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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: Cisco Business Value Specialist
Exam Name: Selling Business Outcomes
Exam Code: 810-403
Total Questions: 166 Q&As
810-403 dumps
QUESTION 1
CSFs define what an organization should be good at. Which two options are characteristics of CSFs? (Choose two.)
A. CSFs are quantitative in nature and focus stakeholder relationships
B. CSFs describe an element that is needed by an organization or project to reach its goal
C. CSFs help link business initiatives or processes with selling, designing, developing, and adopting solutions and services
D. CSFs should receive special and continual attention from management in order to help the organization be effective
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
Cisco solutions and services are related to every kind of outcomes. Which is the goal of business outcomes?
A. To enable CXOs or Line of Business leaders to grow revenues, lower operating costs and achieve strategic business objectives
B. To help customers establish new technology or evolve current functionality
C. To help customers operate, manage and optimize technology environment more effectively
D. To take advantage of new technology to increase business relevance
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
According to Cisco and related to customers, which is the one and only outstanding reason and justification for business outcome-based sales approach? 810-403 dumps
A. Executives are interested in satisfying customers’ needs and requirements.
B. Managers and supervisors are committed to close the quality of service gap.
C. Stakeholders are interested in being considered when developing and assessing business outcomes.
D. Customers are interested in solutions and services that result in measurable outcomes.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which two options are part of customer relationship management? (Choose two.)
A. Developing market research.
B. Moving the customer towards positive decisions about IT investments and initiatives
C. Classifying customer segments.
D. Identifying key stakeholders.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
Which four aspects are considered by the Business Model Canvas? (Choose four.)
A. Finances
B. Business structure
C. Sales people
D. Business development teams
E. Business value proposition
F. Strategic Analysis
Correct Answer: ABCE

QUESTION 6
RACI model aids can be used to understand specific aspects of stakeholders’ involvement in businesses.
What does RACI stand for?
A. Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Informed
B. Reconciler, Accountable, Consulted, Independent
C. Responsible, Assertive, Consulted, Informed
D. Reconciler, Assertive, Consulted, Informed
E. Responsible, Accountable, Consulted, Influenced
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
What is ROI?
A. It is defined as the financial benefits derived from services and solutions, and it is expressed as a percentage of dividing present value from a technology solution by the cost of that technology solution.
B. It is defined as the financial benefits derived from services and solutions, and it is expressed as a percentage of dividing total investment from a technology solution by the cost of that technology solution.
C. It is defined as the financial benefits derived from services and solutions, and it is expressed as a percentage of dividing net return from a technology solution by the margin of that technology solution.
D. It is defined as the financial benefits derived from services and solutions, and it is expressed as a percentage of dividing net return from a technology solution by the cost of that technology solution.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which are two reasons customers look for Cisco and its partners’ solutions and services? (Choose two.)
A. to explore how technology innovation yields new revenue and lowers costs
B. to help make a retailer aware of a restocking need while more quickly relying on human interaction
C. to help business more effectively deploy, absorb, and adopt technologies
D. to enable customers to complete marketing research as part of their investment funds
E. to help business reduce the total cost of ownership for IT
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
Which two options does the sales force need to know to ensure business outcome plan is aligned with stakeholders’ needs? 810-403 dumps (Choose two.)
A. The stakeholders’ agenda about the business goals.
B. The stakeholders interest in results which you are seeking to drive.
C. The stakeholders’ chain of command.
D. The stakeholders’ degree of influence and power.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
What should sales professionals do to ensure that business outcomes support what the customer brings to the market?
A. Make a list of the CSFs and KPIs of the organization.
B. Interview the different stakeholders and confirm with them.
C. Understand the customer’s services portfolio.
D. Understand the customer’s value proposition.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Which options are two benefits of understanding the customer’s business model? (Choose two.)
A. Understanding the customer’s business model changes the way you interact with your customer.
B. Understanding the customer’s business model provides control and assessment of project challenges.
C. Understanding the customer’s business model helps track progress through outcomes.
D. Understanding the customer’s business model is used to address the sales force mindset.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 12
In a cloud implementation scenario, what does the sales professional must take into consideration regarding the revenue of a business outcomes selling? 810-403 dumps
A. Revenue from this model could increase in 25%.
B. Revenue from this model is immediate.
C. Revenue from this model is realized over a longer period of time.
D. Revenue from this model is three times bigger than in the traditional product selling.
Correct Answer: C

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA
Exam Name: CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA (v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-125
Total Questions: 966 Q&As
200-125 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which command is necessary to permit SSH or Telnet access to a cisco switch that is otherwise configured for these vty line protocols?
A. transport type all
B. transport output all
C. transport preferred all
D. transport input all
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Three switches are connected to one another via trunk ports. Assuming the default switch configuration, which switch is elected as the root bridge for the spanning-tree instance of VLAN 1?
A. the switch with the highest MAC address
B. the switch with the lowest MAC address
C. the switch with the highest IP address
D. the switch with the lowest IP address
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which three statements about static routing are true? 200-125 dumps (Choose three.)
A. It uses consistent route determination.
B. It is best used for small-scale deployments.
C. Routing is disrupted when links fail.
D. It requires more resources than other routing methods.
E. It is best used for large-scale deployments.
F. Routers can use update messages to reroute when links fail.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 4
Under normal operations, cisco recommends that you configure switch ports on which vlan?
A. on the default vlan
B. on the management vlan
C. on the native vlan
D. on any vlan except the default vlan
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Which two statements about late collisions are true? (Choose two.)
A. They may indicate a duplex mismatch.
B. By definition, they occur after the 512th bit of the frame has been transmitted.
C. They indicate received frames that did not pass the FCS match.
D. They are frames that exceed 1518 bytes.
E. They occur when CRC errors and interference occur on the cable.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. 200-125 dumps
200-125 dumps
Switch port FastEthernet 0/24 on ALSwitch1 will be used to create an IEEE 802.1Q- compliant trunk to another switch. Based on the output shown, what is the reason the trunk does not form, even though the proper cabling has been attached?
A. VLANs have not been created yet.
B. An IP address must be configured for the port.
C. The port is currently configured for access mode.
D. The correct encapsulation type has not been configured.
E. The “no shutdown” command has not been entered for the port.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from OSPF with a metric of 782.
The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4. Which route or routes will the router install in the routing table?
A. the OSPF route
B. the EIGRP route
C. the RIPv2 route
D. all three routes
E. the OSPF and RIPv2 routes
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which command can you enter to display the operational status of the network ports on a router?
A. show interface switchport
B. show ip interface brief
C. show running-config interface fastethernet 0/1
D. show interface status
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
In which three ways is an IPv6 header simpler than an IPv4 header? 200-125 dumps (Choose three.)
A. Unlike IPv4 headers, IPv6 headers have a fixed length.
B. IPv6 uses an extension header instead of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
C. IPv6 headers eliminate the IPv4 Checksum field.
D. IPv6 headers use the Fragment Offset field in place of the IPv4 Fragmentation field.
E. IPv6 headers use a smaller Option field size than IPv4 headers.
F. IPv6 headers use a 4-bit TTL field, and IPv4 headers use an 8-bit TTL field.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 10
What will be the result if the following configuration commands are implemented on a Cisco switch?
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
A. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the startup-configuration file.
B. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the running-configuration file.
C. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the VLAN database.
D. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the startup-configuration file if frames from that address are received.
E. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the running-configuration file if frames from that address are received.
Correct Answer: B

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Vendor: Citrix
Certifications: CCP-V
Exam Name: Deploying Citrix XenDesktop 7.6 Solutions
Exam Code: 1Y0-301
Total Questions: 112 Q&As
1Y0-301 dumps
QUESTION 1
The IT department in an organization manages servers and network devices from an internal management subnet. A NetScaler device has recently been installed into the DMZ network. The intranet firewall allows TCP 443 from the management subnet to the NetScaler device.
How could the engineer ensure that only workstations in the management network are permitted to manage the NetScaler?
A. Create an Extended ACL based on the source IP address.
B. Create a restricted route from the internal network to the DMZ.
C. Enable the management access control option on the NSIP address.
D. Enable the management access control on the internal SNIP address.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
An engineer has three subnets configured on a NetScaler appliance. The engineer must only allow a certain group of users to access a virtual server on the appliance. 1Y0-301 dumps The IT Manager requires that all rules are flexible and can be easily modified for ease of administration.
How could the engineer allow certain groups to access the virtual server while still being able to modify the setting in the future?
A. Add a Simple ACL.
B. Disable USNIP Mode.
C. Create an Extended ACL.
D. Add a Host Route to the virtual server.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
A Citrix Engineer needs to migrate a virtual desktop pool from Machine Creation Services to Provisioning Services. The engineer updates the master image and recreates the virtual desktops by using Provisioning Services.
What should the engineer do next to publish the newly-created virtual desktops?
A. Create a new catalog of the static type and add the new virtual desktops to the catalog.
B. Create a new virtual Delivery Group and add the virtual desktops to the existing catalog.
C. Create a new catalog of the pooled type and add the new virtual desktops to the catalog.
D. Add the new virtual desktops to the existing catalog and change the catalog type to static.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Users have reported that they are receiving a confusing error message related to SSL sessions when connecting from older browsers.
How could the network engineer present this error to users in a customized format?
A. Enable the SSL v2 protocol.
B. Set a URL on the backup virtual server.
C. Add a redirect URL to the virtual server.
D. Configure SSL v2 Redirection for the virtual server.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
A network engineer needs to configure load balancing for an FTP site.
Which type of session persistence method can the engineer select for this scenario?
A. Rule
B. Source IP
C. Cookie Insert
D. Custom Server ID
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
An engineer is configuring services to allow load balancing of backend web servers on the internal network. The engineer bound multiple monitors to the first service, 1Y0-301 dumps but notices that the service is reporting as DOWN. The monitor threshold default has NOT been changed.
What could be causing this issue?
A. The service type is HTTP.
B. One of the monitors’ tests is failing.
C. Some of the monitors have a higher weight.
D. The monitors are both reporting an UP status.
Correct Answer: B
1Y0-301 dumps
QUESTION 7
Example.com runs a dating service site that provides a service with videos of candidates. They want to use RTSP load balancing to stream the videos more effectively.
Which load balancing method should the engineer select?
A. Least packet
B. Round Robin
C. Least bandwidth
D. Least connection
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
A network engineer has configured a load balancing virtual server for an HTTP application. Due to the application architecture, it is imperative that a user’s session remains on a single server during the session. The session has an idle timeout of 60 minutes. Some devices are getting inconsistent application access while most are working fine. The problematic devices all have tighter security controls in place.
Which step should the engineer take to resolve this issue?
A. Set the cookie timeout to 60 minutes.
B. Configure a backup persistence of SourceIP.
C. Change the HTTP parameters to Cookie Version 1.
D. Utilize SSL offload to enable the application to use SSL.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
The network engineer has created a monitor and bound it to a service group containing four web servers to verify that the web application responds. During routine maintenance one of the web servers is shut down; however, the server state remains UP and user requests are still attempting to communicate with the server.
What could be causing this problem?
A. The server has been disabled.
B. The monitor is not bound at the correct bind point.
C. Health monitoring is disabled for the service group.
D. The NetScaler configuration has not been saved since before the monitor was bound.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
An engineer created a new test Web Interface site for the new XenDesktop farm that the IT Department is developing. Several weeks later the engineer finds out that several people across the company have been accessing the new test site. The engineer needs to ensure that only the IT Department subnets can access the test site. 1Y0-301 dumps
How could the engineer restrict access to the site so that only certain subnets can access this resource?
A. Add an Extended ACL to only allow specific subnets to the Web Interface Site.
B. Modify an existing simple ACL to allow specific subnets to the Web Interface Site.
C. Enable USNIP Mode on the appliance to allow specific subnets to the Web Interface Site.
D. Change the Access Method on the Web Interface Site to allow specific subnets to the Web Interface Site.
Correct Answer: A

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[2017 PDF Free Download] Latest Cisco 400-201 Dumps PDF Questions And Answers, Best 400-201 Dumps Youtube Demo

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QUESTION 1
A company is deciding between an HVR and SVR solution in order to finalize a virtualization project proposal. Which is an advantage of a HVR solution versus a SVR solution?
A. A HVR solution implements dedicated data plane resources.
B. A HVR solution implements shared control plane resources.
C. A HVR solution introduces significant contention of resources.
D. A HVR solution implements dedicated chassis resources.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Two routers that are running MPLS and LDP have multiple links that connect then to each other. An engineer wants to ensure that the label bindings are not flushed from the LIB if one of the links fails. 400-201 pdf Which configuration meets this requirement?
A. The mpls ip command on an MPLS TE tunnel.
B. The mpls idp sync command under router process configuration mode.
C. The mpls Idp autoconfig command.
D. The mpls Idp discovery targeted-hello accept command
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Refer to the exhibit. The Service Provider does not have IPv6 support in the core, however it does have MPLS support. Customer requires IPv6 connectivity in all sites including Internet access. 400-201 dumps Without a requirement to create VRF, which method is preferred to support IPv6 traffic between these sites?
400-201 dumps
A. 6VPE
B. H-VPLS
C. L2TPv3
D. VPLS
E. 6CE
F. 6PE
Correct Answer: F

QUESTION 4
Which QoS method is available when GRE is used to provide MPLS VPN services over an IP-only core?
A. matching MPLS EXP on the physical interface
B. matching EXP on the tunnel interface
C. matching DSCP on the physical interface
D. matching DSCP on the tunnel interface
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
In an end-to-end Layer 2 service, which technology provides the capability to detect, verify, isolate, and report faults across a provider network?
A. carrier detect
B. UDLD
C. BFD
D. CFM
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Select two valid administratively scoped multicast addresses in networks running Interior Gateway protocols like EIGRP and OSPF (Choose two). 400-201 dumps
A. 239.255.255.255
B. 224.0.0.10
C. 239.0.0.1
D. 224.0.0.5
Correct Answer: A,C

QUESTION 7
What loop prevention mechanism can be used for ospf type 3 sla in L3VPN?
A. DNbit
B. Pending
C. Pending
D. Pending
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Retaining LDP session if one links fail out of two for two neighbors. 400-201 pdf
A. MPLS LDP targeted-hello accept
B. MPLS LDP sync
C. MPLS IP
D. MPLS LDP autoconfig
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
A service provider requires that the PE-CE link must be optimized by only compressing the TCP header regards to business traffic policy. Neither voice traffic nor other traffic policies must be compressed. Which solution meets these requirements?
A. enhanced RTP header compression
B. class-based TCP header compression
C. RTP header compression over satellite links
D. Header compression using IPHC profiles
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
Which description is true of that the fast-reroute keep all paths command accomplishes when used under OSPF process? 400-201 dumps
A. All possible alternate routes are installed in the OSPF RIB, even if the alternate paths do not meet the LFA criteria (the LFA inequalities)
B. By default, only the /32 routes have a backup path installed. This command creates a backup path for the router with any subnet mask.
C. Besides the regular LFA backup paths, this command also installs the remote LFA backup paths.
D. All backup routes – not only the best backup route are installed in the OSPF RIB.
Correct Answer: D

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[2017 PDF Free Download] Cisco 100-105 Dumps Latest Exam Questions And Answers, High Quality 100-105 Dumps Youtube Free Update

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QUESTION 1
Some routers have been configured with default routes. What are some of the advantages of using default routes? (Choose two)
A. They establish routes that will never go down.
B. They keep routing tables small.
C. They require a great deal of CPU power.
D. They allow connectivity to remote networks that are not in the routing table
E. They direct traffic from the internet into corporate networks.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 2
Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
B. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
C. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
D. block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? 100-105 pdf (Choose two.)
A. There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast.
B. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.
C. Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address.
D. The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.
E. Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.      100-105 dumps
100-105 dumps
HostX is transferring a file to the FTP server. Point A represents the frame as it goes toward the Toronto router. What will the Layer 2 destination address be at this point?
A. abcd.1123.0045
B. 192.168.7.17
C. aabb.5555.2222
D. 192.168.1.1
E. abcd.2246.0035
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 5
The ip helper-address command does what?
A. assigns an IP address to a host
B. resolves an IP address from a DNS server
C. relays a DHCP request across networks
D. resolves an IP address overlapping issue
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
A receiving host has failed to receive all of the segments that it should acknowledge. What can the host do to improve the reliability of this communication session?
A. decrease the window size
B. use a different source port for the session
C. decrease the sequence number
D. obtain a new IP address from the DHCP server
E. start a new session using UDP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which layer of the TCP/IP stack combines the OSI model physical and data link layers? 100-105 pdf
A. Internet layer
B. transport layer
C. application layer
D. network access layer
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
The command ip route 192.168.100.160 255.255.255.224 192.168.10.2 was issued on a router. No routing protocols or other static routes are configured on the router. Which statement is true about this command?
A. The interface with IP address 192.168.10.2 is on this router.
B. The command sets a gateway of last resort for the router.
C. Packets that are destined for host 192.168.100.160 will be sent to 192.168.10.2.
D. The command creates a static route for all IP traffic with the source address 192.168.100.160.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which statements are TRUE regarding Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses? (Choose three.)
A. An IPv6 address is divided into eight 16-bit groups.
B. A double colon (::) can only be used once in a single IPv6 address.
C. IPv6 addresses are 196 bits in length.
D. Leading zeros cannot be omitted in an IPv6 address.
E. Groups with a value of 0 can be represented with a single 0 in IPv6 address.
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 10
What must occur before a workstation can exchange HTTP packets with a web server? 100-105 dumps
A. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
B. A UDP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
C. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
D. A TCP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
E. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and its default gateway.
F. An ICMP connection must be established between the workstation and the web server.
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following statements is correct about how the FortiGate unit verifies username and password during user authentication? NSE4 pdf
A. If a remote server is included in a user group, it will be checked before local accounts.
B. An administrator can define a local account for which the password must be verified by querying a remote server.
C. If authentication fails with a local password, the FortiGate unit will query the authentication server if the local user is configured with both a local password and an authentication server.
D. The FortiGate unit will only attempt to authenti ate against Action Directory if Fortinet Server Authentication Extensions are installed and configured.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
What advantages are there in using a hub-and-spoke IPSec VPN configuration instead of a fully-meshed set of IPSec tunnels? (Select all that apply.)
A. Using a hub and spoke topology is required to achieve full redundancy.
B. Using a hub and spoke topology simplifies configuration because fewer tunnels are required.
C. Using a hub and spoke topology provides stronger encryption.
D. The routing at a spoke is simpler, compared to a meshed node.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the FortiGuard Services Web Filtering Override configuration as illustrated in the exhibit?      NSE4 dumps
NSE4 dumps
A. Any client on the same subnet as the authenticated user is allowed to access www.yahoo.com/images/.
B. A client with an IP of address 10.10.10.12 is allowed access to any subdirectory that is part of the www.yahoo.com web site.
C. A client with an IP address of 10.10.10.12 is allowed access to the www.yahoo.com/images/ web site and any of its offsite URLs.
D. A client with an IP address of 10.10.10.12 is allowed access to any URL under the www.yahoo.com web site, including any subdirectory URLs, until August 7, 2009.
E. Any client on the same subnet as the authenticated user is allowed to access www.yahoo.com/images/until August 7, 2009.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which of the following statements are correct about the HA diag command diagnose sys ha reset-uptime?(Select all that apply.)
A. The device this command is executed on is likely to switch from master to slave status if master override is disabled.
B. The device this command is executed on is likely to switch from master to slave status if master override is enabled.
C. This command has no impact on the HA algorithm.
D. This command resets the uptime variable used in the HA algorithm so it may cause a new master to become elected.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 5
When the SSL proxy inspects the server certificate for Web Filtering only in SSL Handshake mode, which certificate field is being used to determine the site rating? NSE4 dumps
A. Common Name
B. Organization
C. OrganizationalUnit
D. Serial Number
E. Validity
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which of the following statements is correct regarding the NAC Quarantine feature?
A. With NAC quarantine, files can be quarantined not only as a result of antivirus scanning, but also for other forms of content inspection such as IPS and DLP.
B. NAC quarantine does a client check on workstations before they are permitted to have administrative access to FortiGate.
C. NAC quarantine allows administrators to isolate clients whose network activity poses a security risk.
D. If you chose the quarantine action, you must decide whether the quarantine type is NAC quarantine or File quarantine.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which of the following Session TTL values will take precedence? NSE4 pdf
A. Session TTL specified at the system level for that port number
B. Session TTL specified in the matching firewall policy
C. Session TTL dictated by the application control list associated with the matching firewall policy
D. The default session TTL specified at the system level
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is an advantage of using SNMP v3 instead of SNMP v1/v2 when querying the FortiGate unit?
A. Packetencryption
B. MIB-based report uploads
C. SNMP access limits through access lists
D. Running SNMP service on a non-standard port is possible
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
The FortiGate unit can be configured to allow authentication to a RADIUS server. The RADIUS server can use several different authentication protocols during the authentication process. Which of the following are valid authentication protocols that can be used when a user authenticates to the RADIUS server? (Select all that apply.)
A. MS-CHAP-V2 (Microsoft Challenge-Handshake Authentication Protocol v2)
B. PAP (Password Authentication Protocol)
C. CHAP (Challenge-Handshake Authentication Protocol)
D. MS-CHAP (Microsoft Challenge-Handshake Authentication Protocol v1)
E. FAP (FortiGate Authentication Protocol)
Correct Answer: ABCD

QUESTION 10
Which of the following statements is not correct regarding virtual domains (VDOMs)? NSE4 dumps
A. VDOMs divide a single FortiGate unit into two or more virtual units that function as multiple, independent units.
B. A management VDOM handles SNMP, logging, alert email, and FDN-based updates.
C. A backup management VDOM will synchronize the configuration from an active management VDOM.
D. VDOMs share firmware versions, as well as antivirus and IPS databases.
E. Only administrative users with a super_admin profile will be able to enter all VDOMs to make configuration changes.
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
Refer to the following configuration command.
router(config)# ip nat inside source static tcp 172.16.10.8 8080 172.16.10.8 80
Which statement about the command is true?
A. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP port address of 172.16.10.8:80 is translated to 172.16.10.8:8080.
B. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP port address of 172.16.10.8:8080 is translated to 172.16.10.8:80.
C. The router accepts only a TCP connection from port 8080 and port 80 on IP address 172.16.10.8
D. Any packet that is received in the inside interface with a source IP address of 172.16.10.8 is redirected to port 8080 or port 80.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which option is one way to mitigate symmetric routing on an active/active firewall setup for TCP-based connections? 300-101 pdf
A. performing packet captures
B. disabling asr-group commands on interfaces that are likely to receive asymetric traffic
C. replacing them with redundant routers and allowing load balancing
D. disabling stateful TCP checks
Correct Answer: D
300-101 dumps
QUESTION 3                    300-101 dumps
Which option is invalid when configuring Unicast Reverse Path Forwarding?
A. allow self ping to router
B. allow default route
C. allow based on ACL match
D. source reachable via both
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which traffic characteristic is the reason that UDP traffic that carries voice and video is assigned to the queue only on a link that is at least 768 kbps?
A. typically is not fragmented
B. typically is fragmented
C. causes windowing
D. causes excessive delays for video traffic
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
What type of IPv6 packet will indicate traffic from single host and single node?
A. multicast
B. unicast
C. broadcast
D. anycast
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
A network engineer receives reports about poor voice quality issues at a remote site. The network engineer does a packet capture and sees out-of-order packets being delivered. Which option can cause the VOIP quality to suffer? 300-101 dumps
A. traffic over backup redundant links
B. misconfigured voice vlan
C. speed duplex link issues
D. load balancing over redundant links
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which three IP SLA performance metrics can you use to monitor enterprise-class networks? (Choose three.)
A. Packet loss
B. Delay
C. bandwidth
D. Connectivity
E. Reliability
F. traps
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 8
A network engineer is configuring the router for NetFlow data exporting. What is required in order for NDE to begin exporting data?
A. Source
B. Flow mask
C. Destination
D. Interface type
E. Traffic type
F. NetFlow version
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which statement is true about IPv6? 300-101 pdf
A. Only one IPv6 address is assigned per node
B. Only one IPv6 address can be assigned to each interface.
C. Each host can autoconfigure its address without the aid of a DHCP server.
D. IPv6 hosts use anycast addresses to assign IP addresses to interfaces
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
How is authentication handled with OSPFv3?
A. OSPFv3 for IPv6 authentication is supported by SHA-1 authentication.
B. OSPFv3 for IPv6 authentication is supported by MD5 authentication
C. OSPFv3 for IPv6 authentication is supported by IPv6 IPsec
D. OSPFv3 for IPv6 authentication is supported by IPv4 IPsec
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
You have implemented mutual route redistribution between OSPF and EIGRP on a border router. When checking the routing table on one of the OSPF routers within the OSPF routing domain, you are seeing some, but not all of the expected routes. Which two things should you verify to troubleshoot this problem? (Choose two.)
A. The border router is using a proper seed metric for OSPF.
B. The border router is using a proper seed metric for EIGRP.
C. The administrative distance is set for OSPF and EIGRP
D. The missing EIGRP routes are present in the routing table of the border router
E. The subnet keyword on the border router in the redistribute EIGRP command
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Your company uses Voice over IP (VoIP). The system sends UDP datagrams containing the voice data between communicating hosts. 300-101 dumps When areas of the network become busy, some of the datagrams arrive at their destination out of order. What happens when this occurs?
A. UDP will send an ICMP Information request message to the source host.
B. UDP will pass the information in the datagrams up to the next OSI layer in the order in which they arrive.
C. UDP will drop the datagrams that arrive out of order.
D. UDP will use the sequence numbers in the datagram headers to reassemble the data into the …
Correct Answer: B

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Question No : 1
EIGRP is being used as the routing protocol on the Company network. While troubleshooting some network connectivity issues, you notice a large number of EIGRP SIA (Stuck in Active) messages. What causes these SIA routes? (Select two)
A. The neighboring router stops receiving ACK packets from this router.
B. The neighboring router starts receiving route updates from this router.
C. The neighboring router is too busy to answer the query (generally caused by high CPU utilization).
D. The neighboring router is having memory problems and cannot allocate the memory to process the query or build the reply packet.
Answer: C,D

Question No : 2
What is the result of configuring the logging console warning command? 300-135 pdf
A. Messages with a severity level of 4 and higher will be logged to all available TTY lines.
B. Only warning messages will be logged on the console.
C. Warning, error, critical, and informational messages will be logged on the console.
D. Warning, critical, alert, and emergency messages will be logged on the console.
E. The logging console warning command needs to be followed in the configuration with logging buffered byte size to specify the message buffer size for the console.
Answer: D

Question No : 3
A customer network engineer has made configuration changes that have resulted in some loss of connectivity. You have been called in to evaluate a switch network and suggest resolutions to the problems. 300-135 dumps
300-135 dumps
PC2 in VLAN 200 is unable to ping the gateway address 172.16.200.1; identify the issue.
A. VTP domain name mismatch on SW4
B. VLAN 200 not configured on SW1
C. VLAN 200 not configured on SW2
D. VLAN 200 not configured on SW4
Correct Answer: C

Question No : 4
Which three management categories are contained in the FCAPS network maintenance model? (Choose three.)
A. Config
B. Fault
C. Storage
D. Accounting
E. Redundancy
F. Telecommunications
Answer: A,B,D

Question No : 5
The following command is issued on a Cisco Router:
Router(configuration)#logging console warnings
Which alerts will be seen on the console?
A. Warnings only
B. debugging, informational, notifications, warnings
C. warnings, errors, critical, alerts, emergencies
D. notifications, warnings, errors
E. warnings, errors, critical, alerts
Answer: C

Question No : 6
What level of logging is enabled on a Router where the following logs are seen? 300-135 pdf
%LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/1, changed state to up
%LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/1, changed
state to up
A. alerts
B. critical
C. errors
D. notifications
Answer: D

Question No : 7
You want to enhance the security within the Company LAN and prevent VLAN hopping. What two steps can be taken to help prevent this? (Select two) 300-135 dumps
A. Enable BPD guard
B. Disable CDP on ports where it is not necessary
C. Place unused ports in a common unrouted VLAN
D. Prevent automatic trunk configuration
E. Implement port security
Answer: C,D

Question No : 8
Refer to the shown below.
%LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface Serial0/0, changed state to up
%LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface Serial0/0, changed state to up
What statement is correct regarding the output shown in the graphic?
A. These two log messages will not have a severity level. They are not errors but are just informational messages.
B. The first log message is categorized as a warning message.
C. These messages regarding interface status are normal output and will always be displayed when you exit config mode.
D. The first log message is an error message with a severity level of 3.
E. The second message would be shown if the logging console warning command had been issued.
Answer: D

Question No : 9
Which statement is true about an IPsec/GRE tunnel?
A. The GRE tunnel source and destination addresses are specified within the IPsec transform set.
B. An IPsec/GRE tunnel must use IPsec tunnel mode.
C. GRE encapsulation occurs before the IPsec encryption process.
D. Crypto map ACL is not needed to match which traffic will be protected.
Answer: C

Question No : 10
Which two statements about the Cisco Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) are true? (Select two) 300-135 pdf
A. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) profile manager feature can create and manage only one profile for the wireless client adapter.
B. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can support only one wireless client adapter installed and used at a time.
C. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) can be used to establish the association between the client adapter and the access point, manage authentication to the wireless network, and enable encryption.
D. The Aironet Desktop Utility (ADU) and the Microsoft Wireless Configuration Manager can be used at the same time to configure the wireless client adapter.
Answer: B,C

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QUESTION 1
Why the root file system is mounted read-only during boot and remounted with write permission later on?
A. Because if problems with the root file system are detected during the boot, fsck can be run, without risk of damage.
B. Becausethiswaycrackerscannotcollectinformationaboutrootwithbootsniffers
C. To avoid writing to the disk, unless the root password is known.
D. To avoid other operating systems overwriting the Linux root partition
E. Because the disk has its own write protection that cannot change by the operating system.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A DNS server has the IP address 192.168.0.1. 117-201 pdf Which TWO of the following need to be done on a client machine to use this DNS server?
A. Add nameserver 192.168.0.1 to /etc/resolv.conf
B. Run route add nameserver 192.168.0.1
C. Run ifconfig eth0 nameserver 192.168.0.1
D. Ensure that the dns service is listed in the hosts entry in the /etc/nsswitch.conf file
E. Run bind add nameserver 192.168.0.1
Correct Answer: AD
117-201 dumps
QUESTION 3     117-201 dumps
After unpacking the source code for a Linux kernel, what is the first make command that should be run which will delete any current configuration and all generated files? This command will ensure that no inappropriate files were left in the kernel archive by the maintainer.
A. make depend
B. make distclean
C. make config
D. make clean
E. makemrproper
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You have finished updating and resolving dependencies for some source code. 117-201 pdf What command should you run before recompiling the code into binary form?
A. make clean
B. make all
C. make dep
D. make install
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Which hdparm command-line options will set an IDE hard disk to use both DMA and 32-bit I/O support?
A. -p 1 -A 1
B. -f -g
C. -L 1 -i 1
D. -d 1 -c 1
E. -L 1 -i 32
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
The swap usage on a system needs to be checked. Which TWO commands can be used to display a swap usage summary? 117-201 dumps
A. swapconfig
B. cat /proc/swaps
C. swapon -s
D. swapshow
E. cat /etc/fstab
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 7
Which of the following commands should be used in a bash script that needs a variable containing the IP address of the eth0 interface? The output for the command ifconfig eth0 is shown below:
eth0 Link encap:Ethernet HWaddr 00:0C:29:CB:FA:30
inetaddr:192.168.246.llBcast:192.168.246.255Mask:255.255.255.0UPBROADCAST UNNING
MULTICAST MTU:1500 Metric:l
RX packets:4721 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0 frame:0 TX packets:3216 errors:0 dropped:0 overruns:0
carrier:0 collisions:0 txqueuelen:1000
RX bytes:445184 (434.7 Kb) TX bytes:512968 (500.9 Kb) Interrupt:l85 Base address:0x1080
A. IP=LANG= ifconfig eth0 I awk ‘{ print $2 }’ I cut -f2
B. IP=LANG= ifconfig eth0 I grep inet I cut -d: -f2 I awk { print $l }
C. IP=LANG= ifconfig eth0 I awk ‘{ print $3 }’
D. IP=$(LANG= ifconfig eth0 I grep inet I awk ‘{ print $2 }’ I cut -d: -f2)
E. IP=$(LANG= ifconfig eth0 I grep inet I cut -d: -f2)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
If the current directory is /root and the kernel source is located in /usr/src/linux, 117-201 pdf which of the following commands should be used to apply the patch /tmp/foopatch?
A. cat /tmp/foopatch I patch -p0
B. cd/usr/src/linux;cat/tmp/foopatchIpatch-p0
C. cd/usr/src/linux; cat/tmp/foopatch I patch
D. cd/usr/src/linux;patch-pl/tmp/foopatch
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
What command must be used to create an ext3 filesystem?
A. mke2fs
B. mkext2fs
C. mke3fs
D. mkext3fs
E. mkjfs
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
What command can be used on an existing (formatted) partition, to configure the interval between disk checks when mounting partitions? 117-201 dumps
A. mke2fs
B. e2fsck
C. e2fsckconfig
D. config2fs
E. tune2fs
Correct Answer: E

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QUESTION 1
Which statement about Cisco ASA multicast routing support is true?
A. The Cisco ASA appliance supports PIM dense mode, sparse mode, and BIDIR-PIM.
B. The Cisco ASA appliance supports only stub multicast routing by forwarding IGMP messages from multicastreceivers to the upstream multicast router.
C. The Cisco ASA appliance supports DVMRP and PIM.
D. The Cisco ASA appliance supports either stub multicast routing or PIM, but both cannot be enabled at thesame time.
E. The Cisco ASA appliance supports only IGMP v1.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Enabling what security mechanism can prevent an attacker from 300-206 pdf gaining network topology information from CDP via a man-in-the-middle attack?
A. MACsec
B. Flex VPN
C. Control Plane Protection
D. Dynamic Arp Inspection
Correct Answer: A
300-206 dumps
QUESTION 3           300-206 dumps
On an ASA running version 9.0, which command is used to nest objects in a pre-existing group?
A. object-group
B. network group-object
C. object-group network
D. group-object
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which two features are supported when configuring clustering of multiple Cisco ASA appliances? (Choose two.)
A. NAT
B. dynamic routing
C. SSL remote access VPN
D. IPSec remote access VPN
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 5
Which command configures the SNMP server group1 to enable authentication for members of the access list east? 300-206 pdf
A. snmp-server group group1 v3 auth access east
B. snmp-server group1 v3 auth access east
C. snmp-server group group1 v3 east
D. snmp-server group1 v3 east access
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which Cisco product provides a GUI-based device management tool to configure Cisco access routers?
A. Cisco ASDM
B. Cisco CP Express
C. Cisco ASA 5500
D. Cisco CP
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
When configured in accordance to Cisco best practices, the ip verify source command can mitigate which two types of Layer 2 attacks? (Choose two.)
A. rogue DHCP servers
B. ARP attacks
C. DHCP starvation
D. MAC spoofing
E. CAM attacks
F. IP spoofing
Correct Answer: DF

QUESTION 8
A network administrator is creating an ASA-CX administrative user account with the following parameters:
-The user will be responsible for configuring security policies on networkdevices. 300-206 dumps
-The user needs read-write access to policies.
-The account has no more rights than necessary for the job.
What role will be assigned to the user?
A. Administrator
B. Security administrator
C. System administrator
D. Root Administrator
E. Exec administrator
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which command is used to nest objects in a pre-existing group?
A. object-group
B. network group-object
C. object-group network
D. group-object
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which action is considered a best practice for the Cisco ASA firewall? 300-206 dumps
A. Use threat detection to determine attacks
B. Disable the enable password
C. Disable console logging
D. Enable ICMP permit to monitor the Cisco ASA interfaces
E. Enable logging debug-trace to send debugs to the syslog server
Correct Answer: A

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