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200-310 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which three solutions are part of the Borderless Network Services? (Choose three.)
A. Wireless
B. Routing
C. TrustSec
D. MediaNet
E. Swicthing
F. EnergyWise
G. Next-Gen WAN
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 2
Which option cause deep-packet examination to determine the specific nature of an attack?
A. Network IPS
B. Netflow collector
C. Stateful firewall
D. Syslog server
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
What is a characteristic of campus core design?
A. Fast transport
B. Security
C. Summarization
D. Redistribution
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
A company has dark fiber between headquarters and its data center. It is presently configured as a 10GbE connection.
Network utilization shows high utilization on the connection. What technology can be implemented to increase capacity without acquiring another circuit?
A. MPLS
B. DWDM
C. VPLS
D. DMVPN
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which two Cisco data center can participate in Cisco FabricPath? 200-310 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switches
B. Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches
C. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches
D. Cisco Nexus 4900 Series Switches
E. Cisco MDS 9500 Series Multilayer Directors
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6
An application uses broadcast traffic to send data to IPv4 hosts. How can the application communicate using IPv6?
A. Anycast
B. Unicast
C. Broadcast
D. Multicast
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
When considering the three VoIP design models – single site, centralized multisite, and distributed multisite – which question would help to eliminate one of the options?
A. Will the witches be required to provide inline power?
B. Will users need to make offsite calls, beyond the enterprise?
C. Will users require applications such as voice mail and interactive voice response?
D. Are there users whose only enterprise access is via a QoS-enabled WAN?
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
A network engineer is following the Cisco Enterprise Architecture model. To which network layer would a branch office connect to using a private VLAN?
A. Enterprise Campus
B. Enterprise Edge
C. SP Edge Premise
D. Remote Module
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Application servers require load balancing and security services. Where in the data center network should these services be provisioned?
A. Core
B. Aggregation
C. Layer 3 access
D. Distribution
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
A network design engineer is seeking a dynamic routing protocol that supports fast convergence in a Cisco environment.
What protocol allows for this?
A. EIGRP
B. OSPF
C. RIP
D. BGP
E. IS-IS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Why would an engineer implement variable length subnet masks?
A. To make a subnet public
B. To prevent wasting IP addresses
C. To make a subnet its own VLAN
D. To expand an existing subnet
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
The red lines refer to STP blocked ports. What happens if the HSRP active moves to the right distribution, and the STP root remains on the left distribution? 200-310 dumps
A. The STP root becomes the gateway
B. The interdistribution link is used for transit
C. The HSRP standby becomes the gateway
D. The interaccess link is used for transit
E. Host traffic is unable to reach the HSRP active
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
In the traditional hierarchical LAN design,Which two statement about the distribution layer are true? (Choose two.)
A. It typically is connected directly to the internet It provides users direct access to the network
B. It uses Layer 2 switching only
C. It aggregates data from the access layer
D. Policy is implemented at this layer
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
What three design requirements are key to design a Campus Core?
A. Low latency
B. Access control
C. Traffic filtering
D. High speed
E. Redundant links
F. QoS tagging
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 15
When designing the threat detection and mitigation portion for the enterprise data center network, which of the following would be the most appropriate solution to consider?
A. 802.1x
B. ACL in the Core layer
C. Cisco Security MARS
D. Cisco Firewall Services Module
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
A network engineer has been asked to follow a top down design approach. Which layer of the OSI model is used to start the design?
A. Physical
B. Network
C. Transport
D. Application
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
Which two design approaches provide management of Enterprise Network devices? (Choose two.)
A. In-band
B. Out-of-line
C. Out-of-band
D. In-line
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 18
Which two design decision can improve network resiliency? (you have to chose 2 answers)
A. Implement redundant link
B. Increase data plane bandwidth
C. Implement serial device connection
D. Reduce network size
E. Implement redundant topology
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 19
In which phase of PPDIOO are the network requirements identified? 200-310 dumps
A. Design
B. Plan
C. Prepare
D. Implement
E. Operate
F. Optimize
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
What IPv4 addressing technique is used for proper address planning to reduce the number of entries in a routing table?
A. Filtering
B. Tunneling
C. Summarization
D. Translation
E. Supernetting
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 21
If two routing protocols have the same route and prefix, which effect do thery have on the routing table?
A. Only the route with the lowest administrative distance is added
B. Only the route with the highest administrative distance is added
C. Both routes are added
D. Neither route is added, and a loop is formed
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 22
Which three are associated with the distribution layer within the campus design? (Choose three.)
A. Access layer aggregation
B. Route summarization
C. Network trust boundary
D. Next-hop redundancy
E. Layer-2 switching
F. Port security
G. Broadcast suppression
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 23
What network virtualization technology can be leveraged within the data center to reduce the number of physical devices?
A. VLANs
B. VPLS
C. VDC
D. VSS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
What three customer supported details identifies network requirements based on the PPDIOO design model? 200-310 dumps (Choose three.)
A. Goals
B. Budget
C. User needs
D. Locations
E. Policies
F. Tasks
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 25
DataQuirk is a web-based medical transcription company for exotic-animal veterinarians. The company recently added a third ISP for international business. They are organizing the enterprise network into a fully operational Enterprise Edge.
To which two modules will the three ISPs be directly related? (Choose two.)
A. PSTN
B. E-Commerce
C. WAN/MAN
D. Edge Distribution
E. Internet Connectivity
F. Remote Access VPN
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 26
Which two methods are used to reduce the mesh links required between iBGP peers in the same AS? (Choose two.)
A. Community
B. Router reflectors
C. Local preferences
D. Confederations
E. Atomic Aggregate
F. MED
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 27
Which three sources does a network designer use to collect information for characterizing an existing network? (Choose three.)
A. Staff input
B. Visual inventory
C. Network audit
D. Traffic analysis
E. Server statistics
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 28
Which command is correct for creating a virtual interface on Cisco wireless controller?
A. config create interface
B. tag interface
C. config interface address
D. untag interface
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 29
Which statement describes an advantage of the Layer 2 access model over the Layer 3 access model in the data center?
A. It enables NIC teaming
B. It removes STP dependency
C. It increases scalability
D. It decreases convergence
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
What two configurations are Cisco recommended best practices for user access interfaces? (Choose two.)
A. VTP transparent mode
B. BPDU guard
C. Root Guard
D. Portfast
E. Trunk mode
Correct Answer: BD

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Cisco (CSCO) Quantified Score Limit Ratings

Cisco Systems Inc. (NASDAQ: CSCO) is one of 72 companies in the GICS communications equipment group, which in turn is part of the 703 companies’ GICS information technology industry. CSCO’s market capitalization of 189.1 billion US dollars, belonging to the highest one-tenth of the industrial group.

The current rankings for the portfolio are CSCO, ranked 27th out of 72 companies in the industry and 42nd out of 703 companies in the sector, ranking No. 2,441 in the portfolio average of nearly 5,000 companies.

Portfolio graders currently CSCO rated as suspended. The basic and quantitative methodologies used in this stock assessment tool developed by Louis Navellier study and rank around 5,000 stocks each week. CSCO maintained this position last month.
Cisco
Portfolio graders currently rank fourth in the world’s 12 industries for the information technology industry, ranking second in all GICS quarters. Communications Equipment Industry Group ranked 56 in 69 industry groups in the GICS industry, well below average for the Navellier scoring system.

Four of the eight basic areas that CSCO analyzed in the portfolio rating agencies received above-average scores, with an average or below average in the four areas evaluated in the company’s stock rankings.

CSCO’s business results mixed, sales growth and earnings growth rank below average, operating profit margin above average. Profitability visibility was mixed, earnings surprise rankings and earnings corrections were below average, while earnings momentum scores were above average. CSCO’s return on equity and cash flow significantly better than the industry average. These basic points give Cisco leadership in the first half of the industry group.

Zain Group and Cisco announced that the former is leveraging the latter’s advanced network routing and WAN automation to bring the benefits of distributed intelligence and centralized control to its network.
Cisco
Under the agreement, Cisco said it will provide Zain Group with next-generation networking capabilities that include simplified operations, programmability, scalability, and additional network availability. This release marks the general trend of network automation and flexibility. Cisco also said it will help Zain Group optimize network operations and provide a full range of differentiated services.

Navellier’s proprietary quantitative scores are used by portfolio graders to measure CSCO’s stock from a risk / reward point of view. This unique scoring method takes into account the relative value of a company’s shares based on the current price of the shares relative to their peers, the markets and risks associated with the industry and industry organizations. Using this risk / return calculation, CSCO currently has a higher average score in its industry than its peers.

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[2017 PDF Free Download] Cisco CCNP Wireless 300-360 Dumps Exam Training Materials Free Update

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300-360 dumps
QUESTION 1
An engineer is tuning RRM parameters to improve client connectivity. Which channel band results in the best 802.11n client compatibility?
A. UNII-2
B. UNII-2e
C. UNII-3
D. UNII
E. UNII-1
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 2
An engineer is installing a wireless network in an industrial area with extreme temperatures and a significant amount of dust. Which enclosure should be used to protect the APs?
A. ACU
B. ADU
C. NEMA
D. WLSE
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What are two advantages of conducting an active survey versus a passive survey when verifying RF coverage? (Choose two.)
A. verifies packet loss
B. verifies roaming
C. verifies SNR
D. verifies signal level
E. verifies interferers
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4
An engineer is deploying an outdoor Mesh network. Which four major factors should be considered? 300-360 dumps (Choose four.)
A. power
B. buildings
C. traffic lights
D. satellite dishes
E. line of sight
F. network connectivity
G. power lines
H. mounting
Correct Answer: AEHF

QUESTION 5
A customer has deployed an N+N redundant wireless infrastructure. In this deployment the access points have been salt and peppered between controllers.
What configuration would be necessary to cut down on the use of mobility tunnels for voice clients?
A. mobility anchor
B. KIS based CAC
C. media session snooping
D. re-anchor roamed voice clients
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which two steps are associated with the active portion of the audit when a post-installation audit is performed with an auditing tool such as Ekahau? (Choose two.)
A. Check for co-channel interference by standing near an access point on one channel and watching for other access points that are on the same channel.
B. Verify smooth roaming.
C. Check to see if the signal level on other access points that are heard on the same channel is at least 19dBm weaker than the access point that you are next to.
D. Check that all channels are supported by the APs regardless of client capabilities.
E. Verify that the network traffic of physical data rate and packet loss meets user requirements.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
300-360 dumps
While testing the post-deployment WLAN network you discover that an AP has been placed in a difficult area. The AP cannot be moved easily because of various requirements. 300-360 dumps The client performance of various Apple and Microsoft operating system-based products does not meet expectations.
Which two options can help mitigate the performance issue? (Choose two.)
A. Add additional APs.
B. Increase the AP power level to maximum.
C. Rotate the AP 90 degrees to change antenna polarity.
D. Replace the AP with an AP and external antenna.
E. Change the AP location to one that is less RF hostile.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 8
An engineer would like to calibrate the RF environment to improve accuracy.
Which wireless attribute is added to the foor-level calculation by calibrating the foor?
A. attenuation
B. TX power
C. multipath
D. SNR
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
An engineer is performing a predictive wireless design for a Parts Distribution Center which requires data and location services. Which three requirements are inputs to the design? (Choose three.)
A. access points with directional antennas
B. continuous -67 dBm coverage from one access point
C. overlapping -75 dBm coverage from three access points
D. overlapping -67 dBm coverage from two access points
E. access points in IPS mode
F. continuous -72 dBm coverage from one access point
G. accesspointsincornersandalongperimeters
Correct Answer: BCG

QUESTION 10
A customer is deploying a Greenfield 802.11ac network on a foor that will support approximately 300 wireless devices.
Which setting needs to be changed on Prime Infrastructure Planning Tool in order to predict the amount of access points the customer needs to service the new foor?
A. Data Coverage Support Margin
B. Demand Settings
C. Add AP Field
D. 802.11n Protocol Support
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which two options describe best practices that must be completed after a wireless installation is finished? 300-360 dumps (Choose two.)
A. Make sure that there are no spaces between the devices on the rack that the Wireless Lan Controller isinstalled.
B. Consult with the customer to ensure that the IT staff has a complete set of design and installationdocuments.
C. Make sure the customer is aware that they should consider purchasing a support contract immediately afterthe installationis complete.
D. Spend time with the customer to show them the controller GUI and inform them how they can reach the Cisco TAC if they have any problems.
E. Test all the customer’s wireless devices and applications to ensure they are working properly.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 12
An engineer is preparing for an outdoor wireless survey to mesh connect a distant remote building to a connected building.
Which two types of antennas are appropriate for this application? (Choose two.)
A. circular polarized
B. patch
C. dish
D. Yagi
E. omni
Correct Answer: CD

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Vendor: CompTIA
Certifications: CompTIA Cloud Essentials
Exam Name: CompTIA Cloud Essentials Exam
Exam Code: CLO-001
Total Questions: 230 Q&As
CLO-001 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which of the following is a business reason for IT outsourcing and cloud computing?
A. Improving cost structure
B. Improving customer satisfaction
C. Increasing control over IT systems
D. Decrease of security issues
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
How can the internal IT department successfully react to cloud computing?
A. By becoming an external cloud provider
B. By becoming an internal cloud provider
C. By outsourcing all IT services
D. By solely focusing on security issues
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Why does hardware and operating system maintenance take less effort with SaaS?
A. Maintenance becomes irrelevant
B. Cloud provider takes care of it
C. Hardware vendor takes care of it
D. Operating system vendor takes care of it
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which of the following is an important skill for an organization wanting to adopt an IaaS strategy? CLO-001 dumps
A. Visualization technology
B. Application service procurement
C. Customer relations
D. Security and risk management
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
How do demand management processes change with the introduction of SaaS?
A. New vendors have to be accommodated
B. Users can procure SaaS solutions themselves
C. The number of virtual machines can fluctuate with demand
D. Maintenance will become easier
Correct Answer: B
CLO-001 dumps
QUESTION 6
Why do management tools introduce a risk?
A. The management tools present a vendor lock-in
B. The management tools are indispensible above a specific scale of operation
C. The migration may not be successful
D. Too many software licenses are needed
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which of the following is an example of a cloud-related security risk?
A. Losing network connectivity
B. Not having enough software licenses
C. Not knowing what the cloud provider will charge
D. Storing customer data at a provider
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which of the following is a unique characteristic of virtualization?
A. Security features
B. Federated identities
C. Shared hardware
D. Sourcing challenges
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which of the following describes the amount of data that can be sent across a link in a given time?
A. Network bandwidth
B. Network QoS
C. Network latency
D. Network speed
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
CLO-001 dumps How can an organization successfully implement a PaaS strategy?
A. Open up internal databases with Web service access.
B. Take inventory of the application portfolio and select external suppliers
C. Standardize on a limited set of virtual machines.
D. Continuously execute performance analytics to monitor providers
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which of the following is the MOST complex security provisioning problem in a cloud environment?
A. Handling credit cards for purchasing cloud services
B. Keeping track of cloud provider performance
C. Managing users and their rights across multiple providers
D. Software assets that are introduced and can expire
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which of the following applications is MOST suitable for a cloud computing pilot?
A. Applications that are currently expensive to maintain because of interconnections
B. Applications that are easy to migrate and have some business value
C. Applications with high risk and little business value
D. Legacy applications that are coupled to specific hardware and systems software
Correct Answer: B

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Security
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Network Security
Exam Code: 210-260
Total Questions: 310 Q&As
lead4pass 210-260 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which feature of the Cisco Email Security Appliance can mitigate the impact of snowshoe spam and sophisticated phishing attacks?
A. contextual analysis
B. holistic understanding of threats
C. graymail management and filtering
D. signature-based IPS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
When a company puts a security policy in place, what is the effect on the company’s business?
A. Minimizing risk
B. Minimizing total cost of ownership
C. Minimizing liability
D. Maximizing compliance
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which EAP method uses Protected Access Credentials?
A. EAP-FAST
B. EAP-TLS
C. EAP-PEAP
D. EAP-GTC
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which tasks is the session management path responsible for? (Choose three.)
A. Verifying IP checksums
B. Performing route lookup
C. Performing session lookup
D. Allocating NAT translations
E. Checking TCP sequence numbers
F. Checking packets against the access list
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 5
What is the purpose of the Integrity component of the CIA triad?
A. to ensure that only authorized parties can modify data
B. to determine whether data is relevant
C. to create a process for accessing data
D. to ensure that only authorized parties can view data
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which Cisco product can help mitigate web-based attacks within a network?
A. Adaptive Security Appliance
B. Web Security Appliance
C. Email Security Appliance
D. Identity Services Engine
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
lead4pass 210-260 dumps
If a supplicant supplies incorrect credentials for all authentication methods configured on the switch, how will the switch respond?
A. The supplicant will fail to advance beyond the webauth method.
B. The switch will cycle through the configured authentication methods indefinitely.
C. The authentication attempt will time out and the switch will place the port into the unauthorized state.
D. The authentication attempt will time out and the switch will place the port into VLAN 101.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
What security feature allows a private IP address to access the Internet by translating it to a public address?
A. NAT
B. hairpinning
C. Trusted Network Detection
D. Certification Authority
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
What is one requirement for locking a wired or wireless device from ISE?
A. The ISE agent must be installed on the device.
B. The device must be connected to the network when the lock command is executed.
C. The user must approve the locking action.
D. The organization must implement an acceptable use policy allowing device locking.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
What is the purpose of a honeypot IPS?
A. To create customized policies
B. To detect unknown attacks
C. To normalize streams
D. To collect information about attacks
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
In which three ways does the RADIUS protocol differ from TACACS? (Choose three.)
A. RADIUS uses UDP to communicate with the NAS.
B. RADIUS encrypts only the password field in an authentication packet.
C. RADIUS authenticates and authorizes simultaneously, causing fewer packets to be transmitted.
D. RADIUS uses TCP to communicate with the NAS.
E. RADIUS can encrypt the entire packet that is sent to the NAS.
F. RADIUS supports per-command authorization.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 12
Which statement about extended access lists is true?
A. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on source and destination and are most effective when applied to the destination
B. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on source and destination and are most effective when applied to the source
C. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on destination and are most effective when applied to the source
D. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on source and are most effective when applied to the destination
Correct Answer: B

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[2017 PDF Free Download] High Quality Cisco 200-105 Dumps Exam Training Resources And Youtube Free Update

Lead4pass offers latest Cisco ICND2 200-105 dumps pdf practice files and study guides free try. “Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)” is the name of Cisco 200-105 exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Lead4pass Cisco https://www.lead4pass.com/200-105.html dumps exam questions and answers are updated (204 Q&As) are verified by experts. Prepare for Cisco 200-105 exam with best Cisco ICND2 200-105 dumps pdf training resources and dumps vce youtube demo, pass Cisco 200-105 exam test easily.

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND2
Exam Name: Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0)
Exam Code: 200-105
Total Questions: 204 Q&As
100-105 dumps
QUESTION 1
What can be done to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two.)
A. Administratively shut down the interface.
B. Physically secure the interface.
C. Create an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces with the access-group command.
D. Configure a virtual terminal password and login process.
E. Enter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 2
Which EIGRP for IPv6 command can you enter to view the link-local addresses of the neighbors of a device?
A. show ipv6 eigrp 20 interfaces
B. show ipv6 route eigrp
C. show ipv6 eigrp neighbors
D. show ip eigrp traffic
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
A network administrator has configured access list 173 to prevent Telnet and ICMP traffic from reaching a server with the address of 192.168.13.26. 200-105 dumps Which commands can the administrator issue to verify that the access list is working properly? (Choose three.)
A. Router# ping 192.168.13.26
B. Router# debug access-list 173
C. Router# show open ports 192.168.13.26
D. Router# show access-lists
E. Router# show ip interface
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 4
Which type of interface can negotiate an IP address for a PPPoE client?
A. Ethernet
B. dialer
C. serial
D. Frame Relay
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
It has become necessary to configure an existing serial interface to accept a second Frame Relay virtual circuit. Which of the following are required to solve this? (Choose three)
A. configure static frame relay map entries for each subinterface network.
B. remove the ip address from the physical interface
C. create the virtual interfaces with the interface command
D. configure each subinterface with its own IP address
E. disable split horizon to prevent routing loops between the subinterface networks
F. encapsulate the physical interface with multipoint PPP
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 6
Which component of the Cisco SDN solution serves as the centralized management system?
A. Cisco OpenDaylight
B. Cisco ACI
C. Cisco APIC
D. Cisco IWAN
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
At the end of an RSTP election process, 200-105 dumps which access layer switch port will assume the discarding role?
A. Switch3, port fa0/1
B. Switch3, port fa0/12
C. Switch4, port fa0/11
D. Switch4, port fa0/2
E. Switch3, port Gi0/1
F. Switch3, port Gi0/2
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
What three actions will the switch take when a frame with an unknown source MAC address arrives at the interface? (Select three.)
A. Send an SNMP trap.
B. Send a syslog message.
C. Increment the Security Violation counter.
D. Forward the traffic.
E. Write the MAC address to the startup-config.
F. Shut down the port.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
200-105 dumps
Why has this switch not been elected the root bridge for VLAN1?
A. It has more than one interface that is connected to the root network segment.
B. It is running RSTP while the elected root bridge is running 802.1d spanning tree.
C. It has a higher MAC address than the elected root bridge.
D. It has a higher bridge ID than the elected root bridge.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
What are the benefit of using Netflow? 200-105 dumps (Choose three.)
A. Network, Application & User Monitoring
B. Network Planning
C. Security Analysis
D. Accounting/Billing
Correct Answer: ACD

QUESTION 11
What is a difference between TACACS+ and RADIUS in AAA?
A. Only TACACS+ allows for separate authentication.
B. Only RADIUS encrypts the entire access-request packet.
C. Only RADIUS uses TCP.
D. Only TACACS+ couples authentication and authorization.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which statement about QoS default behavior is true?
A. Ports are untrusted by default.
B. VoIP traffic is passed without being tagged.
C. Video traffic is passed with a well-known DSCP value of 46.
D. Packets are classified internally with an environment.
E. Packets that arrive with a tag are untagged at the edge of an administrative domain.
Correct Answer: E

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[2017 PDF Free Download] Free Latest Cisco 210-451 Dumps VCE Youtube And PDF Materials Update

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Cloud
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cloud Fundamentals
Exam Code: 210-451
Total Questions: 60 Q&As
210-451 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which option contains server hardware identifiers, firmware, state, configuration, and connectivity characteristics?
A. pools
B. policies
C. service profiles
D. resource groups
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which two options are benefits of the Cisco InterCloud Solution? (Choose two.)
A. enforces standardization on a single hypervisor product
B. provides self service for hybrid resources
C. management of heterogeneous SAN solutions
D. secure connectivity between public and private Clouds
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 3
Which option is an open and extensible southbound protocol that supplies policy directly to data center networks? 210-451 dumps
A. OpFlex
B. vPath
C. VM-FEX
D. OpenDaylight
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Refer to the command line display below:
vsan database
vsan 1000 name FCoE
vlan 1000
fcoe vlan 1000
int e1/1
switchport mode trunk
switchport trunk allowed vlan 1000
no shut
int vfc10
bind interface e1/1
switchport trunk allowed vsan 1000
no shut
On which line does the error occur that prevents FCoE from operating correctly in a Cisco Nexus switch?
A. fcoe vlan 1000
B. switchport trunk allowed vsan 1000
C. int vfc10
D. bind interface e1/1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
What is an invalid Cloud deployment model?
A. distributed
B. private
C. community
D. hybrid
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which option is one essential characteristic of Cloud computing? 210-451 dumps
A. It must use virtualization.
B. It must provide load balancing services.
C. It must provide on-demand self service.
D. It must run on open source software.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which two descriptions of VXLAN are true? (Choose two.)
A. The VXLAN Identifier space is 24 bits.
B. VXLAN uses the Internet Protocol as the transport medium.
C. VXLAN adds 24 bytes of overhead to each packet.
D. VXLAN is primarily designed for small environments.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 8
Which two technologies support running Linux and Windows virtual machines? (Choose two.)
A. KVM
B. LXD
C. Docker
D. Microsoft Hyper-V
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 9
What are two characteristics of a LUN? (Choose two.)
A. A LUN must be fully comprised of one physical disk
B. A LUN handles file system creation
C. A LUN can be comprised of multiple physical disks
D. A LUN is a unique identifier
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 10
Which Cloud service model is appropriate for a physical data center move to the Cloud?
A. Infrastructure as a Service
B. Platform as a Service
C. Compute as a Service
D. Software as a Service
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which of the following is a feature that improves the performance of software applications that run on the Cisco UCS servers in a data center by bypassing the kernel when sending and receiving networking packets?
A. A, vPath
B. VM-FEX
C. usNIC
D. VMware PassThrough
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
Which of the following best describes the order of operations of FCoE Initialization Protocol? 210-451 dumps
A. VLAN Discovery, FCF Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery, FC Command
B. VLAN Discovery, FCF Discovery, PLOGI Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery
C. FCF Discovery, PLOGI Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery
D. VLAN Discovery, FCF Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery
Correct Answer: D

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSD
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Advanced Solutions
Exam Code: 070-489
Total Questions: 97 Q&As
070-489 dumps
QUESTION 1
You need to configure the Content Enrichment web service to index content from the AbstractIndexer service.
What should you do?
A. Set the value of the OutputProperties array to Trigger=True.
B. Set the value of the SendRawData property to false.
C. Configure conditions for the Trigger property.
D. Set the value of the InputProperties property to Trigger=True.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
You need to raise the visibility of the sites.
What should you do?
A. Enable the Reports and Data Search feature for the site collection.
B. Create a custom timer job that generates the SiteMap.xml file in the root directory of the web application.
C. Add a Script Editor Web Part to the landing page of the publishing site. In the web part, enter the location of the SiteMap.xml file.
D. In Internet Information Services (IIS), enable the SiteMap ISAPI filter for the web application.
E. Enable the Search Engine Sitemap Site Collection feature for the site collection.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 3
You need to configure the external content type to search for research papers.
Which indexing connector should you use? 070-489 dumps
A. .NET Type Connector
B. WCF Service Connector
C. Custom Connector
D. SQL Server Connector
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You create a custom Visual Web Part. You deploy the solution package to the farm by using Windows PowerShell. When you try to add the custom Visual Web Part to a SharePoint site, an error message displays that includes a correlation ID.
You need to determine the cause of the error.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Run the Get-SPLogEvent Windows PowerShell cmdlet.
B. Run the Get-SPDiagnosticConfig Windows PowerShell cmdlet.
C. Run the Get-SPHealthAnalysisRule Windows PowerShell cmdlet.
D. View the Service Calls tab on the Developer Dashboard.
E. View the Unified Logging Service (ULS) tab on the Developer Dashboard.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 5
You need to ensure that users can upload pictures.
Which code segment should you insert at line MP57?
070-489 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
You need to implement logging.
Which items should you implement? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. SPDiagnosticsServiceBase.WriteEvent
B. Microsoft.SharePoint.Diagnostics.ULSLogEntry
C. SPUser.Sid
D. PortalLog.LogString
E. SPAlertTemplate
F. SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges
Correct Answer: BF

QUESTION 7
You need to implement connection management for catalog connections.
Which method should you use? 070-489 dumps (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Public void UpdateCatalogConnection(CatalogConnectionSettingscatalogInfo)
B. Public void OnPublishCatalog(string catalogPath)
C. Public void DeleteCatalogConnection(string catalogPath)
D. Public void SetCatalogConnection(string catalogPath, boot disconnect)
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 8
You need to add code to line MP57 to display the required properties for the user profile.
How should you complete the relevant code? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct locations in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.) Select and Place:
070-489 dumps
Correct Answer:
070-489 dumps
QUESTION 9
You need to search for research papers that contain media files.
What should you do? {Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Add an Association operation from the ResearchPapers.ID field to the Windows Media Service.
B. Use Remote BLOB storage.
C. Add an Association operation from the ResearchPapers.ID field to the TreyResearch external content type.
D. Create a SQL Server-based external content type.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
You need to configure authentication to access the SQL data source during development.
Which authentication mechanism should you use?
A. Impersonated Windows Identity
B. Pass Through
C. Impersonated Custom Identity
D. Forms Based Authentication
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
You need to resolve the image loading issue.
What should you do? 070-489 dumps (Each correct answer presents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Set the size of the site collection object cache to at least 100 MB.
B. Enable the binary large object (BLOB) cache on each front-end web server.
C. Activate the Content Organizer site feature.
D. Enable authenticated cache profiles for the site output cache.
E. Enable publishing features for the site collection.
F. Set the default device channel to the active channel.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 12
You need to generate document identifiers for each new document that is uploaded to the site.
What should you do?
A. Create a derived class that inherits from the abstract class named Microsoft.Office.DocumentManagement.Documentld and then override all of the abstract methods.
B. Create a derived class that inherits from the abstract class named Microsoft.Office.DocumentManagement.DocumentldProvider and then override all of the virtual members.
C. Create a derived class that inherits from the Microsoft.Office.DocumentManagement.DocumentldProvider abstract class and then implement all abstract members.
D. Create a class to implement the Microsoft.Office.DocumentManagement.IDocumentld interface and then override all of the virtual members.
Correct Answer: B

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