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QUESTION 1
A stock brokerage firm requires that all trades are executed quickly with a minimal amount of delay due to network latency. Which software requirement is recommended as part of a business requirement?
A. The application shall process trades as soon as possible with no further delay.
B. The application should provide high-availability features to continue trading activities even in case of a software or hardware failure.
C. The application shall maintain the state of all active network links in real time and prioritize traffic flows that belong to trading activities on the links with lowest latency.
D. The application should set the latency attribute to zero on packets that belong to the a trading action.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
You must develop an SDN application that meets these specifications. The solution must manage devices through a centralized controller to configure access control lists. The solution will monitor traffic at a packet level to determine which packets are coming from known rogue applications and/or devices. Identified traffic will be used as the basis to create new ACLs to be deployed back onto the network devices. The identification and provisioning steps should take no more than 100 milliseconds. Which three design options must you consider to develop an SDN application that meets these specifications? (Choose three.)
A. choice of programming and scripting language
B. choice of service set
C. choice of transport protocol
D. choice of deployment model
E. use of security and TLS
F. hardware platforms involved
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 3
Exhibit:
600-509
Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements are true based on this flowchart? (Choose two.) 600-509
A. All packets that are bound to host 10.10.0.1 are dropped.
B. Packet with source IP 3.3.3.110 and destination IP 10.10.0.1 are spanned.
C. All packets with source IP 3.3.3.110 and destination IP 10.10.0.1 are dropped.
D. All packets from host 3.3.3.220 destined to host 10.10.0.1 are dropped or spanned.
E. All traffic destined to host 10.10.0.1 is dropped or spanned.
F. OpenFlow v1.0 only supports “flows” that are defined based on MAC addresses, not IP addresses.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 4
Which three options are requirements that should be supported by Software Defined Networking controllers? (Choose three.)
A. extraction of network element and topology information
B. computation of the explicit routing path per application flow.
C. ability to route application traffic based on policy
D. OSGI
E. Agile development principles
F. service-oriented architecture
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 5
Which two protocols only keep track of the routers that are situated only one hop away? (Choose two.)
A. CDP
B. EIGRP
C. OSPF
D. ISIS
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 6
Which programming language and Cisco onePK Service Set is required for an application that performs at the packet level?
A. Java with Utility Service Set
B. REST with Element Service Set
C. Ruby with Routing Service Set
D. Python with Routing Service Set
E. REST with Utility Service Set
F. C with Data Path Service Set
G. Java with Developer Service Set
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 7
An application that leverages the Cisco onePK Data Path Service Set requires that TCP frames are inspected and discarded under a set of conditions. The sender is not informed of the discard. Which action does this scenario describe?
A. bypass or offload
B. DSCP marking
C. drop
D. purge
E. L4 redirect
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which Cisco onePK API service provides path tracing capabilities?
A. Switching
B. Routing
C. Utility
D. Data Path
E. Developer
F. Discovery
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
You must document that before your application applies any configuration changes to a device, the application runs those changes through a set of predefined, automated consistency tests called “ACTCHECK10”. The application applies changes only after the test has completed without any ERRORS or WARNINGS. Which statement about these requirements is true?
A. The system should test the configuration before applying it.
B. After applying the configuration changes the user should ping the device to ensure that everything still works.
C. The system should run consistency checks prior to applying configuration changes.
D. Prior to applying the configuration changes to the device, the system shall run consistency test ACT_CHECK10, and proceed to applying changes only if no errors and/or warnings are reported by the test.
E. The system should call the function app.ACT_CHECK10(“config-changes.txt”) method and capture the output. The system shall than go through the output to count the number of ERRORS and WARNINGS reported by the test. If the total number of ERRORS and WARNINGS is equal to 0, the system shall proceed to run app.ApplyChanges(“config-changes.txt”).
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
When an application must be developed that interacts with Cisco IOS, NX-OS, and IOS-XR devices, the application must use LDAP for authentication and have secure communication between the Cisco 600-509 onePK application and managed device. The customer prefers the use of Java for follow-on supportability by their staff. The customer is familiar with the Eclipse IDE. Which application dependency is relevant?
A. interaction with multiple device platforms Cisco IOS, NX-OS, and IOS-XR
B. use of LDAP for authentication
C. use of secure communication between onePK app and the device
D. choice of Java as programming language
E. customer’s familiarity with Eclipse IDE
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
An engineer is configuring a new MDS switch. The switch is powered on, the customer connects to the console, and the initial setup script is started.
Which two items can be configured during this setup process?
A. default port-channel mode
B. default port VSAN membership
C. default switch port interface state
D. default zone mode
E. default storage VDC
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
Which option describes a difference between EIGRP for IPv4 and IPv6?
A. Only EIGRP for IPv6 advertises all connected networks.
B. Only EIGRP for IPv6 requires a router ID to be configured under the routing process-
C. AS numbers are configured in EIGRP but not in EIGRPv3.
D. Only EIGRP for IPv6 is enabled in the global configuration mode.
Answer : B

Explanation:
Router ID – Both EIGRP for IPv4 and EIGRP for IPv6 use a 32-bit number for the EIGRP router ID. The 32-bit router ID is represented in dotted-decimal notation and is commonly referred to as an IPv4 address. If the EIGRP for IPv6 router has not been configured with an IPv4 address, the eigrp router-id command must be used to configure a 32-bit router ID. The process for determining the router ID is the same for both EIGRP for IPv4 and IPv6.

QUESTION 3
200-155
Why is the Branch2 network 10.1 0.20.0/24 unable to communicate with the 200-155 Server farm1 network 10.1 0.10.0/24 over the GRE tunnel?
A. The GRE tunnel destination is not configured on the R2 router.
B. The GRE tunnel destination is not configured on the Branch2 router.
C. The static route points to the tunnel0 interface that is misconfigured on the Branch2 router.
D. The static route points to the tunnel0 interface that is misconfigured on the R2 router.
Answer : C

QUESTION 4
Which option describes what a switch does after it items that a host has connected to a switch port?
A. Flood the frame only on all of its trunk ports.
B. Create a MAC to port mapping entry in MAC table.
C. Flood the frame only on all of its access ports.
D. Discard the frame.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
What is the maximum working distance of a 1000BASE-ZE SFP transceiver when ordinary single mode fiber?
A. up to 70 kilometers
B. up to 40 kilometers
C. up to 550 meters
D. up to 10 kilometers
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which command set creates an access control list on a Cisco Nexus switch to deny only FTP traffic from any source to destination host 10.10.10.10?
A. N5K-A(config)# Ip access-list 101
N5K-A(config-acl)# deny judp any host 10.10.1.110. eq 21 N5K-A(config-acl)# permit ip any any
B. N5K-A(config)# Ip access-list 101
N5K-A(config-acl)# deny judp any host 10.10.1.110. eq ftp
C. N5K-A(config)# deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110. eq ftp N5K-A(config)# access-list 101deny Ip any any
D. N5K-A(config)# Ip access-list 101
N5K-A(config-acl)# deny tcp any host 10.10.1.110. eq 21 N5K-A(config-acl)# permit Ip any any
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which two circumstances can cause collision domain issues on VLAN domain? (Choose two.)
A. duplex mismatches on Ethernet segments in the same VLAN
B. multiple errors on switchport interfaces
C. congestion on the switch inband path
D. a failing NIC in an end device
E. an overloaded shared segment
Answer : A,C

QUESTION 8
What is a difference between TACACS+ and RADIUS in AAA?
A. Only TACACS+ allows for separate authentication.
B. Only RADIUS encrypts the entire access-request packet.
C. Only RADIUS uses TCP.
D. Only TACACS+ couples authentication and authorization.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
It has become necessary to configure an existing serial interface to accept a second Frame Relay virtual circuit. Which of the following are required to solve this? (Choose three)
A. configure static frame relay map entries for each subinterface network.
B. remove the ip address from the physical interface
C. create the virtual interfaces with the interface command
D. configure each subinterface with its own IP address
E. disable split horizon to prevent routing loops between the subinterface networks
F. encapsulate the physical interface with multipoint PPP
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 10
Which statement about named ACLs is true?
A. They support standard and extended ACLs.
B. They are used to filter usernames and passwords for Telnet and SSH.
C. They are used to filter Layer 7 traffic.
D. They support standard ACLs only.
E. They are used to rate limit traffic destined to targeted networks.
Answer : A

Explanation:
Named Access Control Lists (ACLs) allows standard and extended ACLs to be given names instead of numbers. Unlike in numbered Access Control Lists (ACLs), 200-155 we can edit Named Access Control Lists. Another benefit of using named access configuration mode is that you can add new statements to the access list, and insert them wherever you like. With the legacy syntax, you must delete the entire access list before reapplying it using the updated rules.

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[2017 PDF Free Download] Free Latest Cisco 300-160 Dumps PDF Questions And Answers At Lead4pass, High Quality 300-160 Dumps Study Guide And Youtube

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QUESTION 1
You have implemented mutual route redistribution between OSPF and EIGRP on a border router. When checking the routing table on one of the OSPF routers within the OSPF routing domain, you are seeing some, but not all of the expected routes. Which two things should you verify to troubleshoot this problem? (Choose two.)
A. The border router is using a proper seed metric for OSPF.
B. The border router is using a proper seed metric for EIGRP.
C. The administrative distance is set for OSPF and EIGRP
D. The missing EIGRP routes are present in the routing table of the border router
E. The subnet keyword on the border router in the redistribute EIGRP command
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which traffic characteristic is the reason that UDP traffic that carries voice and video is assigned to the queue only on a link that is at least 768 kbps?
A. typically is not fragmented
B. typically is fragmented
C. causes windowing
D. causes excessive delays for video traffic
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit.
300-160
Which three statements accurately describe the result of applying the exhibited route map? (Choose three.) 300-160
A. The map prohibits the redistribution of all type 2 external OSPF routes with tag 6 set.
B. The map prohibits the redistribution of all type 2 external OSPF routes.
C. The map redistributes into EIGRP all routes that match the pfx prefix list and the five metric values 40000, 1000, 255, 1, and 1500.
D. The map prohibits the redistribution of all external OSPF routes with tag 6 set
E. All routes that do no match clauses 10 and 20 of the route map are redistributed with their tags set to 8.
F. The map permits the redistribution of all type 1 external OSPF routes.
Correct Answer: AEF

QUESTION 4
Refer to the following configuration command.
router(config)# ip nat inside source static tcp 172.16.10.8 8080 172.16.10.8 80
Which statement about the command is true?
A. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP port address of 172.16.10.8:80 is translated to 172.16.10.8:8080.
B. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP port address of 172.16.10.8:8080 is translated to 172.16.10.8:80.
C. The router accepts only a TCP connection from port 8080 and port 80 on IP address 172.16.10.8
D. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP address of 172.16.10.8 is redirected to port 8080 or port 80.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
What type of IPv6 packet will indicate traffic from single host and single node?
A. multicast
B. unicast
C. broadcast
D. anycast
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
A network engineer receives reports about poor voice quality issues at a remote site. The network engineer does a packet capture and sees out-of-order packets being delivered. Which option can cause the VOIP quality to suffer?
A. traffic over backup redundant links
B. misconfigured voice vlan
C. speed duplex link issues
D. load balancing over redundant links
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which three IP SLA performance metrics can you use to monitor enterprise-class networks? (Choose three.)
A. Packet loss
B. Delay
C. bandwidth
D. Connectivity
E. Reliability
F. traps
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 8
Which two statements are true about 6to4 tunnels? (Choose two.)
A. In a 6to4 tunnel, the first two bytes of the IPv6 address will be 0x2002 and the next four bytes will be the hexadecimal equivalent of the IPv4 address 300-160
B. In a 6to4 tunnel, the first two bytes of the IPv6 address will be locally derived and the next two bytes will be the hexadecimal equivalent of the IPv4 address.
C. In a 6to4 tunnel, the IPv4 address 192.168.99.1 would be converted to the 2002:c0a8:6301::/48 IPv6 address.
D. In a 6to4 tunnel, the IPv4 address 192.168.99.1 would be converted to the 2002:c0a8:6301::/16 IPv6 address.
E. In a 6to4 tunnel, the IPv4 address 192.168.99.1 would be converted to the 2002:1315:4463:1::/64 IPv6 address.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
Which command configures a PPPoE client and specifies dial-on-demand routing functionality?
A. pppoe-client dial-pool-number
B. PPPoE enable
C. interface dialer 1
D. encapsulation PPP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
What is the administrative distance for EBGP?
A. 200
B. 30
C. 70
D. 20
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
A network engineer is configuring the router for NetFlow data exporting. What is required in order for NDE to begin exporting data?
A. Source
B. Flow mask
C. Destination
D. Interface type
E. Traffic type
F. NetFlow version
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
A network administrator creates a static route that points directly to a multi-access interface, instead of the next-hop IP address. The administrator notices that Cisco Express Forwarding ARP requests are being sent to all destinations. Which issue might this configuration create?
A. Low bandwidth usage
B. High memory usage
C. Cisco Express Forwarding routing loop
D. High bandwidth usage
E. IP route interference
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which three are characteristics of IPv6? (Choose three.)
A. An IPv6 address is 128 bits long.
B. An IPv6 header is 20 bits long.
C. An IPv6 header contains the next header field.
D. An IPv6 header contains the protocol field.
E. IPv6 routers send RA messages.
F. An IPv6 header contains the header checksum field.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 14
Your company uses Voice over IP (VoIP). The system sends UDP datagrams containing the voice data between communicating hosts. When areas of the network become busy, some of the datagrams arrive at their destination out of order. 300-160 What happens when this occurs?
A. UDP will send an ICMP Information request message to the source host.
B. UDP will pass the information in the datagrams up to the next OSI layer in the order in which they arrive.
C. UDP will drop the datagrams that arrive out of order.
D. UDP will use the sequence numbers in the datagram headers to reassemble the data into the …
Correct Answer: B

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Question No : 1
Which three steps are required during the intial configuration of a Cisco Converged Access controller so that the access points can join? (Choose three)
A. The Cisco 5760 controller that acts as a mobility controller can support up to 10000APs.
B. Ensure that an active license is enabled with the proper AP count.
C. Ensure that the wireless management interface is correctly configured.
D. In a Converged Access deployment, the APs must be on the same VLAN as the wireless management interface.
E. To enable wireless services, the Cisco 3850 switch must run an ipservices or ipbase license.
F. Network connectivity is not necessary because all the APs connect directly to the Converged Access controller.
Answer: B,C,E

Question No : 2
In which direction does application visibility and controller mark the DSCP value of the original Packet in the wireless LAN controller?
A. in one direction, either upstream or downstream
B. in one direction, downstream only
C. in both direction upstream and down stream
D. in one direction upstream only
Answer: C

Question No : 3
Refer to the exhibit.
400-351
According to the debugs and loin the Cisco WLC and Cisco 400-351 LAP which WLC discovery Algorithm is used by the LAP to join the Cisco WLC?
A. DHCP server LAP sends a layer 3 CAPWAP discover request to the Cisco WLC that is listed m the DHCP option 43.
B. configured LAP sends a uncast layer 3 CAPWAP discover request to the Cisco WLC IP address that the LAP has in its NVRAM
C. Broadcast lap broadcasts a layer 3 CAPWAP discover massage on the local ip subnet
D. DNS lap resolve the DNS Name CISCO-CAPWAP-CONTEOLLER cisco to the Cisco WLC ip address then it sends a uncast layer 3 CAPWAP discovery request to the Cisco WLC
Answer: A

Question No : 4
Your customer has a Cisco unified Wireless Network running AireOS 8.0 and wants to learn about the FlexConnect mode that is available on his APs which two statementsare true?(choose two)
A. When an AP is changed from localmode to FlexConnect mode a reboot is required.
B. A newly connected AP can be booted in FlexConnect mode
C. When an AP IS changed from local mode to FlexConnect mode a reboot IS not required.
D. Cisco Centralized Key Management require the use of FlexConnect group
Answer: C,D

Question No : 5
Which two platforms provide hypervisor virtualization? (Choose two.)
A. DevStack
B. Docker
C. KVM
D. OpenStack
E. Xen
Answer: C,E

Question No : 6
When creating a guest account on Cisco identity Services Engine. 400-351 Which option in the sponsor portal allows for the guest credentials to be used for RADIUS authentication without requiring the guest user to log into the guest portal?
A. Set the Guest role to Guest
B. Set the Guest role to Activated guest
C. Set the Time Profile to Radius 1Day
D. Check the box to send email not send email notification id the guest user name is based on the email address.
Answer: B

Question No : 7
You are implementing a WLC at a remote site and want to make sure that you are able to sync up with the Cisco WCS at the central site. Which two statements about this process are true? (Choose two.)
A. If the WLC is behind a firewall, you must make sure that UDP ports 161 and 162 are open.
B. The Cisco WCS server does not need direct IP connectivity to the WLC.
C. Cisco WCS will not be able to communicate with the WLC if the WLC is behind a NAT device.
D. If the WLC is behind a NAT device, the WLC’s dynamic AP-manager interface must be configured with the external NAT IP address.
Answer: A,C

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QUESTION 1
A company implemented VoIP in a campus network and now wants a consistent method to implement using AutoQoS. Which two parameters must be considered before AutoQoS is configured? (Choose two.)
A. CEF must be enabled.
B. AutoQoS is available only on routers.
C. Traffic discovery must be performed manually.
D. No service policy can be applied already.
E. Manual traffic analysis must be performed.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 2
Which two benefits are achieved if a network is designed properly with a structured addressing scheme? (Choose two.)
A. efficient ACLs
B. improved redundancy
C. hardened security
D. easier troubleshooting
E. added resiliency
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 3
Which of the following features might be used by the Enterprise Campus network designer as a means of route filtering?
A. IPv4 static routes
B. Route tagging using a route map in an ACL
C. Tagging routes using the BGP MED
D. EIGRP stub networks
Correct Answer: D
300-320
QUESTION 4                   300-320
Which option describes why duplicate IP addresses reside on the same network in Cisco network design?
A. HSRP designed network
B. using Cisco ACE in active/passive mode
C. VRRP designed network
D. running multiple routing protocols
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which two options are storage topologies? (Choose two.)
A. WAS
B. DAS
C. CAS
D. NAS
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 6
Which Layer 2 messaging protocol maintains VLAN configuration consistency?
A. VTP
B. VSS
C. LLDP
D. CDP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which two physical components can enable high availability on a Cisco 6500 device? (Choose two.)
A. dual supervisor modules
B. bundled Ethernet Interconnects
C. line modules with DFCs
D. redundant power supplies
E. VSS interlink cables
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 8
Which algorithm does IS-IS use to determine the shortest path through a network?
A. Bellman-Ford routing algorithm
B. Johnson’s algorithm
C. Dijkstra’s algorithm
D. Floyd-Warshall algorithm
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
A network design engineer has been asked to reduce the size of the SPT on an IS-IS broadcast network.
Which option should the engineer recommend to accomplish this task?
A. Configure the links as point-to-multipoint.
B. Configure QoS in all links.
C. Configure a new NET address.
D. Configure the links as point-to-point.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which two types of authentication mechanisms can be used by VRRP for security? (Choose two.)
A. SHA-1
B. MD5
C. SHA-256
D. plaintext authentication
E. PEAP
Correct Answer: BD

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Question No : 1
A voicemail product that supports only the G.711 codec is installed in headquarters. Which action allows branch Cisco IP phones to function with voicemail while using only the G.729 codec over the WAN link to headquarters?
A. Configure Cisco Unified Communications Manager regions.
B. Configure transcoding within Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
C. Configure transcoding resources in Cisco IOS and assign to the MRGL of Cisco IP phones.
D. Configure transcoder resources in the branch Cisco IP phones.
Answer: C

Question No : 2
The Cisco Unified Communications system of a company has five types of devices:
•Cisco Jabber Desktop
•CP-7965
•DX-650
•EX-60
•MX-200
Which two types of devices are affected when an engineer changes the DSCP for Video Calls service parameter? (Choose two.)
A. DX-650
B. Cisco Jabber Desktop
C. CP-7965
D. EX-60
E. MX-200
Answer: A,C

Question No : 3
Refer to the exhibit.
300-075
Which three statements about when user A calls user using SIP are true? (Choose three.)  300-075
A. SIP TCP/TLS ports must be opened from internal to DMZ and vice versa.
B. Deploying a Cisco VCS Expressway behind a NAT mandates the use of the Advanced Networking option key.
C. Cisco VCS Control and Cisco VCS Expressway support static NAT.
D. Deploying a Cisco VCS Control inside a NAT mandates the use of the Advanced Networking option key.
E. RT and RTCP ports must be opened at the firewall from internal to DMZ and vice versa
F. The NAT device must translate from 10.X.X X to 193.1.1.X and vice versa.
Answer: A,B,E

Question No : 4
When configuring Cisco Unified Survivable Remote Site Telephony, which CLI command enables this feature on the router?
A. call-manager-fallback
B. ccm-manager redundant-host
C. ccm-manager sccp local
D. ccm-manager switchback
Answer: A

Question No : 5
Which three commands can be used to verify SRST fallback mode? (Choose three.)
A. show telephony-service all
B. show telephony-service ephone-dn
C. show telephony-service ephone
D. show telephony-service voice-port
E. show telephony-service tftp-bindings
Answer: A,B,C

Question No : 6
What happens when a user logs in using the Cisco Extension Mobility Service on a device for which the user has no user device profile?
A. The Extension Mobility log in fails.
B. The device takes on the default device profile for its type.
C. The user can log in but does not have access to any features, soft key templates, or button templates.
D. The device uses the first device profile assigned to the user in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
Answer: B

Question No : 7
When you use the Query wizard to configure the trace and log central feature to collect install logs, if you have servers in a cluster in a different time zone, which time is used?  300-075
A. TLC adjusts the time change appropriately.
B. TLC uses its local time for all systems.
C. TLC queries for the time zone as part of configuration.
D. TLC produces an error and must be run remotely.
Answer: A

Question No : 8
Which two statements regarding IPv4 Static NAT address 209.165.200.230 has been configured on a VCS Expressway are true? (Choose two.)
A. The Advanced Networking or Dual Network Interfaces option key has been installed.
B. VCS rewrites the Layer 3 source address of outbound SIP and H.323 packets to 209.165.200.230.
C. VCS applies 209.165.200.230 to outbound SIP and H.323 payload messages.
D. With static NAT enabled on the LAN2 interface, VCS applies 209.165.200.230 to outbound H.323 and SIP payload traffic exiting the LAN1 interface.
Answer: A,C

Question No : 9
When using SAF, how do you prevent multiple nodes in a cluster from showing up in the Show Advance section of the SAF Forwarder configuration?
A. Configure the publisher node only in the SAF Forwarder configuration page.
B. Append an @ symbol at the end of the client label value in the SAF Forwarder configuration page.
C. Configure the correct node in the EIGRP configuration of the gateway router that is associated with the Cisco Unified Communications Manager node.
D. Configure the SAF Security Profile Configuration to support only a single node.
Answer: B

Question No : 10
Which two statements about Cisco Unified Communications Manager Extension Mobility are true? (Choose two.)
A. After an autogenerated device profile is created, you can associate it with one or more users.
B. An autogenerated device profiles can be loaded on a device at the same time as a user profile.
C. A device can adopt a user profile even when no user is logged in.
D. A device profile has most of the same attributes as a physical device.
E. Devices can be configured to allow more than one user to be logged in at the same time.
Answer: B,C

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QUESTION 1
For client server failover purposes, the application server team has indicated that they must not have the standard 30 second delay before their switchport enters a forwarding state. For their disaster recovery feature to operate successfully, they require the switchport to enter a forwarding state immediately. Which spanningtree feature satisfies this requirement?
A. Rapid Spanning-Tree
B. Spanning-Tree Timers
C. Spanning-Tree FastPort
D. Spanning-Tree PortFast
E. Spanning-Tree Fast Forward
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
In order to allow immediate transition of the port into forwarding state, enable the STP PortFast feature. PortFast immediately transitions the port into STP forwarding mode upon linkup. The port still participates in STP. So if the port is to be a part of the loop, the port eventually transitions into STP blocking mode.
Example configuration:
Switch-C# configure terminal
Switch-C(config)# interface range fa0/3 – 24
Switch-C(config-if-range)# spanning-tree portfast

QUESTION 2
What does the command vlan dot1q tag native accomplish when configured under global configuration?
A. All frames within the native VLAN are tagged, except when the native VLAN is set to 1.
B. It allows control traffic to pass using the non-default VLAN.
C. It removes the 4-byte dot1q tag from every frame that traverses the trunk interface(s).
D. Control traffic is tagged.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
The “vlan dot1q tag native” will tag all untagged frames, including control 300-115 traffic, with the defined native VLAN.
300-115
QUESTION 3
When you design a switched network using VTPv2, how many VLANs can be used to carry user traffic?
A. 1000
B. 1001
C. 1024
D. 2048
E. 4095
F. 4096
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
VTP versions 1 and 2 Supports normal VLAN numbers (1-1001). Only VTP version 3 supports extended VLANs (1-4095).

QUESTION 4
A network engineer has just deployed a non-Cisco device in the network and wants to get information about it from a connected device. Cisco Discovery Protocol is not supported, so the open standard protocol must be configured. Which protocol does the network engineer configure on both devices to accomplish this?
A. IRDP
B. LLDP
C. NDP
D. LLTD
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
The Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP) is a vendor-neutral link layer protocol in the Internet Protocol Suite used by network devices for advertising their identity, capabilities, and neighbors on an IEEE 802 local area network, principally wired Ethernet. LLDP performs functions similar to several proprietary protocols, such as the Cisco 300-115 Discovery Protocol (CDP).

QUESTION 5
A manager tells the network engineer to permit only certain VLANs across a specific trunk interface. Which option can be configured to accomplish this?
A. allowed VLAN list
B. VTP pruning
C. VACL
D. L2P tunneling
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
When a trunk link is established, all of the configured VLANs are allowed to send and receive traffic across the link. VLANs 1 through 1005 are allowed on each trunk by default. However, VLAN traffic can be removed from the allowed list. This keeps traffic from the VLANs from passing over the trunk link.
Note: The allowed VLAN list on both the ends of the trunk link should be the same. For Integrated Cisco IOS Software based switches, perform these steps:
1.To restrict the traffic that a trunk carries, issue the switchport trunk vlan-list interface configuration command.
This removes specific VLANs from the allowed list.

QUESTION 6
Which statement about the use of SDM templates in a Cisco switch is true?
A. SDM templates are used to configure system resources in the switch to optimize support for specific features, depending on how the switch is used in the network.
B. SDM templates are used to create Layer 3 interfaces (switch virtual interfaces) to permit hosts in one VLAN to communicate with hosts in another VLAN.
C. SDM templates are used to configure ACLs that protect networks and specific hosts from unnecessary or unwanted traffic.
D. SDM templates are used to configure a set of ACLs that allows the users to manage the flow of traffic handled by the route processor.
E. SDM templates are configured by accessing the switch using the web interface.
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
You can use SDM templates to configure system resources in the switch to optimize support for specific features, depending on how the switch is used in the network. You can select a template to provide maximum system usage for some functions; for example, use the default template to balance resources, and use access template to obtain maximum ACL usage. To allocate 300-115 hardware resources for different usages, the switch SDM templates prioritize system resources to optimize support for certain features.

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QUESTION 1
You need to prepare the web servers for a SharePoint installation in the new farm.
Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Save the PrerequisiteInstaller. Arguments file in the same directory as the prerequisite installer.
B. Define the installation arguments in a file named PrerequisiteInstaller. Arguments. txt
C. Install Windows Server 2012 on SERVER02.
D. Define the installation arguments in a file named PrerequisiteInstaller. Arguments. cfg.
E. Save the PrerequisiteInstaller. Arguments file in the SharePoint installation directory.
F. Install Windows Server 2012 on a virtual machine.
Correct Answer: ABF

Explanation:
A, B: Using a text editor, create a new text document named PrerequisiteInstaller. Arguments. txt. Save this file to the same location as PrerequisiteInstaller. exe.
F: From Scenario: All servers must be virtualized unless otherwise specified
Note: From scenario (but applies to the database server, not the web servers): The database servers must be physical machines running Windows Server 2012 with direct access to storage.
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QUESTION 2
You need to configure permissions for App1 administrators. What should you do?
A. Add the adatum. com SharePoint administrators as site collection administrators.
B. Add the fabrikam. com SharePoint administrators to the SharePoint_Shell_Access role.
C. Add the fabrikam. com SharePoint administrators as site collection administrators.
D. Add the adatum. com SharePoint administrators to the SharePoint_Shell_Access role.
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
SharePoint administrators in the fabrikam. com domain must be 70-331 dumps able to administer App1 by using Windows PowerShell.

QUESTION 3
You need to ensure that the web servers can communicate with service applications after you replace the existing farm. What should you do?
A. Configure Windows Firewall to allow traffic on port 1433.
B. Configure the network firewalls to allow traffic on port 32843.
C. Configure Windows Firewall to allow traffic on port 32843.
D. Configure the network firewalls to allow traffic on port 1433.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You need to configure SharePoint for the appropriate protection of merger documents.
What should you do?
A. Configure Information Rights Management.
B. Configure Web Part security.
C. Configure document library permissions.
D. Configure document conversions.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
You need to configure the antivirus application.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents a part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Configure scanning to exclude the %Program Files%\Microsoft SQL Server \MSSQL10_50.SHAREPOINT\ folder.
B. Configure scanning to include the %Program Files%\Microsoft Office Servers\15.0\ folder.
C. Configure scanning to exclude the %Program Files%\Microsoft Office Servers\15.0\ folder.
D. Configure scanning to exclude the %Program Files%\Microsoft Office Servers\14.0\ folder.
E. Configure scanning to include the %Program Files%\Microsoft Office Servers\14.0\ folder.
F. Configure scanning to exclude the %Program Files%\Common Files\Microsoft shared\Web Server Extensions folder.
Correct Answer: CF

Explanation:
From Scenario:
The antivirus application must not scan SharePoint directories.
Folders that may have to be excluded from antivirus scanning in SharePoint SharePoint Foundation 2013
You may have to configure your antivirus software to exclude the following folders and subfolders from antivirus scanning: Drive:\Program Files\Common Files\Microsoft Shared\Web Server Exten- sions.
If you do not want to exclude the whole Web Server Extensions folder from antivirus scanning, you SharePoint Server 2013
You may have to configure the antivirus software to exclude the Drive:\Program Files\Microsoft Office Servers folder from antivirus scanning for SharePoint Server 2013. If you do not want to exclude the whole Microsoft Office Servers folder from antivirus scanning, you can exclude only the following folders:
Drive:\Program Files\Microsoft Office Servers\15.0\Data (This folder is used for the indexing process. If the index files are config- ured to be located in a different folder, you also have to exclude that loca- tion.)
Drive:\Program Files\Microsoft Office Servers\15.0\Logs Drive:\Program Files\Microsoft Office Servers\15.0\Bin Drive:\Program Files\Microsoft Office Servers\15.0\Synchronization Ser- vice Any location in which you decided to store the disk-based binary large ob- ject (BLOB) cache (for example, C:\Blobcache).
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Question No : 1
A company migrates to Office 365. 2,000 active users have valid Office 365 licenses assigned.
An additional 5,000 user accounts were created during the migration and testing processes. These users do not have any licensesassigned.
You need to remove the Office 365 user accounts that do not have any licenses assigned by using the least amount of administrative effort.
Which Windows PowerShell command should you run?
A. Get-MsolUser -All -EnabledFilter “DisabledOnly” | Remove-MsolUser -Force
B. Get-MsolUser-EnabledFilter “DisabledOnly” | Remove-MsolUser -Force
C. Get-MsolUser -All -UnlicensedUsersOnly | Remove-MsolUser -Force
D. Get-MsolUser -UnlicensedUsersOnly | Remove-MsolUser–Force
Answer: C

Question No : 2
Litware Inc. has an Office 365 Enterprise El plan. Employees have access to all Office 365 services.
Employees in the human resources (HR) department must continue to use the on-premises SharePoint 2013 deployment due to legal requirements.
You need to disable access to SharePoint Online for all HR department employees.
How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell commands? To answer, drag the appropriate Windows PowerShell segment to the correct location or locations in the answer area. Each Windows PowerShell segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
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Answer:
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Question No : 3                      70-346 dumps
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company.
You must use Windows PowerShell to manage cloud identities in Office 365. You must use a computer that runs Windows 8 to perform the management tasks.
You need to ensure that the Windows 8 computer has the necessary software installed.
What should you install first?
A. Microsoft Office 365 Best Practices Analyzer for Windows PowerShell
B. Windows PowerShell 4.0
C. Remote Server Administration Tools for Windows
D. Microsoft Online Services Sign-in Assistant
Answer: D

Question No : 4
An organization plans to migrate to Office 365. You use the Windows Azure Active Directory (AD) Sync tool.
Several users will not migrate to Office 365. You must exclude these users from synchronization. All users must continue to authenticate against the on-premises Active Directory.
You need to synchronize the remaining users.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Populate an attribute for each user account.
B. Disable the user accounts in Active Directory.
C. Perform a full synchronization.
D. Configure the connection filter.
E. Run the Windows PowerShell command Set-MsolDirSyncEnabled -EnableDirSync $false.
Answer: B,D,E

Question No : 5
You use a centralized identity management system as a source of authority for user account information. You export a list of new user accounts to a file on a daily basis. Your company uses a local Active Directory for storing user accounts for 70-346 dumps on-premises solutions.
You are configuring the Windows Azure Active Directory Sync tool.
New user accounts must be created in both the local Active Directory and Office 365. You must import user account data into Office 365 daily.
You need to import the new users. What should you do?
A. Use the Office 365 admin center to import the file.
B. Create a Windows PowerShell script to import account data from the file into Active Directory.
C. Use the Windows Azure Management Portal to import the file.
D. Create a Windows PowerShell script that uses the MSOnline module to import account data from the file.
Answer: B

Question No : 6
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company synchronizes the local Active Directory objects with a central identity management system.
The environment has the following characteristics:
Each department has its own organizational unit (OU).
The company has OU hierarchies for partner user accounts.
All user accounts are maintained by the identity management system.
You need to ensure that partner accounts are NOT synchronized with Office 365.
What should you do?
A. Configure OU-based filtering by using the Windows Azure Active Directory Sync tool.
B. In the Windows Azure Active Directory portal, configure OU-based filtering.
C. Configure user attribute-based filtering by using the Windows Azure Active Directory Sync tool.
D. In the Windows Azure Active Directory portal, configure user attribute-based filtering.
Answer: C

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