption.
D. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) and the Microsoft Wireless Configuration Manager can be used at the same time to configure the wireless client adapter.
Answer: B,C

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QUESTION 1
Why the root file system is mounted read-only during boot and remounted with write permission later on?
A. Because if problems with the root file system are detected during the boot, fsck can be run, without risk of damage.
B. Becausethiswaycrackerscannotcollectinformationaboutrootwithbootsniffers
C. To avoid writing to the disk, unless the root password is known.
D. To avoid other operating systems overwriting the Linux root partition
E. Because the disk has its own write protection that cannot change by the operating system.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A DNS server has the IP address 192.168.0.1. 117-201 pdf Which TWO of the following need to be done on a client machine to use this DNS server?
A. Add nameserver 192.168.0.1 to /etc/resolv.conf
B. Run route add nameserver 192.168.0.1
C. Run ifconfig eth0 nameserver 192.168.0.1
D. Ensure that the dns service is listed in the hosts entry in the /etc/nsswitch.conf file
E. Run bind add nameserver 192.168.0.1
Correct Answer: AD
117-201 dumps
QUESTION 3     117-201 dumps
After unpacking the source code for a Linux kernel, what is the first make command that should be run which will delete any current configuration and all generated files? This command will ensure that no inappropriate files were left in the kernel archive by the maintainer.
A. make depend
B. make distclean
C. make config
D. make clean
E. makemrproper
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You have finished updating and resolving dependencies for some source code. 117-201 pdf What command should you run before recompiling the code into binary form?
A. make clean
B. make all
C. make dep
D. make install
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which hdparm command-line options will set an IDE hard disk to use both DMA and 32-bit I/O support?
A. -p 1 -A 1
B. -f -g
C. -L 1 -i 1
D. -d 1 -c 1
E. -L 1 -i 32
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
The swap usage on a system needs to be checked. Which TWO commands can be used to display a swap usage summary? 117-201 dumps
A. swapconfig
B. cat /proc/swaps
C. swapon -s
D. swapshow
E. cat /etc/fstab
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 7
Which of the following commands should be used in a bash script that needs a variable containing the IP address of the eth0 interface? The output for the command ifconfig eth0 is shown below:
eth0 Link encap:Ethernet HWaddr 00:0C:29:CB:FA:30
inetaddr:192.168.246.llBcast:192.168.246.255Mask:255.255.255.0UPBROADCAST UNNING
MULTICAST MTU:1500 Metric:l
RX packets:4721 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 frame:0 TX packets:3216 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0
carrier:0 collisions:0 txqueuelen:1000
RX bytes:445184 (434.7 Kb) TX bytes:512968 (500.9 Kb) Interrupt:l85 Base address:0x1080
A. IP=LANG= ifconfig eth0 I awk ‘{ print $2 }’ I cut -f2
B. IP=LANG= ifconfig eth0 I grep inet I cut -d: -f2 I awk { print $l }
C. IP=LANG= ifconfig eth0 I awk ‘{ print $3 }’
D. IP=$(LANG= ifconfig eth0 I grep inet I awk ‘{ print $2 }’ I cut -d: -f2)
E. IP=$(LANG= ifconfig eth0 I grep inet I cut -d: -f2)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
If the current directory is /root and the kernel source is located in /usr/src/linux, 117-201 pdf which of the following commands should be used to apply the patch /tmp/foopatch?
A. cat /tmp/foopatch I patch -p0
B. cd/usr/src/linux;cat/tmp/foopatchIpatch-p0
C. cd/usr/src/linux; cat/tmp/foopatch I patch
D. cd/usr/src/linux;patch-pl/tmp/foopatch
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
What command must be used to create an ext3 filesystem?
A. mke2fs
B. mkext2fs
C. mke3fs
D. mkext3fs
E. mkjfs
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
What command can be used on an existing (formatted) partition, to configure the interval between disk checks when mounting partitions? 117-201 dumps
A. mke2fs
B. e2fsck
C. e2fsckconfig
D. config2fs
E. tune2fs
Correct Answer: E

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QUESTION 1
Which statement about Cisco ASA multicast routing support is true?
A. The Cisco ASA appliance supports PIM dense mode, sparse mode, and BIDIR-PIM.
B. The Cisco ASA appliance supports only stub multicast routing by forwarding IGMP messages from multicastreceivers to the upstream multicast router.
C. The Cisco ASA appliance supports DVMRP and PIM.
D. The Cisco ASA appliance supports either stub multicast routing or PIM, but both cannot be enabled at thesame time.
E. The Cisco ASA appliance supports only IGMP v1.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Enabling what security mechanism can prevent an attacker from 300-206 pdf gaining network topology information from CDP via a man-in-the-middle attack?
A. MACsec
B. Flex VPN
C. Control Plane Protection
D. Dynamic Arp Inspection
Correct Answer: A
300-206 dumps
QUESTION 3           300-206 dumps
On an ASA running version 9.0, which command is used to nest objects in a pre-existing group?
A. object-group
B. network group-object
C. object-group network
D. group-object
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which two features are supported when configuring clustering of multiple Cisco ASA appliances? (Choose two.)
A. NAT
B. dynamic routing
C. SSL remote access VPN
D. IPSec remote access VPN
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 5
Which command configures the SNMP server group1 to enable authentication for members of the access list east? 300-206 pdf
A. snmp-server group group1 v3 auth access east
B. snmp-server group1 v3 auth access east
C. snmp-server group group1 v3 east
D. snmp-server group1 v3 east access
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which Cisco product provides a GUI-based device management tool to configure Cisco access routers?
A. Cisco ASDM
B. Cisco CP Express
C. Cisco ASA 5500
D. Cisco CP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
When configured in accordance to Cisco best practices, the ip verify source command can mitigate which two types of Layer 2 attacks? (Choose two.)
A. rogue DHCP servers
B. ARP attacks
C. DHCP starvation
D. MAC spoofing
E. CAM attacks
F. IP spoofing
Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 8
A network administrator is creating an ASA-CX administrative user account with the following parameters:
-The user will be responsible for configuring security policies on networkdevices. 300-206 dumps
-The user needs read-write access to policies.
-The account has no more rights than necessary for the job.
What role will be assigned to the user?
A. Administrator
B. Security administrator
C. System administrator
D. Root Administrator
E. Exec administrator
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which command is used to nest objects in a pre-existing group?
A. object-group
B. network group-object
C. object-group network
D. group-object
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which action is considered a best practice for the Cisco ASA firewall? 300-206 dumps
A. Use threat detection to determine attacks
B. Disable the enable password
C. Disable console logging
D. Enable ICMP permit to monitor the Cisco ASA interfaces
E. Enable logging debug-trace to send debugs to the syslog server
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
A stock brokerage firm requires that all trades are executed quickly with a minimal amount of delay due to network latency. Which software requirement is recommended as part of a business requirement?
A. The application shall process trades as soon as possible with no further delay.
B. The application should provide high-availability features to continue trading activities even in case of a software or hardware failure.
C. The application shall maintain the state of all active network links in real time and prioritize traffic flows that belong to trading activities on the links with lowest latency.
D. The application should set the latency attribute to zero on packets that belong to the a trading action.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You must develop an SDN application that meets these specifications. The solution must manage devices through a centralized controller to configure access control lists. The solution will monitor traffic at a packet level to determine which packets are coming from known rogue applications and/or devices. Identified traffic will be used as the basis to create new ACLs to be deployed back onto the network devices. The identification and provisioning steps should take no more than 100 milliseconds. Which three design options must you consider to develop an SDN application that meets these specifications? (Choose three.)
A. choice of programming and scripting language
B. choice of service set
C. choice of transport protocol
D. choice of deployment model
E. use of security and TLS
F. hardware platforms involved
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 3
Exhibit:
600-509
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true based on this flowchart? (Choose two.) 600-509
A. All packets that are bound to host 10.10.0.1 are dropped.
B. Packet with source IP 3.3.3.110 and destination IP 10.10.0.1 are spanned.
C. All packets with source IP 3.3.3.110 and destination IP 10.10.0.1 are dropped.
D. All packets from host 3.3.3.220 destined to host 10.10.0.1 are dropped or spanned.
E. All traffic destined to host 10.10.0.1 is dropped or spanned.
F. OpenFlow v1.0 only supports “flows” that are defined based on MAC addresses, not IP addresses.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 4
Which three options are requirements that should be supported by Software Defined Networking controllers? (Choose three.)
A. extraction of network element and topology information
B. computation of the explicit routing path per application flow.
C. ability to route application traffic based on policy
D. OSGI
E. Agile development principles
F. service-oriented architecture
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 5
Which two protocols only keep track of the routers that are situated only one hop away? (Choose two.)
A. CDP
B. EIGRP
C. OSPF
D. ISIS
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 6
Which programming language and Cisco onePK Service Set is required for an application that performs at the packet level?
A. Java with Utility Service Set
B. REST with Element Service Set
C. Ruby with Routing Service Set
D. Python with Routing Service Set
E. REST with Utility Service Set
F. C with Data Path Service Set
G. Java with Developer Service Set
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 7
An application that leverages the Cisco onePK Data Path Service Set requires that TCP frames are inspected and discarded under a set of conditions. The sender is not informed of the discard. Which action does this scenario describe?
A. bypass or offload
B. DSCP marking
C. drop
D. purge
E. L4 redirect
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which Cisco onePK API service provides path tracing capabilities?
A. Switching
B. Routing
C. Utility
D. Data Path
E. Developer
F. Discovery
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
You must document that before your application applies any configuration changes to a device, the application runs those changes through a set of predefined, automated consistency tests called “ACTCHECK10”. The application applies changes only after the test has completed without any ERRORS or WARNINGS. Which statement about these requirements is true?
A. The system should test the configuration before applying it.
B. After applying the configuration changes the user should ping the device to ensure that everything still works.
C. The system should run consistency checks prior to applying configuration changes.
D. Prior to applying the configuration changes to the device, the system shall run consistency test ACT_CHECK10, and proceed to applying changes only if no errors and/or warnings are reported by the test.
E. The system should call the function app.ACT_CHECK10(“config-changes.txt”) method and capture the output. The system shall than go through the output to count the number of ERRORS and WARNINGS reported by the test. If the total number of ERRORS and WARNINGS is equal to 0, the system shall proceed to run app.ApplyChanges(“config-changes.txt”).
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
When an application must be developed that interacts with Cisco IOS, NX-OS, and IOS-XR devices, the application must use LDAP for authentication and have secure communication between the Cisco 600-509 onePK application and managed device. The customer prefers the use of Java for follow-on supportability by their staff. The customer is familiar with the Eclipse IDE. Which application dependency is relevant?
A. interaction with multiple device platforms Cisco IOS, NX-OS, and IOS-XR
B. use of LDAP for authentication
C. use of secure communication between onePK app and the device
D. choice of Java as programming language
E. customer’s familiarity with Eclipse IDE
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
An engineer is configuring a new MDS switch. The switch is powered on, the customer connects to the console, and the initial setup script is started.
Which two items can be configured during this setup process?
A. default port-channel mode
B. default port VSAN membership
C. default switch port interface state
D. default zone mode
E. default storage VDC
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
Which option describes a difference between EIGRP for IPv4 and IPv6?
A. Only EIGRP for IPv6 advertises all connected networks.
B. Only EIGRP for IPv6 requires a router ID to be configured under the routing process-
C. AS numbers are configured in EIGRP but not in EIGRPv3.
D. Only EIGRP for IPv6 is enabled in the global configuration mode.
Answer : B

Explanation:
Router ID – Both EIGRP for IPv4 and EIGRP for IPv6 use a 32-bit number for the EIGRP router ID. The 32-bit router ID is represented in dotted-decimal notation and is commonly referred to as an IPv4 address. If the EIGRP for IPv6 router has not been configured with an IPv4 address, the eigrp router-id command must be used to configure a 32-bit router ID. The process for determining the router ID is the same for both EIGRP for IPv4 and IPv6.

QUESTION 3
200-155
Why is the Branch2 network 10.1 0.20.0/24 unable to communicate with the 200-155 Server farm1 network 10.1 0.10.0/24 over the GRE tunnel?
A. The GRE tunnel destination is not configured on the R2 router.
B. The GRE tunnel destination is not configured on the Branch2 router.
C. The static route points to the tunnel0 interface that is misconfigured on the Branch2 router.
D. The static route points to the tunnel0 interface that is misconfigured on the R2 router.
Answer : C

QUESTION 4
Which option describes what a switch does after it items that a host has connected to a switch port?
A. Flood the frame only on all of its trunk ports.
B. Create a MAC to port mapping entry in MAC table.
C. Flood the frame only on all of its access ports.
D. Discard the frame.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
What is the maximum working distance of a 1000BASE-ZE SFP transceiver when ordinary single mode fiber?
A. up to 70 kilometers
B. up to 40 kilometers
C. up to 550 meters
D. up to 10 kilometers
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which command set creates an access control list on a Cisco Nexus switch to deny only FTP traffic from any source to destination host 10.10.10.10?
A. N5K-A(config)# Ip access-list 101
N5K-A(config-acl)# deny judp any host 10.10.1.110. eq 21 N5K-A(config-acl)# permit ip any any
B. N5K-A(config)# Ip access-list 101
N5K-A(config-acl)# deny judp any host 10.10.1.110. eq ftp
C. N5K-A(config)# deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110. eq ftp N5K-A(config)# access-list 101deny Ip any any
D. N5K-A(config)# Ip access-list 101
N5K-A(config-acl)# deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110. eq 21 N5K-A(config-acl)# permit Ip any any
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which two circumstances can cause collision domain issues on VLAN domain? (Choose two.)
A. duplex mismatches on Ethernet segments in the same VLAN
B. multiple errors on switchport interfaces
C. congestion on the switch inband path
D. a failing NIC in an end device
E. an overloaded shared segment
Answer : A,C

QUESTION 8
What is a difference between TACACS+ and RADIUS in AAA?
A. Only TACACS+ allows for separate authentication.
B. Only RADIUS encrypts the entire access-request packet.
C. Only RADIUS uses TCP.
D. Only TACACS+ couples authentication and authorization.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
It has become necessary to configure an existing serial interface to accept a second Frame Relay virtual circuit. Which of the following are required to solve this? (Choose three)
A. configure static frame relay map entries for each subinterface network.
B. remove the ip address from the physical interface
C. create the virtual interfaces with the interface command
D. configure each subinterface with its own IP address
E. disable split horizon to prevent routing loops between the subinterface networks
F. encapsulate the physical interface with multipoint PPP
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 10
Which statement about named ACLs is true?
A. They support standard and extended ACLs.
B. They are used to filter usernames and passwords for Telnet and SSH.
C. They are used to filter Layer 7 traffic.
D. They support standard ACLs only.
E. They are used to rate limit traffic destined to targeted networks.
Answer : A

Explanation:
Named Access Control Lists (ACLs) allows standard and extended ACLs to be given names instead of numbers. Unlike in numbered Access Control Lists (ACLs), 200-155 we can edit Named Access Control Lists. Another benefit of using named access configuration mode is that you can add new statements to the access list, and insert them wherever you like. With the legacy syntax, you must delete the entire access list before reapplying it using the updated rules.

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QUESTION 1
You have implemented mutual route redistribution between OSPF and EIGRP on a border router. When checking the routing table on one of the OSPF routers within the OSPF routing domain, you are seeing some, but not all of the expected routes. Which two things should you verify to troubleshoot this problem? (Choose two.)
A. The border router is using a proper seed metric for OSPF.
B. The border router is using a proper seed metric for EIGRP.
C. The administrative distance is set for OSPF and EIGRP
D. The missing EIGRP routes are present in the routing table of the border router
E. The subnet keyword on the border router in the redistribute EIGRP command
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which traffic characteristic is the reason that UDP traffic that carries voice and video is assigned to the queue only on a link that is at least 768 kbps?
A. typically is not fragmented
B. typically is fragmented
C. causes windowing
D. causes excessive delays for video traffic
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
300-160
Which three statements accurately describe the result of applying the exhibited route map? (Choose three.) 300-160
A. The map prohibits the redistribution of all type 2 external OSPF routes with tag 6 set.
B. The map prohibits the redistribution of all type 2 external OSPF routes.
C. The map redistributes into EIGRP all routes that match the pfx prefix list and the five metric values 40000, 1000, 255, 1, and 1500.
D. The map prohibits the redistribution of all external OSPF routes with tag 6 set
E. All routes that do no match clauses 10 and 20 of the route map are redistributed with their tags set to 8.
F. The map permits the redistribution of all type 1 external OSPF routes.
Correct Answer: AEF

QUESTION 4
Refer to the following configuration command.
router(config)# ip nat inside source static tcp 172.16.10.8 8080 172.16.10.8 80
Which statement about the command is true?
A. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP port address of 172.16.10.8:80 is translated to 172.16.10.8:8080.
B. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP port address of 172.16.10.8:8080 is translated to 172.16.10.8:80.
C. The router accepts only a TCP connection from port 8080 and port 80 on IP address 172.16.10.8
D. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP address of 172.16.10.8 is redirected to port 8080 or port 80.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
What type of IPv6 packet will indicate traffic from single host and single node?
A. multicast
B. unicast
C. broadcast
D. anycast
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
A network engineer receives reports about poor voice quality issues at a remote site. The network engineer does a packet capture and sees out-of-order packets being delivered. Which option can cause the VOIP quality to suffer?
A. traffic over backup redundant links
B. misconfigured voice vlan
C. speed duplex link issues
D. load balancing over redundant links
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which three IP SLA performance metrics can you use to monitor enterprise-class networks? (Choose three.)
A. Packet loss
B. Delay
C. bandwidth
D. Connectivity
E. Reliability
F. traps
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 8
Which two statements are true about 6to4 tunnels? (Choose two.)
A. In a 6to4 tunnel, the first two bytes of the IPv6 address will be 0x2002 and the next four bytes will be the hexadecimal equivalent of the IPv4 address 300-160
B. In a 6to4 tunnel, the first two bytes of the IPv6 address will be locally derived and the next two bytes will be the hexadecimal equivalent of the IPv4 address.
C. In a 6to4 tunnel, the IPv4 address 192.168.99.1 would be converted to the 2002:c0a8:6301::/48 IPv6 address.
D. In a 6to4 tunnel, the IPv4 address 192.168.99.1 would be converted to the 2002:c0a8:6301::/16 IPv6 address.
E. In a 6to4 tunnel, the IPv4 address 192.168.99.1 would be converted to the 2002:1315:4463:1::/64 IPv6 address.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
Which command configures a PPPoE client and specifies dial-on-demand routing functionality?
A. pppoe-client dial-pool-number
B. PPPoE enable
C. interface dialer 1
D. encapsulation PPP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
What is the administrative distance for EBGP?
A. 200
B. 30
C. 70
D. 20
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
A network engineer is configuring the router for NetFlow data exporting. What is required in order for NDE to begin exporting data?
A. Source
B. Flow mask
C. Destination
D. Interface type
E. Traffic type
F. NetFlow version
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
A network administrator creates a static route that points directly to a multi-access interface, instead of the next-hop IP address. The administrator notices that Cisco Express Forwarding ARP requests are being sent to all destinations. Which issue might this configuration create?
A. Low bandwidth usage
B. High memory usage
C. Cisco Express Forwarding routing loop
D. High bandwidth usage
E. IP route interference
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which three are characteristics of IPv6? (Choose three.)
A. An IPv6 address is 128 bits long.
B. An IPv6 header is 20 bits long.
C. An IPv6 header contains the next header field.
D. An IPv6 header contains the protocol field.
E. IPv6 routers send RA messages.
F. An IPv6 header contains the header checksum field.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 14
Your company uses Voice over IP (VoIP). The system sends UDP datagrams containing the voice data between communicating hosts. When areas of the network become busy, some of the datagrams arrive at their destination out of order. 300-160 What happens when this occurs?
A. UDP will send an ICMP Information request message to the source host.
B. UDP will pass the information in the datagrams up to the next OSI layer in the order in which they arrive.
C. UDP will drop the datagrams that arrive out of order.
D. UDP will use the sequence numbers in the datagram headers to reassemble the data into the …
Correct Answer: B

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