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QUESTION 1
A company implemented VoIP in a campus network and now wants a consistent method to implement using AutoQoS. Which two parameters must be considered before AutoQoS is configured? (Choose two.)
A. CEF must be enabled.
B. AutoQoS is available only on routers.
C. Traffic discovery must be performed manually.
D. No service policy can be applied already.
E. Manual traffic analysis must be performed.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 2
Which two benefits are achieved if a network is designed properly with a structured addressing scheme? (Choose two.)
A. efficient ACLs
B. improved redundancy
C. hardened security
D. easier troubleshooting
E. added resiliency
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 3
Which of the following features might be used by the Enterprise Campus network designer as a means of route filtering?
A. IPv4 static routes
B. Route tagging using a route map in an ACL
C. Tagging routes using the BGP MED
D. EIGRP stub networks
Correct Answer: D
300-320
QUESTION 4                   300-320
Which option describes why duplicate IP addresses reside on the same network in Cisco network design?
A. HSRP designed network
B. using Cisco ACE in active/passive mode
C. VRRP designed network
D. running multiple routing protocols
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which two options are storage topologies? (Choose two.)
A. WAS
B. DAS
C. CAS
D. NAS
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 6
Which Layer 2 messaging protocol maintains VLAN configuration consistency?
A. VTP
B. VSS
C. LLDP
D. CDP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which two physical components can enable high availability on a Cisco 6500 device? (Choose two.)
A. dual supervisor modules
B. bundled Ethernet Interconnects
C. line modules with DFCs
D. redundant power supplies
E. VSS interlink cables
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 8
Which algorithm does IS-IS use to determine the shortest path through a network?
A. Bellman-Ford routing algorithm
B. Johnson’s algorithm
C. Dijkstra’s algorithm
D. Floyd-Warshall algorithm
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
A network design engineer has been asked to reduce the size of the SPT on an IS-IS broadcast network.
Which option should the engineer recommend to accomplish this task?
A. Configure the links as point-to-multipoint.
B. Configure QoS in all links.
C. Configure a new NET address.
D. Configure the links as point-to-point.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which two types of authentication mechanisms can be used by VRRP for security? (Choose two.)
A. SHA-1
B. MD5
C. SHA-256
D. plaintext authentication
E. PEAP
Correct Answer: BD

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Question No : 1
A voicemail product that supports only the G.711 codec is installed in headquarters. Which action allows branch Cisco IP phones to function with voicemail while using only the G.729 codec over the WAN link to headquarters?
A. Configure Cisco Unified Communications Manager regions.
B. Configure transcoding within Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
C. Configure transcoding resources in Cisco IOS and assign to the MRGL of Cisco IP phones.
D. Configure transcoder resources in the branch Cisco IP phones.
Answer: C

Question No : 2
The Cisco Unified Communications system of a company has five types of devices:
•Cisco Jabber Desktop
•CP-7965
•DX-650
•EX-60
•MX-200
Which two types of devices are affected when an engineer changes the DSCP for Video Calls service parameter? (Choose two.)
A. DX-650
B. Cisco Jabber Desktop
C. CP-7965
D. EX-60
E. MX-200
Answer: A,C

Question No : 3
Refer to the exhibit.
300-075
Which three statements about when user A calls user using SIP are true? (Choose three.)  300-075
A. SIP TCP/TLS ports must be opened from internal to DMZ and vice versa.
B. Deploying a Cisco VCS Expressway behind a NAT mandates the use of the Advanced Networking option key.
C. Cisco VCS Control and Cisco VCS Expressway support static NAT.
D. Deploying a Cisco VCS Control inside a NAT mandates the use of the Advanced Networking option key.
E. RT and RTCP ports must be opened at the firewall from internal to DMZ and vice versa
F. The NAT device must translate from 10.X.X X to 193.1.1.X and vice versa.
Answer: A,B,E

Question No : 4
When configuring Cisco Unified Survivable Remote Site Telephony, which CLI command enables this feature on the router?
A. call-manager-fallback
B. ccm-manager redundant-host
C. ccm-manager sccp local
D. ccm-manager switchback
Answer: A

Question No : 5
Which three commands can be used to verify SRST fallback mode? (Choose three.)
A. show telephony-service all
B. show telephony-service ephone-dn
C. show telephony-service ephone
D. show telephony-service voice-port
E. show telephony-service tftp-bindings
Answer: A,B,C

Question No : 6
What happens when a user logs in using the Cisco Extension Mobility Service on a device for which the user has no user device profile?
A. The Extension Mobility log in fails.
B. The device takes on the default device profile for its type.
C. The user can log in but does not have access to any features, soft key templates, or button templates.
D. The device uses the first device profile assigned to the user in Cisco Unified Communications Manager.
Answer: B

Question No : 7
When you use the Query wizard to configure the trace and log central feature to collect install logs, if you have servers in a cluster in a different time zone, which time is used?  300-075
A. TLC adjusts the time change appropriately.
B. TLC uses its local time for all systems.
C. TLC queries for the time zone as part of configuration.
D. TLC produces an error and must be run remotely.
Answer: A

Question No : 8
Which two statements regarding IPv4 Static NAT address 209.165.200.230 has been configured on a VCS Expressway are true? (Choose two.)
A. The Advanced Networking or Dual Network Interfaces option key has been installed.
B. VCS rewrites the Layer 3 source address of outbound SIP and H.323 packets to 209.165.200.230.
C. VCS applies 209.165.200.230 to outbound SIP and H.323 payload messages.
D. With static NAT enabled on the LAN2 interface, VCS applies 209.165.200.230 to outbound H.323 and SIP payload traffic exiting the LAN1 interface.
Answer: A,C

Question No : 9
When using SAF, how do you prevent multiple nodes in a cluster from showing up in the Show Advance section of the SAF Forwarder configuration?
A. Configure the publisher node only in the SAF Forwarder configuration page.
B. Append an @ symbol at the end of the client label value in the SAF Forwarder configuration page.
C. Configure the correct node in the EIGRP configuration of the gateway router that is associated with the Cisco Unified Communications Manager node.
D. Configure the SAF Security Profile Configuration to support only a single node.
Answer: B

Question No : 10
Which two statements about Cisco Unified Communications Manager Extension Mobility are true? (Choose two.)
A. After an autogenerated device profile is created, you can associate it with one or more users.
B. An autogenerated device profiles can be loaded on a device at the same time as a user profile.
C. A device can adopt a user profile even when no user is logged in.
D. A device profile has most of the same attributes as a physical device.
E. Devices can be configured to allow more than one user to be logged in at the same time.
Answer: B,C

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QUESTION 1
For client server failover purposes, the application server team has indicated that they must not have the standard 30 second delay before their switchport enters a forwarding state. For their disaster recovery feature to operate successfully, they require the switchport to enter a forwarding state immediately. Which spanningtree feature satisfies this requirement?
A. Rapid Spanning-Tree
B. Spanning-Tree Timers
C. Spanning-Tree FastPort
D. Spanning-Tree PortFast
E. Spanning-Tree Fast Forward
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
In order to allow immediate transition of the port into forwarding state, enable the STP PortFast feature. PortFast immediately transitions the port into STP forwarding mode upon linkup. The port still participates in STP. So if the port is to be a part of the loop, the port eventually transitions into STP blocking mode.
Example configuration:
Switch-C# configure terminal
Switch-C(config)# interface range fa0/3 – 24
Switch-C(config-if-range)# spanning-tree portfast

QUESTION 2
What does the command vlan dot1q tag native accomplish when configured under global configuration?
A. All frames within the native VLAN are tagged, except when the native VLAN is set to 1.
B. It allows control traffic to pass using the non-default VLAN.
C. It removes the 4-byte dot1q tag from every frame that traverses the trunk interface(s).
D. Control traffic is tagged.
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
The “vlan dot1q tag native” will tag all untagged frames, including control 300-115 traffic, with the defined native VLAN.
300-115
QUESTION 3
When you design a switched network using VTPv2, how many VLANs can be used to carry user traffic?
A. 1000
B. 1001
C. 1024
D. 2048
E. 4095
F. 4096
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
VTP versions 1 and 2 Supports normal VLAN numbers (1-1001). Only VTP version 3 supports extended VLANs (1-4095).

QUESTION 4
A network engineer has just deployed a non-Cisco device in the network and wants to get information about it from a connected device. Cisco Discovery Protocol is not supported, so the open standard protocol must be configured. Which protocol does the network engineer configure on both devices to accomplish this?
A. IRDP
B. LLDP
C. NDP
D. LLTD
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
The Link Layer Discovery Protocol (LLDP) is a vendor-neutral link layer protocol in the Internet Protocol Suite used by network devices for advertising their identity, capabilities, and neighbors on an IEEE 802 local area network, principally wired Ethernet. LLDP performs functions similar to several proprietary protocols, such as the Cisco 300-115 Discovery Protocol (CDP).

QUESTION 5
A manager tells the network engineer to permit only certain VLANs across a specific trunk interface. Which option can be configured to accomplish this?
A. allowed VLAN list
B. VTP pruning
C. VACL
D. L2P tunneling
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
When a trunk link is established, all of the configured VLANs are allowed to send and receive traffic across the link. VLANs 1 through 1005 are allowed on each trunk by default. However, VLAN traffic can be removed from the allowed list. This keeps traffic from the VLANs from passing over the trunk link.
Note: The allowed VLAN list on both the ends of the trunk link should be the same. For Integrated Cisco IOS Software based switches, perform these steps:
1.To restrict the traffic that a trunk carries, issue the switchport trunk vlan-list interface configuration command.
This removes specific VLANs from the allowed list.

QUESTION 6
Which statement about the use of SDM templates in a Cisco switch is true?
A. SDM templates are used to configure system resources in the switch to optimize support for specific features, depending on how the switch is used in the network.
B. SDM templates are used to create Layer 3 interfaces (switch virtual interfaces) to permit hosts in one VLAN to communicate with hosts in another VLAN.
C. SDM templates are used to configure ACLs that protect networks and specific hosts from unnecessary or unwanted traffic.
D. SDM templates are used to configure a set of ACLs that allows the users to manage the flow of traffic handled by the route processor.
E. SDM templates are configured by accessing the switch using the web interface.
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
You can use SDM templates to configure system resources in the switch to optimize support for specific features, depending on how the switch is used in the network. You can select a template to provide maximum system usage for some functions; for example, use the default template to balance resources, and use access template to obtain maximum ACL usage. To allocate 300-115 hardware resources for different usages, the switch SDM templates prioritize system resources to optimize support for certain features.

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QUESTION 1
You need to prepare the web servers for a SharePoint installation in the new farm.
Which three actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose three.)
A. Save the PrerequisiteInstaller. Arguments file in the same directory as the prerequisite installer.
B. Define the installation arguments in a file named PrerequisiteInstaller. Arguments. txt
C. Install Windows Server 2012 on SERVER02.
D. Define the installation arguments in a file named PrerequisiteInstaller. Arguments. cfg.
E. Save the PrerequisiteInstaller. Arguments file in the SharePoint installation directory.
F. Install Windows Server 2012 on a virtual machine.
Correct Answer: ABF

Explanation:
A, B: Using a text editor, create a new text document named PrerequisiteInstaller. Arguments. txt. Save this file to the same location as PrerequisiteInstaller. exe.
F: From Scenario: All servers must be virtualized unless otherwise specified
Note: From scenario (but applies to the database server, not the web servers): The database servers must be physical machines running Windows Server 2012 with direct access to storage.
70-331 dumps
QUESTION 2
You need to configure permissions for App1 administrators. What should you do?
A. Add the adatum. com SharePoint administrators as site collection administrators.
B. Add the fabrikam. com SharePoint administrators to the SharePoint_Shell_Access role.
C. Add the fabrikam. com SharePoint administrators as site collection administrators.
D. Add the adatum. com SharePoint administrators to the SharePoint_Shell_Access role.
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
SharePoint administrators in the fabrikam. com domain must be 70-331 dumps able to administer App1 by using Windows PowerShell.

QUESTION 3
You need to ensure that the web servers can communicate with service applications after you replace the existing farm. What should you do?
A. Configure Windows Firewall to allow traffic on port 1433.
B. Configure the network firewalls to allow traffic on port 32843.
C. Configure Windows Firewall to allow traffic on port 32843.
D. Configure the network firewalls to allow traffic on port 1433.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You need to configure SharePoint for the appropriate protection of merger documents.
What should you do?
A. Configure Information Rights Management.
B. Configure Web Part security.
C. Configure document library permissions.
D. Configure document conversions.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
You need to configure the antivirus application.
Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents a part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Configure scanning to exclude the %Program Files%\Microsoft SQL Server \MSSQL10_50.SHAREPOINT\ folder.
B. Configure scanning to include the %Program Files%\Microsoft Office Servers\15.0\ folder.
C. Configure scanning to exclude the %Program Files%\Microsoft Office Servers\15.0\ folder.
D. Configure scanning to exclude the %Program Files%\Microsoft Office Servers\14.0\ folder.
E. Configure scanning to include the %Program Files%\Microsoft Office Servers\14.0\ folder.
F. Configure scanning to exclude the %Program Files%\Common Files\Microsoft shared\Web Server Extensions folder.
Correct Answer: CF

Explanation:
From Scenario:
The antivirus application must not scan SharePoint directories.
Folders that may have to be excluded from antivirus scanning in SharePoint SharePoint Foundation 2013
You may have to configure your antivirus software to exclude the following folders and subfolders from antivirus scanning: Drive:\Program Files\Common Files\Microsoft Shared\Web Server Exten- sions.
If you do not want to exclude the whole Web Server Extensions folder from antivirus scanning, you SharePoint Server 2013
You may have to configure the antivirus software to exclude the Drive:\Program Files\Microsoft Office Servers folder from antivirus scanning for SharePoint Server 2013. If you do not want to exclude the whole Microsoft Office Servers folder from antivirus scanning, you can exclude only the following folders:
Drive:\Program Files\Microsoft Office Servers\15.0\Data (This folder is used for the indexing process. If the index files are config- ured to be located in a different folder, you also have to exclude that loca- tion.)
Drive:\Program Files\Microsoft Office Servers\15.0\Logs Drive:\Program Files\Microsoft Office Servers\15.0\Bin Drive:\Program Files\Microsoft Office Servers\15.0\Synchronization Ser- vice Any location in which you decided to store the disk-based binary large ob- ject (BLOB) cache (for example, C:\Blobcache).
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Question No : 1
A company migrates to Office 365. 2,000 active users have valid Office 365 licenses assigned.
An additional 5,000 user accounts were created during the migration and testing processes. These users do not have any licensesassigned.
You need to remove the Office 365 user accounts that do not have any licenses assigned by using the least amount of administrative effort.
Which Windows PowerShell command should you run?
A. Get-MsolUser -All -EnabledFilter “DisabledOnly” | Remove-MsolUser -Force
B. Get-MsolUser-EnabledFilter “DisabledOnly” | Remove-MsolUser -Force
C. Get-MsolUser -All -UnlicensedUsersOnly | Remove-MsolUser -Force
D. Get-MsolUser -UnlicensedUsersOnly | Remove-MsolUser–Force
Answer: C

Question No : 2
Litware Inc. has an Office 365 Enterprise El plan. Employees have access to all Office 365 services.
Employees in the human resources (HR) department must continue to use the on-premises SharePoint 2013 deployment due to legal requirements.
You need to disable access to SharePoint Online for all HR department employees.
How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell commands? To answer, drag the appropriate Windows PowerShell segment to the correct location or locations in the answer area. Each Windows PowerShell segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
70-346 dumps
Answer:
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Question No : 3                      70-346 dumps
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company.
You must use Windows PowerShell to manage cloud identities in Office 365. You must use a computer that runs Windows 8 to perform the management tasks.
You need to ensure that the Windows 8 computer has the necessary software installed.
What should you install first?
A. Microsoft Office 365 Best Practices Analyzer for Windows PowerShell
B. Windows PowerShell 4.0
C. Remote Server Administration Tools for Windows
D. Microsoft Online Services Sign-in Assistant
Answer: D

Question No : 4
An organization plans to migrate to Office 365. You use the Windows Azure Active Directory (AD) Sync tool.
Several users will not migrate to Office 365. You must exclude these users from synchronization. All users must continue to authenticate against the on-premises Active Directory.
You need to synchronize the remaining users.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Populate an attribute for each user account.
B. Disable the user accounts in Active Directory.
C. Perform a full synchronization.
D. Configure the connection filter.
E. Run the Windows PowerShell command Set-MsolDirSyncEnabled -EnableDirSync $false.
Answer: B,D,E

Question No : 5
You use a centralized identity management system as a source of authority for user account information. You export a list of new user accounts to a file on a daily basis. Your company uses a local Active Directory for storing user accounts for 70-346 dumps on-premises solutions.
You are configuring the Windows Azure Active Directory Sync tool.
New user accounts must be created in both the local Active Directory and Office 365. You must import user account data into Office 365 daily.
You need to import the new users. What should you do?
A. Use the Office 365 admin center to import the file.
B. Create a Windows PowerShell script to import account data from the file into Active Directory.
C. Use the Windows Azure Management Portal to import the file.
D. Create a Windows PowerShell script that uses the MSOnline module to import account data from the file.
Answer: B

Question No : 6
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company synchronizes the local Active Directory objects with a central identity management system.
The environment has the following characteristics:
Each department has its own organizational unit (OU).
The company has OU hierarchies for partner user accounts.
All user accounts are maintained by the identity management system.
You need to ensure that partner accounts are NOT synchronized with Office 365.
What should you do?
A. Configure OU-based filtering by using the Windows Azure Active Directory Sync tool.
B. In the Windows Azure Active Directory portal, configure OU-based filtering.
C. Configure user attribute-based filtering by using the Windows Azure Active Directory Sync tool.
D. In the Windows Azure Active Directory portal, configure user attribute-based filtering.
Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
You recently migrated from System Center Configuration Manager 2007 to System Center 2012
Configuration Manager.
Your network contains a client computer that runs the 64-bit version of Windows 7 and the 32- bit version
of Windows 7. Some client computers have the Microsoft Application Virtualization (App-V) client installed.
You have an Application named App1. You have a 64-bit version of App1, a 32-bit version of App1, and a
virtual version of App1.
You need to deploy the Application to all of the client computers. The solution must minimize the amount of 70-243 pdf
administrative effort.
What should you do?
A. Create a new Application that has three different deployment types and create a target collection for
each of the deployment types.
B. Create a new Application that has three different deployment types and configure global conditions for
each of the deployment types.
C. Create a new package for each version of App1.
D. Create a new Application for each version of App1.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 2
You have an Application named App1.
You need to ensure that users in the finance department can install App1 by using the Application Catalog.
What should you do?
A. Create a required user deployment and target the deployment to all of the finance department users.
B. Create a required user deployment and target the deployment to all of the client computers in the
finance department.
C. Create an available user deployment and target the deployment to all of the finance department users.
D. Create an available user deployment and target the deployment to all of the client computers in the
finance department.

Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 3
Your company uses System Center 2012 Configuration Manager with Microsoft Forefront Endpoint
Protection integration.
You deploy Forefront Endpoint Protection to all client computers.
The company uses a management Application named App1.
You discover that Forefront Endpoint Protection blocks App1.
You need to ensure that App1 can run.
How should you configure the Default Client Malware Policy? (Each correct answer presents a complete
solution. Choose two.)
A. Create a software restriction policy.
B. Add a process exclusion.
C. Add a file location exclusion.
D. Modify the schedule scan settings.
E. Click the Use behavior monitoring check box

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 4
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
You deploy a Microsoft Office 2007 package to all client computers by using Configuration Manager.
Your company purchases Office 2010.
You need to ensure that all users can install Office 2010 from the Application Catalog.
What should you do?
A. Deploy a new package for Office 2010.
B. Deploy Office 2010 by using a Group Policy Object (GPO).
C. Update the Office 2007 source file and redeploy the package.
D. Deploy a new Application for Office 2010.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5
You deploy Windows 7 by using Operating System Deployment (OSD). The development task sequence
contains steps to install software updates and Applications.
The amount of time required to deploy the Windows 7 image has increased significantly during the last six
months.
You need to recommend a solution to reduce the amount of time it takes to deploy the image.
What should you recommend?
A. Synchronize software updates before deploying the image.
B. Use offline servicing for the image.
C. Create a new automatic deployment rule.
D. Add an additional Install Software Updates step to the deployment task sequence.

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 6
You have Windows 7 images that are rebuilt quarterly and sported to System Center 2012 Configuration
Manager.
The Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT) 2012 is integrated with Configuration Manager.
You need to reduce the network security risks when the images are deployed by using Operating System
Deployment (OSD).
What should you do? (Choose all that Apply.)
A. After the Apply Operating System Image task sequence step, add a step to install software updates
offline.
B. Before the Apply Operating System image task sequence step, add a step to install Deployment
Imaging Servicing and Management (DISM).
C. After the installation of the final Application, add an Install Software Updates task sequence step.
D. After the Apply Operating System Image task sequence step, add a Run Command line step that runs
wuaudt.exe /detectnow
E. Before the Apply Operating System image task sequence step, add a step to install the Windows
Automated Installation Kit (Windows AIK).

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 7
Your company uses System Center 2012 Configuration Manager to distribute operating system images.
The standard operating system for client computers is Windows 7 Enterprise (x86).
You receive 300 new desktop computers. Each computer has a new storage controller.
When you attempt to deploy an existing image to one of the computers, you receive an error message
indicating that a storage device cannot be found during the pre-boot deployment phase. You need to
ensure that you can deploy Windows 7 to the new computers by using an image.
What should you do?
A. Import the storage drivers to the Drivers container and update the task sequence.
B. Create a new x64 boot image and configure the operating system image to use the x64 boot image.
C. Create a new driver package and update the task sequence.
D. Update the existing x86 boot image to include the storage drivers.

Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
You plan to create a build and capture a task sequence to build a reference image of Windows 7.
You need to identify which applications must exist in Configuration Manager before you can create the
build and capture task sequence.
Which applications should you identify? 70-243 pdf (Choose all that Apply.)
A. Microsoft Deployment Toolkit (MDT)
B. Configuration Manager client
C. System Preparation tool (Sysprep)
D. User State Migration Tool (USMT)

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 9
You are the network administrator for a company named Contoso, Ltd. The network contains 1,000
desktop computers and 500 servers. The network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager
environment.
The names of all the desktop computers in the human resources department start with the letters HR, for
example HR001 and HR023.
A device collection named All Server Devices contains all of the servers. A device collection named All
Desktop Devices contains all of the desktop computers.
You plan to create a new collection named All HR Computers and Servers.
The new collection must contain all of the human resources department computers and all of the servers.
The collection must not contain any other computers.
You need to create a membership rule for the new collection.
Which rule should you include in the membership rule? (Choose 70-243 pdf all that Apply.)
A. QUERY RULE: select * from SMS_R_System where SMS_R_system.NetbiosName like “HR%”
B. INCLUDE RULE: All Server Devices
C. EXCLUDE RULE: All NON HR Computers
D. EXCLUDE RULE: All Desktop Devices
E. QUERY RULE- select * from SMS_R_System where
SMS_R_system.OperatingSystemNameandVersion like. *%Workstation*
F. QUERY RULE- select * from SMS_R_System where
SMS_R_system.OperatingSystemNameandVersion not like. *%Server*

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 10
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
The Client Status node in the Configuration Manager console shows a downward trend in client health.
You verify the logs on several clients.
You discover that the clients are healthy and are communicating normally to management points.
You need to identify the reasons why the Configuration Manager console displays a downward trend in
client health.
Which reasons should you identify? (Choose all that Apply.)
A. In Client Status Settings Properties, the Heartbeat discovery during the following days interval is
shorter than the Heartbeat Discovery interval.
B. The age set in the Delete Aged Discovery Data maintenance task is shorter than the Heartbeat
Discovery interval.
C. The Delete Obsolete Client Discovery Data maintenance task is disabled.
D. The Active Directory sites that are members of boundary groups are modified.
E. Microsoft SQL Server replication to the management points stopped.

Correct Answer: BC
QUESTION 11
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
The hierarchy contains a Central Administration at Site1 and a primary site named Site.
You discover that none of the packages created on Site1 are displayed in Site2.
You need to identify whether there is a replication issue between the sites.
What should you review?
A. the Inventoryagent.log file
B. the Rcmctrl.log file
C. the Microsoft SQL Server replication diagnostic files
D. the Despool.log file

Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 12
Your network contains two Active Directory forests named contoso.com and litwareinc.com.
You implement System Center 2012 Configuration Manager in the contoso.com forest.
You deploy the Configuration Manager client to all of the client computers in contoso.com by using a logon
script.
You need to ensure that the Configuration Manager client is automatically deployed to all of the client
computers in the litwareinc.com forest.

What should you do? (Choose all that Apply.)
A. Configure a Client Push Installation account.
B. Enable Client Push installation.
C. Enable Active Directory System Discovery.
D. Configure an administrative user.
E. Enable Active Directory Forest Discovery.

Correct Answer: ABCE
QUESTION 13
Your network contains a System Center 2012 Configuration Manager environment.
The environment contains a single primary site.
You need to provide users with the ability to remotely reset their mobile device to the factory settings.
What should you install?
A. Application Catalog web service point and Application Catalog website point
B. Out of band service point and Application Catalog web service point
C. Device management point and System Health Validator point
D. System Health Validator point and Application Catalog website point

Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 14
Your network contains a Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server. All client computers are
configured as WSUS clients.
All of the client computers have Windows Firewall enabled. Windows Firewall is configured to block Fie
and Printer Sharing.
Users are not configured as local Administrators on their client computers.
You deploy System Center 2012 Configuration Manager.
You need to identify which methods you can use to deploy the Configuration Manager client to all of the
client computers.
Which client installation methods should you identify? (Choose 70-243 pdf all that Apply.)
A. A logon script installation
B. A manual client installation
C. A software update-based client installation
D. A Client Push Installation
E. An Active Directory Group Policy-based installation

Correct Answer: BCE
QUESTION 15
Your network contains a single Active Directory domain.
The functional level of the domain is Server 2003.
The domain contains the following servers:
Ten servers that run Windows Server 2003
Twenty servers that run Windows Server 2008
One server that has Microsoft Exchange Server 2007 installed

One server that has System Center 2012 Configuration Manager installed
Users have mobile devices that run Windows Mobile 6.5 and Windows Phone.
You need to ensure that you can manage the settings of the mobile devices and perform remote device
wipes by using Configuration Manager.
What should you do?
A. Upgrade the Exchange server to Exchange Server 2010. Configure an Exchange connector.
B. Change the functional level of the domain to windows 2008. Upgrade the Exchange server to
Exchange Server 2010.
C. Upgrade all Windows 2003 domain controllers to Windows 2008.
D. Upgrade all of the domain controllers to Windows 2008 R2. Configure an Exchange connector.

Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
You are a network administrator of an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server1 has the DHCP Server server role and the Network Policy Server role service installed. Microsoft Certification  http://www.lead4pass.com/70-411.html  Exam Material 70-411 Exam Dumps
You enable Network Access Protection (NAP) on all of the DHCP scopes on Server1.
You need to create a DHCP policy that will apply to all of the NAP non-compliant DHCP clients.
Which criteria should you specify when you create the DHCP policy?
A. The client identifier
B. The user class
C. The vendor class
D. The relay agent information
Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and has the 70-411 pdf Network Policy Server role service installed.
An administrator creates a RADIUS client template named Template1.
You create a RADIUS client named Client1 by using Template 1.
You need to modify the shared secret for Client1.
What should you do first?
A. Configure the Advanced settings of Template1.
B. Set the Shared secret setting of Template1 to Manual.
C. Clear Enable this RADIUS client for Client1.
D. Clear Select an existing template for Client1.
Answer: D
70-411
QUESTION 3
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2.
The domain contains a server named Server1 that has the Network Policy Server server role and the Remote Access server role installed. The domain contains a server named Server2 that 70-411 vce is configured as a RADIUS server. Server1 provides VPN access to external users.
You need to ensure that all of the VPN connections to Server1 are logged to the RADIUS server on Server2.
What should you run?
A. Add-RemoteAccessRadius -ServerNameServer1 -AccountingOnOffMsg Enabled – SharedSecret “Secret” -Purpose Accounting
B. Set-RemoteAccessAccounting -AccountingOnOffMsg Enabled -AccountingOnOffMsg Enabled
C. Add-RemoteAccessRadius -ServerName Server2 -AccountingOnOffMsg Enabled – SharedSecret “Secret” -Purpose Accounting
D. Set-RemoteAccessAccounting -EnableAccountingType Inbox -AccountingOnOffMsg Enabled
Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Your network contains four Network Policy Server (NPS) servers named Server1, Server2, Servers, and Server4.
Server1 is configured as a RADIUS proxy that forwards connection requests to a remote RADIUS server group named Group1.
You need to ensure that Server2 and Server3 receive connection requests. Server4 must only receive connection requests if both Server2 and Server3 are unavailable.
How should you configure Group1?
A. Change the Weight of Server4 to 10.
B. Change the Weight of Server2 and Server3 to 10.
C. Change the Priority of Server2 and Server3 to 10.
D. Change the Priority of Server4 to 10.
Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com.
A network administrator creates a Group Policy central store.
After the central store is created, you discover that when you create new 70-411 dumps Group Policy objects (GPOs), the GPOs do not contain any Administrative Templates.
You need to ensure that the Administrative Templates appear in new GPOs.
What should you do?
A. Add your user account to the Group Policy Creator Owners group.
B. Configure all domain controllers as global catalog servers.
C. Copy files from %Windir%\Policydefimtions to the central store.
D. Modify the Delegation settings of the new GPOs.
Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. The domain contains 500 client computers that run Windows 8 Enterprise.
You implement a Group Policy central store.
You have an application named App1. App1 requires that a custom registry setting be deployed to all of the computers.
You need to deploy the custom registry setting. The solution must minimize administrator effort.
What should you configure in a Group Policy object (GPO)?
A. The Software Installation settings
B. The Administrative Templates
C. An application control policy
D. The Group Policy preferences
Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Your network contains two Active Directory forests named contoso.com and dev.contoso.com. The contoso.com forest contains a domain controller named DC1. The dev.contoso.com forest contains a domain 70-411 controller named DC2. Each domain contains
an organizational unit (OU) named OU1.
Dev.contoso.com has a Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1. GPO1 contains 200 settings, including several settings that have network paths. GPO1 is linked to OU1.
You need to copy GPO1 from dev.contoso.com to contoso.com.
What should you do first on DC2?
A. From the Group Policy Management console, right-click GPO1 and select Copy.
B. Run the mtedit.exe command and specify the /Domaintcontoso.com /DC: DC 1 parameter.
C. Run the Save-NetGpocmdlet.
D. Run the Backup-Gpocmdlet.
Answer: A

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[2017 PDF Free Download] Latest Microsoft 70-488 Exam PDF Questions And Answers, Pass 70-488 Exam Easily, Best 70-488 Dumps Exam Study Guide

QUESTION 1
You need to set the appropriate permissions for the franchise employees’ customer list and customer subsite access.
What should you do?  http://www.lead4pass.com/70-488.html Microsoft Certification Exam Material 70-488 Exam Dumps
A. Add franchise employees to the Members group in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection. Break inheritance at the franchisee subsite level. Create a custom role definition at the franchisee subsite level. Add franchise employees to the custom role.
B. Create a custom role definition in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection with Limited Access to the Customers list. Add franchise employees to the custom role at the CorporateSiteCollection site collection. Break inheritance at the subsite level. Add franchise owners to the Owners group at the subsite level.
C. Create a custom role definition in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection with Limited Access to the Customer list. Add franchise employees to the custom role. Allow full inheritance of the role definition and permissions at the site level.
D. Add franchise employees to the Visitors group in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection. Break inheritance at the franchisee subsite level. Create a custom role definition at the subsite level with Full Control permissions. Add franchise employees to the custom role.
Correct Answer: B
70-488
QUESTION 2
You need to create rules in the CourierMobile app based on the 70-488 pdf ItemType that arrives.
For which ItemTypes should you test? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Tent
B. IPM.Note
C. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Request
D. IPM.Appointment
E. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Cancelled
F. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Pos
G. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Neg
Correct Answer: DE

Explanation:
From scenario:
* The CourierMobile app receives Microsoft Outlook appointments (D) and Outlook appointment cancellations (E) from the CloudManager app. The appointments include the address of the location for pick-up or drop-off.

QUESTION 3
You need to meet the requirements for data storage for the 70-488 vce CourierMobile app and the CloudMananger app.
Which technologies should you use? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Windows Azure SQL Database
B. SharePoint content database
C. Secure Store
D. SQL Server Express LocalDB
E. SharePoint list
Correct Answer: AD

Explanation:
A: SQL Azure in the cloud. lightweight version of Express that has the same programmability features, but
D: LocalDB is a it runs in user mode and has a fast, zero-configuration installation and a short list of prerequisites.
From scenario:
* CourierMobile App
The CourierMobile app must be able to capture more than 30 million data points of 70-488 dumps location data daily as they occur and upload the location data to the cloud when connected to the Internet.
* Cloudmanager App
/ The CloudManager app must elastically scale to capture courier location data as the number of bicycle couriers increases or decreases.
/ The CloudManager app must process bicycle courier location data from a data store capable of storing more than 30 million items.

QUESTION 4
You need to 70-488 create a custom sign-in page to allow the users of the FranchiseMonitor app to authenticate against SharePoint and Margie’s Travel API.
What should you do?
A. Create an app for SharePoint. Set the trust level to Sandbox solution. Create an application page that writes a cookie named FedAuth. Deploy the app and configure the Sign In Page URL in Central Administration Authentication Provider for the zone.
B. Create an app for SharePoint. Set the trust level to Farm solution. Create an application page that writes a cookie named FedAuth. Deploy the app and configure the Sign In Page URL in Central Administration Authentication Provider for the zone.
C. Create an app for SharePoint. Set the trust level to Farm solution. Create an application page that writes a cookie named ASPXAUTH. Deploy the app and configure the Sign In Page URL in Central Administration Authentication Provider for the zone.
D. Create an app for SharePoint. Set the trust level to Sandbox solution. Create an application page that writes a cookie named ASPXAUTH. Deploy the app and configure the Sign In Page URL in Central Administration Authentication Provider for the zone.
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
You are evaluating the planned deployment of the additional Exchange Server 2013 servers.
You need to recommend changes to the DNS records to ensure that email messages are routed to the 070-341 dumps Detroit site if the servers in the New York site are unavailable.
What should you recommend adding?
A. An MX record that has a preference value of 10 that points to EX4
B. An MX record that has a preference value of 20 that points to EX4
C. An MX record that has a preference value of 10 that points to EX3
D. An MX record that has a preference value of 20 that points to EX3
Answer: B

Explanation:
Configure Exchange to Accept Mail for Multiple Authoritative Domains:
Exchange 2013 Help
MX (mail exchange) Specifies a mail exchange server for the 070-341 pdf domain, which allows mail to be delivered to the correct mail servers in the domain.
Managing DNS Records
070-341
QUESTION 2
You need to recommend a solution to resolve the issue of email messages not being received on the Internet.
What should you include in the solution?
A. Modify the CNAME record.
B. Add an MX record.
C. Modify the TXT record.
D. Add a pointer (PTR) record.
Answer: D

Explanation:
Detroit and New York users have direct connection to the internet but not Chicago users. It appears that via a Send Connector Chicago email is sent to New York mail server. Given this then the spf txt record listing the 070-341 vce New York mail server is correct (131.107.1.200) and there should not be any issues with the Chicago email Once the planned changes have been implemented then the DNS txt record would have to accommodate the Detroit Mail server (EX3) (131.107.2.200) in order for the email to function correctly for Detroit users.

QUESTION 3
You need to recommend a solution for the New York office that meets the technical requirements for client access.
What should you include in the recommendation? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. DNS round robin
B. a Layer 4 hardware load balancer
C. a Layer 7 hardware load balancer
D. the Network Load Balancing (NLB) feature
E. a Client Access server array
Answer: C,E

Explanation: Load Balancing: Exchange 2013 Help

QUESTION 4
You are evaluating the deployment of the additional Exchange Server 2013 servers.
You need to recommend changes to the transport configurations to 070-341 exam ensure that all email messages sent from the Detroit office are routed through EX2.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Increase the cost of the CHI-NY site link to 15.
B. Specify an Exchange-specific cost of 20 for the CHI-DET site link.
C. Decrease the cost of the CHI-NY and the DET-NY site links to 4.
D. Increase the cost of the DET-NY site link to 15.
Answer: B

Explanation:
Exchange-specific cost
By default, Exchange uses the cost assigned to an IP site link for Active Directory replication purposes to compute a routing topology.

QUESTION 5
You are implementing a solution to meet the security requirements for Outlook authentication.
You purchase a new certificate that has a subject name of mail.proseware.com and SANs of autodiscover.proseware.com and oa.proseware.com.
You create a host (A) record for oa.proseware.com in the public DNS zone.
Remote users report that they fail to connect to their mailbox by using Outlook.
You need to ensure that the remote users can connect to their mailbox from Outlook. The solution must meet the security requirements.
Which two commands should you run? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Set-OutlookProvider EXPR -CertPrincipalName msstd:mail.proseware.com
B. Set-OutlookAnywhere -ExternalHostName oa.proseware.com – ExternalClientAuthenticationMethod Basic -ExternalClientsRequireSsI $true – InternalHostName mail.proseware.com -InternalClientAuthenticationMethod NTLM – InternalClientsRequireSsI Strue
C. Set-OutlookProvider EXPR -CertPrincipalName msstd:oa.proseware.com
D. Set-OutlookAnywhere -ExternalHostName mail.proseware.comExternalClientAuthenticationMethod Basic -ExternalClientsRequireSsI $true – InternalHostName oa.proseware.com -InternalClientAuthenticationMethod NTLM – InternalClientsRequireSsI $true
Answer: A,B

Explanation:
Set-OutlookProvider EXPR
The common benefit of enabling Outlook Provider, is to assure Outlook client 070-341 connecting to a specific server, which has a specific name in subject name field on the certificate. Set-OutlookProvider EXPR -CertPrincipalName msstd:mail.contoso.com Running above command will force Outlook client “Only connect to proxy servers that have this principal name in their certificate” to be enabled and value set to msstd:mail.contoso.com. If client connects to a proxy server, which does not have mail.contoso.com in subject name field in the certificate, the connection will fail.

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